Anatomy Questions PDF

Anatomy Questions 1.​ Which of the following is most likely about the median plane of section?​ A. Median plane of section divides the body into 2 equal right and left sections​ B. Median plane of section divides the body into 2 equal anterior and posterior sections​ C. Median p...

Anatomy Questions 1.​ Which of the following is most likely about the median plane of section?​ A. Median plane of section divides the body into 2 equal right and left sections​ B. Median plane of section divides the body into 2 equal anterior and posterior sections​ C. Median plane of section divides the body into superior and inferior sections​ D. Median plane of section divides the body oblique sections​ 2.​ The epidermis is which one of the following 4 types of tissue?​ A. Connective tissue​ B. Muscle tissue​ C. Nerve tissue​ D. Epithelial tissue​ 3.​ Which of the following separates individual muscle fibers, fascicles, and muscles?​ A. Ligaments​ B. Fat and underlying Superficial fascia​ C. Neurovascular bundles​ D. Tendons​ E. Connective tissue/Deep fascia​ 4.​ Which of the following layers is made up of loose connective tissue & fat?​ A. Dermis​ B. Superficial Fascia​ C. Deep fascia​ D. Epidermis​ 5.​ Which of the following is the major contractile portion of a muscle?​ A. Ligament​ B. Tendon​ C. Belly​ D. Investing fascia​ E. Neurovascular bundle​ 6.​ Which of the following muscle fibers are multinucleated?​ A. Skeletal​ B. Cardiac​ C. Smooth​ 7.​ Which of the following bone structures is involved in formation of a joint?​ A. Shaft​ B. Crest​ C. Condyle​  D. Foramen​ E. Tubercle​ 8.​ Which of the following joints permit extensive abduction?​ A. Hinge​ B. Primary cartilaginous joint​ C. Fibrous​ D. Ball and socket​ E. Gomphosis​ 9.​ A 50-year-old male patient was brought by ambulance to the Emergency Department with a gunshot wound in his right chest. The chest X-ray reveals right-sided haemothorax. The bullet is located on the level between the 4th and 5th posterior ribs. What are the densities of air, blood, and the bullet?​ A. Air is whitest, bullet is darkest, and blood is white​ B. Air is darkest (black), bullet is white and blood is as white​ C. Air is darkest (black) and bullet is whitest, blood is light grey​ 10.​What projections of the X-rays should be done to precisely localize the bullet in the chest?​ A. Only PA Chest X-ray​ B. Only AP Chest X-ray​ C. Only lateral chest X-ray​ D. PA and lateral chest X-rays​ 11.​What type of CT window will allow for the best evaluation of lung parenchyma?​ A. Bone window​ B. Lung window​ C. Mediastinal window​ D. The type of window does not make any difference in evaluation of the lung parenchyma​ 12.​During an abdominal exam, free fluid was detected in the patient’s peritoneal cavity. What echogenicity in the scale of grey has fluid in ultrasound?​ A. Hyperechogenic (white)​ B. Isoechogenic (echogenicity between white and black)​ C. Hypoechogenic (darker)​ D. Anechogenic (black)​ 13.​What anatomical plane is presented on the attached scan?​ A. Sagittal​ B. Coronal​ C. Axial​  D. Oblique​ 14.​What is the most safe modality for pregnant patients for evaluation of the abdomen?​ A. Abdominal CT without contrast​ B. Abdominal CT with i.v. contrast​ C. Abdominal X-ray​ D. Abdominal MRI without contrast​ 15.​Which of the following are best visible on an MRI?​ A. Bones​ B. Fluid​ C. Soft tissue structures​ D. Air​ 16.​Where is the heart located?​ A. Superior Mediastinum​ B. Middle Mediastinum​ C. Posterior Mediastinum​ D. Anterior Mediastinum​ 17.​Which chamber of the heart does oxygenated blood returning from lungs enter to?​ A. Right Atrium​ B. Left Ventricle​ C. Right Ventricle​ D. Left Atrium​ 18.​A 44-year-old male patient comes to the doctor’s office. On the surface of the chest, the physician can locate the apex of the heart:​ A. At the level of the sternal angle​ B. In the left second intercostal space​ C. In the left fifth intercostal space​ D. In the right fifth intercostal space​ E. At the level of the xiphoid process of the sternum​ 19.​Which is the thickest layer of the cardiac wall?​ A. Epicardium​ B. Myocardium​ C. Fibrous Pericardium​ D. Visceral Pericardium​ 20.​Where is Fossa Ovalis located?​ A. Right Atrium​ B. Left Atrium​ C. Right Ventricle​  D. Left Ventricle​ 21.​The attending faculty in the coronary intensive care unit demonstrates to his students a normal heart examination. The first heart sound is produced by near-simultaneous closure of which of the following valves?​ A. Aortic and Tricuspid​ B. Aortic and Pulmonary​ C. Tricuspid and Mitral​ D. Mitral and Pulmonary​ E. Tricuspid and Pulmonary​ 22.​The mitral valve can be auscultated in one of the following areas:​ A. Left 5th intercostal space, about 9 cm away from the midline​ B. Left 5th costal cartilage (or at the base of xiphoid process)​ C. Right 2nd intercostal space​ D. Left 2nd intercostal space​ 23.​Tunica media of blood vessels is made up of:​ A. Smooth muscle​ B. Loose connective tissue​ C. Endothelial lining​ D. Dense connective tissue​ 24.​A cardiac catheter introduced via the femoral artery will eventually reach which of the following chambers of the heart?​ A. Right Atrium​ B. Left Ventricle​ C. Right Ventricle​ D. Left Atrium​ 25.​Choose the correct order of vessels that the catheter would pass on its way to the heart:​ A. External iliac a. – internal iliac a. – pulmonary trunk – pulmonary v.​ B. External iliac a. – common iliac a. – internal iliac a. – uterine a.​ C. External iliac a. – IVC – right atrium - SVC​ D. External iliac a. - common iliac a. – descending aorta – arch of aorta​ 26.​Portal vein enters which of the given organs:​ A. Liver​ B. Kidneys​ C. Spleen​ D. Pancreas​ E. Large Intestine​ 27.​Inferior Vena Cava is formed by the union of:​ A. Two Common Iliac Veins​ B. External and Internal Iliac Veins​ C. Portal and Splenic Veins​ D. Two Brachiocephalic Veins​ 28.​The right lymphatic duct collects lymph from one of the following regions:​ A. Pelvis​ B. Right Arm​ C. Abdomen​ D. Right Leg​ 29.​A 26-year-old woman comes to the office at 28 weeks gestation due to dyspnoea. She has been feeling short of breath when she is supine but has no other symptoms. The patient has had no prenatal care during her pregnancy. She has a history of epilepsy that is well-controlled with medication. She lives with her husband and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Her immunizations are up to date, and she has no allergies. Physical examination shows a uterine size that is larger than expected for gestational age. Sonographic assessment shows markedly elevated amniotic fluid levels. Which of the following foetal anomalies would most likely account for this patient's polyhydramnios?​ A. Spinal bifida​ B. Renal agenesis​ C. Atrial septa defect​ D. Tracheoesophageal atresia​ E. Hyaline membrane disease​ 30.​A new-born male presents with tachypnoea, progressive cyanosis, and expiratory grunting at birth. He was born at 28 weeks’ gestation to a diabetic mother. Chest X-rays show diffuse bilateral atelectasis and air bronchograms. Despite advanced resuscitation efforts, the neonate expired 10 hours after birth. Post-mortem histological examination of the lungs reveals acellular, proteinaceous material lining the alveolar septa. Which of the following cells secrete the substance that was deficient/defective in the neonate?​ A. Dust cell​ B. Parafollicular cell​ C. Macrophages​ D. Basophils​ E. Type II pneumocyte​ 31.​During an autopsy of a stillborn baby, you noticed that the lung has NO respiratory bronchioles or alveoli. Considering the developmental period of the lung, the baby probably died in which of the following stages?​ A. Pseudoglandular period​ B. Canalicular period​  C. Terminal sac period​ D. Alveolar period​ 32.​In which of the following stages of lung development is a premature infant born who would have a relatively good prognosis although they will require respiratory support and treatment with exogenous surfactant such as bovine surfactants?​ A. Alveolar stage​ B. Canalicular stage​ C. Terminal sac stage​ D. Pseudoglandular stage​ 33.​Kidneys are located between:​ A. T12-L3​ B. L3-L5​ C. T8-T12​ D. L3-S2​ 34.​Which of the following structures is not located at the hilum?​ A. Renal artery​ B. Renal vein​ C. Pelvis of ureter​ D. Minor calyces​ 35.​Identify structure no. 2:​ A. Kidney​ B. Gall bladder​ C. Urinary bladder​ D. Liver​ E. Spleen​ 36.​What is the site of the first ureteric constriction?​ A. Pelvic brim​ B. Vesico-Ureteric junction​ C. At the beginning​ 37.​True about the female urethra:​ A. Is around 15cm in length​ B. Has 3 parts​ C. Is prone to infections​ D. Is S-shaped​ 38.​Costal margins are formed by the following ribs:​ A. 7, 8, 9, 10​ B. 8, 9, 10​  C. 5, 6, 7, 8​ D. 4, 5, 6​ 39.​You are a radiologist reviewing this abdominopelvic CT scan. Which of the following statements is CORRECT concerning this image?​ A. C is the ileum and B is the left kidney.​ B. A is the liver seen on sagittal MRI scan.​ C. C is the gallbladder.​ D. A is the stomach seen on a coronal CT scan.​ E. B is the spleen seen on axial CT scan.​ 40.​A 29-year-old man was shot from the front by someone with a handgun. The bullet entered the right lower abdominal quadrant. Which organ is the most likely to be at risk of injury from the gunshot wound?​ A. Sigmoid colon​ B. Gallbladder​ C. Stomach​ D. Transverse colon​ E. Caecum​ 41.​Stomach occupies all regions of the abdominal cavity except:​ A. Umbilical region​ B. Epigastric region​ C. Left Hypochondriac region​ D. Right Iliac fossa​ 42.​Which of the following statements is false?​ A. Bile is produced in gall bladder​ B. Pharynx continues into oesophagus​ C. Stomach produces digestive enzymes​ D. Endocrine part of pancreas secretes insulin​ 43.​A 56-year-old female is undergoing surgery to remove her ascending colon (hemicolectomy) due to cancerous tumours located only in that segment of the GI tract. For the surgeon to cut and remove the ascending colon only, which of the following would most likely apply in this case?​ A. Cut the segment between duodenum and ileum.​ B. Cut between the proximal part of jejunum and distal part of ileum.​ C. Cut between the cecum and beginning part of transverse colon.​ D. Cut between the cecum and sigmoid colon.​ E. Cut between duodenum and distal end of transverse colon.​ 44.​This organ can be identified as which of the following labeled structures on the axial CT scan?​  A. Choice A​ B. Choice B​ C. Choice C​ D. Choice D​ E. Choice E​ F. Choice F​ 45.​GIT organs receive their arterial supply from:​ A. Abdominal aorta​ B. Internal Iliac artery​ C. Common Iliac artery​ D. External Iliac artery​ E. Descending thoracic aorta​ 46.​A 45-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital after her automobile left the highway in a rainstorm and hit a tree. She had been wearing a seat belt. On radiographic examination, it is observed that she has suffered fractures of the ninth and tenth rib on her left side and that she has intra-abdominal bleeding. Physical examination reveals hypovolemic shock and progressive hypotension. Which of the following organs is most likely injured to result in these clinical signs?​ A. Kidney​ B. Liver​ C. Spleen​ D. Stomach​ E. Pancreas​ 47.​A 50-year-old male experiences extreme thirst and frequent urination. Imaging studies reveal a tumor involving the posterior pituitary gland. Which of the following hormones is most likely to be affected by the tumor in this patient?​ A. Aldosterone​ B. Oxytocin​ C. Adrenocorticotropic hormone​ D. Cortisol​ E. Antidiuretic hormone​ 48.​A 40-year-old woman presents with weight gain and a round puffy “moon” face. Her blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg. Serum and urinary cortisol levels are elevated. Within which zone of the adrenal gland are glucocorticoids secreted?​ A. Medulla​ B. Zona fasciculata​ C. Zona glomerulosa​ D. Zona reticularis​ 49.​A 34-year-old woman was discovered to have hypertension during a routine office visit. Laboratory studies revealed elevated serum potassium and aldosterone. Which region of the adrenal gland is most likely to secrete aldosterone?​ A. Medulla​ B. Zona fasciculata​ C. Zona glomerulosa​ D. Zona reticularis​ 50.​A 34-year-old woman comes to the office with irregular menstrual periods and hirsutism (male-pattern hair growth). Laboratory studies reveal elevated blood levels of androgens. Which region of the adrenal gland is most likely to secrete androgens?​ A. Medulla​ B. Zona fasciculata​ C. Zona glomerulosa​ D. Zona reticularis​ 51.​A 34-year-old woman presents with paroxysmal hypertension and episodes of severe headache. Further evaluation reveals elevated levels of urinary catecholamine metabolites. Which region of the adrenal gland primarily produces catecholamines?​ A. Zona glomerulosa​ B. Adrenal cortex​ C. Zona fasciculata​ D. Adrenal medulla​ E. Zona reticularis​ 52.​A 34-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weakness, and orthostatic hypotension. Hormone analysis shows decreased levels of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and androgens. The patient was diagnosed with Addison disease due to autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex. Which of the following histopathologic findings is most likely to be present in this patient’s adrenal glands?​ A. Atrophy of the medulla​ B. Atrophy of the zona fasciculata, zona glomerulosa, and zona reticularis​ C. Atrophy of the zona fasciculata and zona glomerulosa​ D. Atrophy of the zona fasciculata and zona reticularis​ E. Atrophy of the zona glomerulosa and zona reticularis​ 53.​A 50-year-old female with a history of anxiety and insomnia presents with increased heart rate, sweating, and weight loss. Hormone analysis shows elevated levels of T3 and T4. What is the primary function of T3 and T4 in relation to the patient's symptoms?​ A. Promotion of muscle growth​ B. Regulation of calcium levels​ C. Stimulation of appetite​ D. Increased metabolic rate​  E. Fluid balance​ 54.​A 53-year-old female comes into the clinic with fatigue, weight gain, constipation, and complains that she is cold all the time. Lab results reveal decreased triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4). Decreased function of which of the following glands most likely led to the decrease in T3 and T4 in this patient?​ A. Adrenal gland​ B. Endocrine pancreas​ C. Parathyroid gland​ D. Pineal gland​ E. Thyroid gland​ 55.​A 13-year-old boy is evaluated for abnormal growth. The patient is above the 99th percentile for height and at the 90th percentile for weight. The provisional diagnosis is gigantism, a condition caused by hypersecretion of growth hormone. Which of the following best describes the cells involved in the secretion of growth hormone?​ A. Corticotrophs in the anterior pituitary​ B. Gonadotrophs in the hypothalamus​ C. Lactotrophs in the posterior pituitary​ D. Somatotrophs in the anterior pituitary​ E. Thyrotrophs in the posterior pituitary​ 56.​A 55-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of vaginal bleeding. History reveals that she had menopause 2 years back. The physician orders a CT-Scan pelvis. Identify the (pointed) organ.​ A. Fundus of uterus​ B. Body of uterus​ C. Cervix of uterus​ D. Vagina​ 57.​Fundus of uterus is located:​ A. Superior to the body of uterus​ B. Inferior to the opening of fallopian tubes​ C. Inferior to cervix​ D. Between the body & cervix of uterus​ 58.​A medical resident has to insert a catheter, which is a tube, to drain urine from the urinary bladder in a 58-year-old woman prior to surgery. Which of the following correctly lists the sequence of order of structures that the catheter passes within to reach the urinary bladder in this woman?​ A. Clitoris, urethra, urinary bladder​ B. Clitoris, vagina, urethra, urinary bladder​ C. Vagina, urethra, cervix, uterus, urinary bladder​ D. Vagina, urethra, prostate gland, urinary bladder​  E. Urethra, urinary bladder​ 59.​On review of the image, which of the following statements is correct?​ A. Uterus is seen in a coronal plane of view​ B. Image shows an anatomically normal/biological male pelvis​ C. Urinary bladder is absent​ D. Cervix is in the wrong location​ E. Vagina is viewable in the image​ 60.​A 38-year-old woman visits her gynecologist for her annual examination. During a bimanual pelvic examination, which of the following structures is the most likely that can be palpated through the vaginal canal by the physician?​ A. Anterior aspect of urinary bladder​ B. Iliac crest​ C. Descending colon​ D. Cervix​ E. Fundus of uterus​ 61.​A 3D CT scan shows severe pelvis fractures due to a car accident. Which structure is the most likely at risk of injury because it is located directly posterior to the area marked by the dashed yellow circle?​ A. Penis​ B. Rectum​ C. Urinary bladder​ D. Seminal vesicle​ E. Epididymis​ 62.​Identify structure numbered 2.​ A. Urinary bladder​ B. Seminal vesicle​ C. Prostate gland​ D. Epididymis​ E. Vas deferens​ 63.​Point out the structures which belong to the central nervous system:​ A. Spinal cord and Spinal nerves​ B. Brain and Spinal Cord​ C. Brain and Cranial nerves​ D. Brain and Autonomic nerves​ 64.​Which nerve fibres carry the sensation of a mosquito bite on the back, just lateral to the spinous process of the T4 vertebra?​ A. Somatic afferent​ B. Somatic efferent​  C. Visceral afferent​ D. Visceral efferent​ E. Somatic efferent and visceral afferent​ 65.​A neurologist is concerned about a patient’s inability to walk without a distinct limp (movement disorder). Which of the following portions of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) will the neurologist examine first?​ A. Autonomic​ B. Enteric​ C. Myenteric​ D. Somatic​ E. Submucosal​ 66.​Which parts of neurons contribute to the gray matter of the CNS and PNS systems?​ A. Cell bodies​ B. Dendrites​ C. Axons​ D. Axons and cell bodies​ 67.​In which of the following spaces does the CSF normally circulate?​ A. Subdural​ B. Epidural​ C. Subarachnoid​ D. Extradural​ 68.​A newborn with an enlarged head is diagnosed with obstructive hydrocephalus. Which part of his ventricular system is most likely obstructed?​ A. Foramen Monro​ B. Third ventricle​ C. Central canal​ D. Cerebral aqueduct​ E. Foramen Lushka​ 69.​If the cerebral aqueduct is obstructed, which part of the ventricular system would enlarge?​ A. Subarachnoid space​ B. Fourth ventricle​ C. Central canal​ D. Lateral ventricle​ 70.​Identify the (pointed) part of the brain on the given MRI:​ A. Pons​ B. Thalamus​ C. Hypothalamus​  D. Midbrain​ 71.​A 27-year-old stuntman is thrown out of his vehicle prematurely when the car used for a particular scene speeds out of control. His spinal cord is crushed at the level of the fourth lumbar spinal segment. Which of the following structures would most likely be spared from destruction?​ A. Dorsal horn​ B. Ventral horn​ C. Lateral horn​ D. Gray matter​ E. Pia mater​