Anatomy Study Guide PDF

CHAPTER 1 33) Which of the following are signs of aging at the cellular level? (Check all that apply) A) Graying hair, waning strength, and wrinkles. B) Unrepaired DNA and abnormal proteins. C) Impaired cell division and the ability to break down and...

CHAPTER 1 33) Which of the following are signs of aging at the cellular level? (Check all that apply) A) Graying hair, waning strength, and wrinkles. B) Unrepaired DNA and abnormal proteins. C) Impaired cell division and the ability to break down and recycle worn cell parts. D) A fatty liver and clogged blood vessels. 35) Why are the topics of anatomy and physiology difficult to separate? A) Physiological functions depend on anatomy of structures. B) Physiological functions in an organism are ongoing. C) The body parts take up space. D) Our understanding of physiology is changing more than our understanding of anatomy. 36) The activities of an anatomist consist of__________, whereas those of a physiologist consist of__________. A) observing body parts; studying functions of body parts B) conducting experiments; making microscopic examinations C) studying molecules; observing forms of the body parts D) sketching; dissecting 37) What is the origin of the term "anatomy"? A) From the Greek word for "function". B) Named after the first anatomist. C) From the Greek word for "cutting up". D) For the function of internal organs. 38) What is the term "physiology" is related to? A) The Latin word for "physical shape". B) The structure of internal organs. C) The Greek word for "cutting up". D) The Greek word for "relationship to nature". 40) Which of the following is not true of organelles? A) They carry on specific activities. B) They are only in cells of humans. C) They are composed of aggregates of large molecules. D) They are found in many types of cells. 41) Which of the following lists best illustrates increasing levels of complexity?  A) Cells, tissues, organelles, organs, organ systems. B) Tissues, cells, organs, organelles, organ systems. C) Organs, organelles, organ systems, cells, tissues. D) Organelles, cells, tissues, organs, organ systems. 42) In all organisms, what is the basic unit of structure and function? A) The atom B) The organelle C) The macromolecule D) The cell 43) Specialized cell types organized in a way that provides a specific function form__________. A) tissues B) organs C) organ systems D) organelles 46) The ability of an organism to sense and react to changes in its body is an example of__________. A) circulation B) respiration C) responsiveness D) Absorption 47) What process is defined as the removal of wastes? A) Metabolism B) Absorption C) Assimilation D) Excretion 48) Which of the following characteristics of life and their descriptions is correct? A) Responsiveness: obtaining and using oxygen to release energy from food. B) Assimilation: sensing changes inside or outside the body and reacting to them. C) Respiration: changing absorbed substances into forms that are chemically different from those that entered the body fluids. D) Circulation: the movement of substances in body fluids. 49) What is the definition of metabolism?  A) The removal of wastes produced by chemical reactions. B) The breakdown of substances into simpler forms. C) The taking in of nutrients. D) The chemical reactions occurring in an organism that support life. 51) Which of the following processes is most important to the continuation of the human species? A) Responsiveness B) Movement C) Reproduction D) Respiration 52)What is the definition of homeostasis? A) The changing external conditions. B) The maintenance of stable external conditions. C) The changing internal conditions. D) The maintenance of stable internal conditions 58) In negative feedback mechanisms, what occurs due to changes that move a variable away from the normal state? A) Stimulation to change the variable in the same direction. B) Inhibition of all body reactions. C) Stimulation to change the variable in the opposite direction. D) Stimulation to reduce all requirements of the body. 59) What is the effect of a positive feedback mechanism? A) It causes long-term changes. B) It moves conditions away from the normal state. C) It brings conditions back to the normal state. D) It produces stable conditions. 60) Which of the following illustrates a positive feedback mechanism? A) Maintenance of blood pressure. B) Uterine contractions during childbirth. C) Body temperature control. D) Control of blood sugar. 61) Which of the following is true regarding the effect of a positive feedback mechanisms? A) They are the primary means of maintaining homeostasis. B) They stabilize conditions. C) They cause unstable conditions, at least temporarily. D) They maintain the internal environment. E) They move conditions toward a setpoint. 66) The thoracic cavity is__________ to the abdominopelvic cavity. A) dorsal (posterior) B) ventral (anterior) C) superior D) inferior 73) The upper midportion of the abdomen is called the__________region. A) hypochondriac B) iliac C) hypogastric D) epigastric 74) When the body is placed in the anatomical position, which of the following is not true? A) The head is facing to the front. B) The palms are facing backwards. C) The body is erect. D) The upper limbs are at the sides. CHAPTER 2 25) Matter is composed of elements which, in turn, are composed of_________. A) atoms B) inorganic molecules C) organic molecules D) chemicals 27) What occurs to form a covalent bond? A) One atom loses electrons and another atom gains electrons. B) Atoms share one or more pairs of electrons. C) Oppositely charged atoms are attracted to one another. D) Like-charged atoms repel each other 29) Sodium ions and calcium ions are examples of what type of particle? A) Cations B) Uncharged particles C) Anions D) Salts 39) How does a computerized tomography (CT) scan differ from a conventional X-ray image? A) The CT scan is two-dimensional. B) The CT scan is three-dimensional. C) The CT scan is four-dimensional. D) The CT scan is safer. 40) Positron emission tomography (PET) imaging relies upon the emission of__________ from radioactive isotopes such as carbon-11. A) positively charged electrons B) negatively charged electrons C) positively charged neutrons D) protons 52) What is the chemical formula H2O referring to? A) An atom with two hydrogen molecules and one oxygen molecule. B) An atom with one hydrogen molecule and two oxygen molecules. C) A molecule that contains two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom. D) A molecule that contains one hydrogen atom and two oxygen atom 59) What are electrolytes? A) Compounds that form covalent bonds with water. B) Compounds that ionize in water. C) Compounds that alter pH of the solution they are in electrolytes. D) Compounds that release radioactive radiation. 60) What is measured by the pH scale? A) Concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution. B) Concentration of salts dissolved in a solution. C) Concentration of hydroxide ions in a solution. D) Strength of an electrical current that a solution can carry. 61) What is the most abundant inorganic substance in the body? A) Glucose B) Water C) Lipid  D) DNA 62) A blood pH of__________ is called alkalemia. A) 6.5 - 7.0 B) 7.0- 7.2 C) 7.2 - 7.5 D) 7.5 - 7.8 69) What is the role of oxygen in the body? A) Reacts with water to form carbonic acid. B) Used to release energy from nutrient molecules. C) Functions as a major electrolyte. D) Produced as a waste product of cellular metabolism 80) What are nucleic acids? A) Inorganic salts B) Molecules that act as enzymes. C) Molecules comprised of nucleotides. D) Primary sources of cellular energy 84) Nucleic acids include__________. A) proteins and DNA B) RNA and DNA C) enzymes and RNA D) steroids and triglycerides 89) Which of these is a monosaccharide? A) Glucose B) Starch C) Cellulose D) Sucrose 98) A patient’s blood test shows that their blood pH is 7.26. What is the term for this condition? A) Alkalosis B) Acidosis CHAPTER 3 40) What are the three major parts of a cell? A) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, and vesicles.  B) Nucleus, nucleolus, and nuclear envelope. C) Microtubules, ribosomes, and centrosomes. D) Nucleus, cytoplasm, and cell membrane. 41) A cell is surrounded by an extremely thin, flexible membrane. Why is the membrane selectively permeable? A) It allows all substances to pass through, making it easier to absorb nutrients. B) It allows all organic substances to pass through, but excludes all inorganic substances that could be harmful. C) It allows some substances to pass through and excludes others based on size, polarity, and other factors. D) It does not allow any substances to pass through as they could damage the cell 43) What are the major components of the cell membrane? A) Lipids and carbohydrates B) Proteins and carbohydrates C) Lipids and proteins D) Carbohydrates and polysaccharides 48) What best describes endoplasmic reticulum? A) A component of the cytoskeleton. B) A cellular inclusion. C) A nuclear pore. D) A network of interconnected membranes 52) Which of the following describes a lysosome? A) A double-membraned organelle that is the "powerhouse" of the cell. B) A complex network of interconnected membranes that is a communication system within the cell. C) A tiny, membranous sac that contains enzymes that degrade worn cell parts and debris. D) A nonmembranous structure that is essential for m 54) For which of the following organelles are the structure and function correctly described? A) Endoplasmic reticulum: a network of interconnected membranes forming sacs and canals that packages protein molecules for secretion. B) Ribosome: membranous vesicle containing digestive enzymes. C) Golgi apparatus: particles composed of protein and RNA which synthesize proteins. D) Mitochondrion: nonmembranous structure that synthesizes protein 60) During cell division, it is likely the chromosomes will not separate properly if the centrioles fail to attach to what structure? A) Centromeres B) Cilia C) Nucleus D) Microtubules 62) What is found within the nucleolus? A) DNA only B) RNA and protein C) DNA and protein D) RNA only 63) What is the function of the nucleus? A) To direct the activities of the cell. B) To form mitochondria. C) To transfer energy. D) To provide shape to the cell. 64) Which organelle contains the nucleolus? A) The mitochondrion B) The endoplasmic reticulum C) The Golgi apparatus D) The nucleus 68) What would occur if the concentration of glucose in the extracellular fluid is higher than the concentration in the intracellular fluid? A) Water will enter the cell by osmosis. B) Water will leave the cell by osmosis. C) Glucose will enter the cell by osmosis. D) Glucose will leave the cell by osmosis. 69) What would happen if a red blood cell was placed in a hypotonic solution? A) The cell will shrink. B) Only permeable substances will leave, but concentrations in the cell do not change. C) The cell will remain the same size and shape. D) The cell will swell and may eventually burst. 70) Red blood cells are placed in a solution of 0.9% NaCl and no diffusion or osmosis is observed. This means that the solution is__________. A) isotonic B) hypotonic  C) hypertonic D) isertonic 71) Cells are placed in a solution that causes them to absorb liquid until they burst. When water is removed from the solution, newly added cells do not burst. The original solution was__________ , while the second was__________ to the cells. A) hypotonic; isotonic B) hypertonic; isotonic C) isotonic; hypotonic D) isotonic; hypertonic 72) What is osmosis? A) Movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. B) Movement of water through a selectively permeable membrane to a solution containing a higher concentration of impermeant solute. C) Movement of water through a selectively permeable membrane to a solution containing a lower concentration of impermeant solute. D) Movement of ions from a low pressure region to a high pressure region through a selectively permeable membrane 74) A red blood cell that is placed in a solution shrivels up. The solution is__________. A) hypertonic B) hypotonic C) isotonic D) isertonic 75) What is an isotonic solution? A) A solution that has a greater concentration of impermeant solute than a cell. B) A solution that results in more water entering than leaving a cell. C) A solution that has the same osmotic pressure as a cell. D) A solution that will cause a cell to shrink 79) What is phagocytosis? A) The process by which a cell membrane engulfs solid particles. B) The process by which a particle enters a cell by moving down its concentration gradient. C) The process by which a cell membrane engulfs droplets. D) The process by which a carrier molecule moves a substance across a cell membrane using ATP. 80) Following the nomenclature for cells, what cell types take in solid particles like bacteria?  A) Phagozyme B) Phagase C) Phagocyte D) Phagosome 83) During what phase of the cell cycle does DNA replicate? A) Prophase B) Interphase C) Metaphase D) Telophase 84) What is the correct order of the stages of the cell cycle? A) Differentiation, cytoplasmic division, mitosis, interphase. B) Interphase, differentiation, cytoplasmic division, mitosis. C) Interphase, mitosis, cytoplasmic division, differentiation. D) Mitosis, interphase, cytoplasmic division, differentiation 86) During which phase of mitosis do centromeres of replicated chromosomes separate? A) Prophase B) Metaphase C) Anaphase D) Telophase 103) Where is a mitochondrion found in the cell? A) In the intracellular fluid B) In the extracellular fluid C) In the cell membrane D) In the fluid of the nucleus CHAPTER 7 Question 1 The _______ system supports and protects the body by serving as a bony framework for the other tissues and organs. muscular skeletal nervous  integumentary Question 2 Bones serve as levers that transmit _______ forces. neural neuromuscular muscular skeletal Question 3 Muscles are attached to bones by bands of connective tissue called _______. fasciae ligaments tendons Question 4 The main shaft of a long bone is known as its _______. cartilage metaphysis diaphysis epiphysis Question 5 5. The _______ are growth centers that disappear at maturity, becoming vague epiphyseal lines. diaphyses metaphyses epiphyses ligaments Question 6 6. The marrow cavity of a long bone is lined with a thin layer of cells called the _______. osteon hyaline endosteum periosteum Question 7 Blood vessels that nourish the bone tissue _______. pass through the haversian canals line the haversian canals extend through narrow channels connect the fibrocytes Question 8 Compact bone consists of interlocking, spindle-shaped units called_______. articular cartilage osteons osteoblasts lacunae Question 9 Osteoblasts _______. form osteoclasts are cells that break down bone produce apatite produce bone by secreting collagen Question 10 The _______ is/are not part of the axial skeleton. sternum ribs skull pelvic girdle Question 11 The cranium consists of _______ cranial bones that enclose the brain. 20 6 22 8 Question 12 The sagittal suture _______. joins the parietal bones to the frontal bone joins the parietal bone to the occipital bone is the joint between the two parietal bones permits a baby's head to be compressed during birth Question 13 A shallow depression on the surface of a bone is called a _______. sinus facet sulcus fossa Question 14 The occipital bone _____. forms the roof of the cranium forms the posterior part and most of the floor of the skull is the lower jaw bone forms the forehead Question 15 How many thoracic vertebrae are there? 12 3-5 5 7 Question 16 Each pectoral girdle consists of _____. scapula, clavicle sternum, clavicle ribs, sternum sternum, vertebrae Question 17 The medial bone of the forearm, the main forearm bone in the elbow joint, is the _____. humerus femur ulna radius Question 18 _____ are joints that do not permit movement.  Synovial Diarthroses Amphiarthroses Synarthroses Question 19 The six types of _____ joints are gliding, condyloid, saddle, pivot, hinge, and ball and socket. amphiarthrotic synarthrotic immovable synovial Question 20 Synovial fluid is found in the __________. marrow cartilage ligaments joint capsule Question 21 Bones are held together at joints by bands of connective tissue called _____. ligaments marrow tendons fasciae Question 22 The red marrow within some bones produces _____.  osteocytes osteoclasts hormones blood cells Question 23 The expanded ends of the bone are called _____. diaphyses endosteum epiphyses metaphyses Question 24 The inner layer of the periosteum contains cells that produce _____. marrow bone osteoclasts periosteum Question 25 Compact bone, which is very dense and hard, is found _____, where great strength is needed. near the surface of the bone in small cavities called lacunae within the epiphyses in the ribs only Question 26 Osteocytes are found in small cavities called _____.  haversian canals lacunae osteoclasts marrow Question 27 The spaces within the spongy bone are filled with _____. bone marrow osteons canaliculi lacunae Question 28 Osteoclasts _____. are modeled during growth produce bone cells are cells that break down bone secrete the protein collagen Question 29 A _____ is an air space lined with mucous membrane found in certain cranial bones. foramen sinus suture meatus Question 30 The _____ is/are not part of the appendicular skeleton. scapula  bones of the upper extremities pelvic girdle sacrum Question 31 The facial portion of the skull is made up of _____ bones. 8 14 34 20 Question 32 The forehead is formed by the ___________ bone(s). sphenoid ethmoid frontal parietal Question 33 The maxilla _______________. holds the pituitary gland has perforations through which the olfactory nerves pass forms the lower jaw forms the upper jaw Question 34 The vertebral column is made up of _____ cervical, _____ thoracic, and _____ lumbar vertebrae. 12; 7; 5  5; 12; 7 7; 12; 5 7; 5; 12 Question 35 The neural arch ______. is the body of a vertebra is the posterior, curved region of a vertebra contains the spinal cord is protected by an intervertebral disk Question 36 Carpal bones are located _______. at the junction of the palm and the fingers in the wrist in the fingers in the foot Question 37 If we compare the upper and lower limbs, _____. each has 28 phalanges the 16 carpal bones correspond to the 16 tarsal bones the 15 metacarpal bones correspond to the 15 metatarsal bones the humerus corresponds to the tibia Question 38 The elbow and knee are examples of a _____ joint. saddle hinge  gliding pivot Question 39 The _____ capsule is made of tough, fibrous connective tissue, and surrounds the joint. ligament joint ball and socket bursa Question 40 _____________ reduce(s) friction during joint movement and absorbs shock. Connective tissue Bursae Synovial fluid Cartilage