Aits 6 Arjunaa 2023-24 Past Paper PDF

All India Test Series (2023-24) Test Code: ANA/06 AITS TEST - 06 ARJUNA NEET DURATION DURATION:: 200 90 Minutes Minutes DATE: 03/03/2024...

All India Test Series (2023-24) Test Code: ANA/06 AITS TEST - 06 ARJUNA NEET DURATION DURATION:: 200 90 Minutes Minutes DATE: 03/03/2024 M. MARKS: 720 Topics Covered Physics: Full Syllabus Chemistry: Full Syllabus Botany: Full Syllabus Zoology: Full Syllabus General Instructions: 1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet. 2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple choice questions (four options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are divided into two sections (A and B) as per details given below: (a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos. – 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151 to 185). All Questions are compulsory. (b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos. – 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to 200). In section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject. Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section-B before they start attempting the question paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated. 3. There is only one correct response for each question. 4. Each correct answer will give 4 Mark while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong answer. The maximum marks are 720. 5. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall. 6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. OMR Instructions: 1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pen. 2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software. 3. Never use pencils to mark your answers. 4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process. 5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area may create problems during the evaluation. 6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses. 7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR). Name of the Student (In CAPITALS): _______________________________________________________________ Roll Number: _____________________________________________________________________________________________ OMR Bar Code Number: ________________________________________________________________________________ Student’s Signature: _______________________________ Invigilator’s Signature _____________________  [AITS-06 | 11th-NEET | 03-03-2024] (PHYSICS) SECTION-A 6. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed 1. A fixed mass of an ideal gas undergoes a series of 40 m/s. Find the total distance covered by the ball in thermodynamic processes such that its initial and all odd seconds (i.e., 1st, 3rd, 5th) of upward journey. final volume are the same. The net work done by the (g = 10 m/s2) gas; (1) 30 m (1) Is always zero (2) 50 m (2) Is always positive (3) 40 m (3) Is always negative (4) 20 m (4) May be positive, negative or zero. 7. A ball dropped from a height of 40 m on a horizontal 2. A simple pendulum having time period T is slightly floor rises to a height of 20 m after the collision. The displaced from its mean position and released from coefficient of restitution for the collision is; rest as shown below. When the string becomes (1) 0.5 (2) 0.25 vertical it hits another identical ball at rest perfectly (3) 0.75 (4) 0.707 inelastically. Now both the balls oscillate together and time period becomes T. Choose the correct 8. The angle between two vectors A = 3iˆ + 4 ˆj and option. B = xiˆ + yjˆ is 37°, then the value of x is. y 22 7 (1) (2) 17 24 24 17 (3) (4) (1) T > T 7 22 (2) T < T (3) T = T 9. Two persons A and B are moving in horizontal (4) Cannot be determined plane. A is going along 37° N of E with speed 20 m/s. B is going towards south with speed 10 m/s. 3. Find the dimensional formula of modulus of The velocity of B wrt A is; 740 m/s tan−1   S of W rigidity. 11 (1) (1) [ML–1T–2] (2) [MLT–2] 8 2 –3 (3) [ML T ] (4) [M0L0T0] 740 m/s tan−1   W of S 11 (2) 8 4. The sides of a triangle after measurement are 840 m/s tan −1   S of W 13 l1 = 2.2  0.1 cm, l2 = 4.5  0.3 cm and (3) 6 l3 = 3.0  0.2 cm, then the perimeter of triangle with 840 m/s tan −1   W of S error limits is: 13 (4) (1) 9.7  0.6 cm (2) 9.8  0.6 cm 6 (3) 9.7  0.5 cm (4) 9.8  0.5 cm 10. Two different springs when used in series give 5. A particle is projected vertically upwards from the 3K equivalent spring constant of and in parallel surface of earth (radius R) with a speed equal to one 4 fourth of escape velocity. What is the maximum connection give an equivalent of 4K. height attained by the particle from the surface of The individual spring constants of the spring are; the earth? 3K 5K (1) and (2) 2K and 2K 16 R 2 2 (1) R (2) 15 15 K 7K 4 7R (3) K and 3K (4) and (3) R (4) 2 2 15 15 11. The moment of inertia of a uniform semicircular 16. A cubical block of side 10 cm and density 0.8 g/cm3 wire of mass M and radius r about a line is floating in water. The lower end of the block is perpendicular to the plane of the wire through the connected to a spring which is in natural length as geometrical center of the semi-circle is; shown in the figure. Find the minimum mass that 1 2 can be placed on the top of the block such that the (1) Mr2 (2) Mr 2 block is fully immersed in water. (take g = 10 m/s2 1 2 2 2 and K = 20 N/m) (3) Mr (4) Mr 4 5 12. Three blocks A, B and C are placed in contact on a horizontal frictionless surface as shown below. If the contact force between the blocks A and B is N1 N and between B and C is N2, then 1 is; (1) 240g (2) 200g N2 (3) 204g (4) 160g 17. A block is released from rest on the top of a incline of angle 53°. The surface of incline is rough with (1) 2 (2) 1 3 1 coefficient of friction  =. If the block is released (3) (4) 4 4 2 from a height 20 m above the ground, then find the speed with which it reaches the bottom. 13. A real gas behaves like an ideal gas if its; (g = 10 m/s2) (1) pressure and temperature, both are high (1) 3 5 m/s (2) 5 7 m/s (2) pressure and temperature, both are low (3) pressure is high and temperature is low (3) 7 5 m/s (4) 7 3 m/s (4) pressure is low and temperature is high 18. 10 g ice at –5°C and 20 g of water at 10°C is mixed 14. A person is standing on the roof of a house which is with 2 g steam at 100°C. What is the final 5 m above the ground. Standing on the roof, he temperature after mixing. (take Lv = 540 cal/g, throws a ball at an angle of 37° with the horizontal Lf = 80 cal/g) at a speed of 10 m/s. Taking the base of the house as (1) 20.5°C (2) 15.5°C origin and the vertical direction as y-axis, what will (3) 25°C (4) 18°C be the equation of trajectory of the ball? [Neglect the width and depth of the house, take g = 10 m/s2] 19. A block of mass 2 kg is placed on a horizontal rough 3x 5 x2 surface with  = 0.5. Find the magnitude of (1) y= − 4 64 minimum horizontal force required to move the block. 3x 5x 2 (g = 10 m/s2) (2) y= − −5 (1) 10 N (2) 3.33 N 4 64 (3) 5 N (4) 9 N 3x 5x2 (3) y= − +5 4 64 20. A closed organ pipe is vibrating in its third overtone. 3x 5x2 The number of displacement antinodes formed are (4) y= − +5 4 32 (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 6 15. A block of mass 20 kg is suspended using a string having linear mass density 20 g/m. A wave pulse is 21. A block is moving in a circle of radius 50 cm using generated at the bottom of the string. Find the time a string in a horizontal plane. The Young’s modulus taken by the wave pulse to reach the top if the length of the wire is 2 × 108 N/m2 and area of cross section of string is 50 cm. is 10–4 m2. Find the elongation in the wire if the (1) 0.05 s (2) 0.005 s block moves with angular speed 1 rad/s. (Mass of (3) 0.01 s (4) 0.001 s the block = 8 kg) (1) 0.1 m (2) 1 cm (3) 0.1 mm (4) 1 mm 22. Two sources of 1000 Hz and 1005 Hz are sounded 29. A body of mass m is moving on a flat horizontal together. Number of beats heard per minute are; circular road with constant speed v. If radius of (1) 300 (2) 5 curvature of the road is r, then minimum coefficient (3) 100 (4) 200 of friction () between road and body such that body will not slip is; 23. A river having parallel banks has width 200 m. The v2 v2r speed of water parallel to banks is at 5 km/h. A man (1)  = (2)  = rg g can swim at 4 km/h in still water. Minimum time v2 g taken by the man to cross the river is; (3)  = (4)  = v2rg 1 1 r (1) h (2) h 10 20 30. Assertion (A): Frictional force is the component of 1 1 (3) h (4) h contact force parallel to the surface. 40 5 Reason: Friction force always oppose the motion of a body. R (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the 24. A disk of radius is scooped out from a uniform 2 Reason is correct explanation of the disk of radius R as shown in figure. Centre of mass Assertion. of the remaining system will be; (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion. (3) Assertion is true, but the Reason is false. (4) Assertion is false but the Reason is true. 31. Length v/s Temperature difference graph of A & B is given below. Find the relation between A & B. ( = coefficient of thermal expansion) (1) At O (2) On OB (3) On OA (4) On CD 25. If a graph is plotted by taking velocity along y-axis and displacement of particle in SHM along x-axis, then the nature of the graph is; (1) Straight line (2) Ellipse (1) A > B (3) Parabola (4) Hyperbola (2) A = B 26. Linear momentum of a body is increased by 50%. (3) A < B Percentage increase in its kinetic energy is; (4) None of these (1) 50% (2) 100% 32. A disc of mass m and radius r is free to rotate about (3) 125% (4) 75% its center as shown in the figure. A string is wrapped over its rim and a block of mass m is attached to the 27. Point P, Q and R are in vertical line such that free end of the string. The system is released from PQ = QR. A ball at P is allowed to fall freely. What rest. The time taken by the block to descend through is the ratio of the times of descent through PQ and a height h, is; QR? (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1: 3 (3) 1: 2 (4) 1:( 2 −1) 28. Gravitational potential at the surface of a uniform isolated solid sphere is V. Gravitational potential at its center is; 2h 3h (1) V (2) Zero (1) (2) g g 3V (3) (4) 2V h h 2 (3) (4) 2 g g 33. A liquid with coefficient of volume expansion  is 1 38. The graph of P VS for an isothermal process on filled in a container of a material having the V coefficient of linear expansion . If the liquid an ideal gas is best represented by which of the overflows on heating, then, following options? (1)  > 3 (2)  < 3 (3)  = 3 (1) (2) (4) None of these 34. Escape velocity of a 1 kg body on a planet is 100 m/s. Potential energy of body at that planet is; (1) –5000J (2) –1000J (3) (4) (3) –2400J (4) –10000J 39. A particle is performing SHM along x-axis with 35. The torque of force F = 2iˆ − 3 ˆj + 4kˆ N acting at a distance between its extreme positions equal to10 cm. point r = 3iˆ + 2 ˆj + 3kˆ m about origin is; The force constant of the motion, K = 10 N/m. At t = 0 the particle is at the mean position and going (1) 6iˆ − 6 ˆj + 12kˆ N m towards the left extreme position. The equation of (2) –6iˆ + 6 ˆj + 12kˆ N m SHM is; (mass of particle = 100 g) (3) 17iˆ − 6 ˆj −13kˆ N m (1) x = 5sin(10t + ) cm (2) x = 5cos(10t + ) cm (4) –17iˆ + 6 ˆj + 13kˆ N m   SECTION-B (3) x = 5sin 10t +  cm  2 36. There is a uniform bar with its one end fixed and (4) x = 10sin ( 5t +  ) cm other being pulled with a force of 50 N as shown. If the cross sectional area is 20 cm2, then find shear 40. Two unequal masses connected by a spring are tied stress on the section shown by dotted line. together using a cord such that the spring is in compressed state. When the cord is burnt with a match stick releasing the spring, the two masses fly apart with equal; (1) Speed (1) 1.6 × 104 N/m2 (2) Kinetic energy (2) 0.6 × 104 N/m2 (3) Linear momentum (3) 0.8 × 104 N/m2 (4) None of these (4) 1.2 × 104 N/m2 41. Two bodies of masses m and 4 m are placed at a 37. A ball of mass m is released from rest at point S on distance r. The gravitational potential at a point on a frictionless circular track of radius R as shown. If the line joining them where the gravitational field is the ball reaches point P which is vertically beneath the zero is; center O with a speed gR , then find the angle . 6Gm (1) − r 9Gm (2) − r (3) zero 4Gm (1) 37° (2) 45° (4) − r (3) 53° (4) 60° 42. A rope having uniformly distributed mass M and 47. A particle (P) of mass m is moving along a straight length L is placed on a smooth horizontal surface. A line parallel to x-axis with constant velocity v. Find constant horizontal force F is applied at the end A. angular momentum about the origin. The variation of tension in the rope from end A is best represented by which of the following option. (1) (2) (1) + mv 2bkˆ (2) −mvbkˆ (3) −2mvbkˆ (4) −mvakˆ (3) (4) 48. A circular metallic disc of radius R has a small circular cavity of radius r as shown in figure. On 43. Find the coordinates of COM for the given system heating the system; of three particles. (1) R increases and r decreases (2) R decreases and r increases  −16   −16  (3) Both R and r increase (1)  ,2  (2)  2,   3   3  (4) Both R and r decrease  16   16  (3)  −2,  (4)  , −2   3 3  49. An ideal gas is expanding such that PT2 = constant. The coefficient of volume expansion of the gas is; 44. A police van moving on a highway with a speed of 1 2 30 km h–1 fires a bullet at a thief’s car speeding away (1) (2) T T in the same direction with a speed of 192 km h–1. If 3 4 the muzzle speed of the bullet is 150 ms–1, with what (3) (4) speed will the bullet hit the thief’s car (as, seen by T T thief)? (1) 105 m/s (2) 100 m/s 50. A block of mass 2M is held at rest when the spring (3) 110 m/s (4) 90 m/s is at its natural length as shown. Now the block is released in this position to fall vertically. Find the 45. A uniform rope lies on a table with some portion maximum elongation in the spring. hanging. The rope begins to slide when the length of hanging part is 25% of entire length. The co- efficient of friction between rope and table is; (1) 0.33 (2) 0.25 (3) 0.5 (4) 0.2 46. A simple pendulum has a time period T in vacuum. Its time period when it is completely immersed in a 1 liquid of density th of material of the bob is; 8 2Mg 4Mg (1) (2) 7 5 K K (1) T (2) T 8 8 Mg Mg (3) (4) 3 8 K 2K (3) T (4) T 8 7  [AITS-06 | 11th-NEET | 03-03-2024] (CHEMISTRY) SECTION-A 57. The properties that generally decrease and increase 51. New compound X is formed when 2 moles of A2B4 down a group in the periodic table, respectively are; lost 16 moles of electrons. What is the oxidation (1) atomic radius and electronegativity state of ‘A’ in X. Assuming that all of the A appears (2) electronegativity and electron gain enthalpy in the compound? (3) electron gain enthalpy and electronegativity (1) +5 (2) –2 (4) electronegativity and atomic radius (3) +2 (4) +3 58. Which compound would give 5-Keto-2-methyl 52. Which of the following electron transitions will hexanal upon ozonolysis? have minimum wavelength? (1) From n = 1 to n = ∞ (2) From n = 2 to n = 5 (3) From n = 1 to n = 6 (1) (4) From n = 2 to n = 6 53. Calculate the standard enthalpy of reaction for the following reaction using the listed enthalpies of reaction; 3Co(s) + 2O2(g) → Co3O4(s) (2) 2Co(s) + O2(g) → 2CoO(s); H1 = −475.8kJ 6CoO(s) + O2(g)→2Co3O4(s) H2 = −355.0kJ (1) –891.2 kJ (2) +830.8 kJ (3) (3) +891.2 kJ (4) –830.8 kJ 54. Among the following species, identify the isostructural pairs. (4) (1) NF3 and NO3− (2) NF3 and BF3 (3) NO3− and BF3 59. Which of the following compound will yield 2,2- (4) BF3 and H3O+ dibromopropane on reacting with HBr? (1) H2C=CHBr 55. Which one of the following compounds has sp2– (2) CH3C≡CCH3 hybridisation? (3) CH3C≡CH (1) CO2 (2) SO2 (4) CH3CH=CHBr (3) N2O (4) CO 60. The incorrect statement among the following is; 56. Statement I: The first ionisation energy of Be is (1) The first ionisation potential of Al is less than greater than that of B. the first ionisation potential of Mg. Statement II: 2p-orbital is lower in energy than 2s- (2) The third ionisation potential of Mg is greater orbital. than third ionisation potential of Na. (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. (3) The first ionisation potential of Na is less than (2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is the first ionisation potential of Mg. incorrect. (4) The second ionisation potential of Mg is (3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is greater than the second ionisation potential of correct. Na. (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect. 61. The IUPAC name for the following compound is; 66. Identify the reducing agent in the following reaction? 14H+ + Cr2O72− + 3Ni → 2Cr3+ + 7H2O + 3Ni 2+ (1) H2O (2) Ni (3) H+ (1) 3-Methyl-4-(3-methylprop-1-enyl)-1-heptyne (4) Cr2O72− (2) 3,5-Dimethyl-4-propylhept-6-en-1-yne (3) 3-Methyl-4-(1-methylprop-2-ynyl)-1-heptene (4) 3,5-Dimethyl-4-propylhept-1-en-6-yne 67. Statement I: NaOH + H3PO4 → NaH2PO4 + H2O, 62. How many sp2 hybridised carbon atoms and π bonds M in given reaction equivalent weight of H3PO4 is are present in the following compound? 3 Statement II: H3PO3 is tribasic acid due to presence of three replaceable hydrogen atom. (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. (1) 7, 5 (2) 6, 7 (2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is (3) 7, 6 (4) 5, 7 incorrect. (3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is 63. Which of the following compounds will be most correct. easily attacked by an electrophile? (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect. (1) 68. Statement I: In the balanced redox reaction: xAs2S3 + yNO3− + 4H2O → aAsO34− + bNO + cSO42− + 8H+ The n-factor of As2S3 and NO3− is 28 and 3 (2) respectively. Statement II: Molar ratio is reciprocal of n-factor’s ratio, so x : y is 3 : 28. (3) (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. (2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect. (4) (3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct. 64. 171 gm of 20% by mass of Ba(OH)2 solution (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect. (Specific gravity = 0.57) is reacted with 1000 mL of 2M HNO3. If the final density is same as pure water 69. The ionization potential for the electron in the then molarity of the ion in resulting solution by ground state of the hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV nature of the above solution is identified is; atom–1. What would be the ionization potential for (1) 0.25M the electron in the first excited state of Li2+? (2) 0.5M (1) 3.4 eV atom–1 (3) 1.23M (2) 10.2 eV atom–1 (4) 0.444M (3) 30.6 eV atom–1 (4) 6.8 eV atom–1 65. 0.8 mole of a mixture of CO and CO2 requires exactly 40 gram of NaOH in solution for complete 70. Which electronic transition in a hydrogen atom, conversion of all the CO2 into Na2CO3. How many starting from the orbit n = 7, will produce infrared moles of NaOH would it require more for light of wavelength 2170 nm? conversion into Na2CO3, if the mixture (0.8 mole) is (1) n = 7 to n = 6 completely oxidised to CO2? (2) n = 7 to n = 5 (1) 0.4 (2) 0.6 (3) n = 7 to n = 4 (3) 6.0 (4) 3.0 (4) n = 7 to n = 3 71. One mole of a non-ideal gas undergoes a change of 76. Pure PCl5 is introduced into an evacuated chamber state from (1.0 atm, 3.0 L, 200 K) to (4.0 atm, 5.0 L, and comes to equilibrium at 247°C and 2.0 atm. The 250 K) with a change in internal energy (U) = 40 equilibrium gaseous mixture contains 40% chlorine L-atm. The change in enthalpy of the process in L- by volume. Calculate KP at 247°C for the reaction; atm; (1) 0.4 atm (1) 43 (2) 40 atm (2) 57 (3) 1.6 atm (3) 42 (4) 0.16 atm (4) 55 77. Assertion (A): Addition of HCl(aq.) to 72. Calculate the final temperature of a monoatomic HCOOH(aq.) decrease the ionization of ideal gas that is compressed reversible and HCOOH(aq.) adiabatically from 16 L to 2 L at 300 K; Reason (R): Due to common ion effect of H+, (1) 6000 K ionization of HCOOH increase. (2) 600 K (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, (3) 1200 K and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of (4) 12000 K Assertion (A). (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, 73. At 1000 K, a sample of pure NO2 gas decomposes but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of as; Assertion (A). 2NO2 (g) 2NO(g) + O2 (g) (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false. The equilibrium constant KP is 28.8 atm. Analysis (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true. shows that the partial pressure of O₂ is 0.2 atm at equilibrium. The partial pressure of NO₂ at 78. In a 1:1 complex of BF3 and NH3 the coordination equilibrium is; geometry and hybridisation of B and N atoms; (1) 0.002 (1) B: tetrahedral, sp³; N: tetrahedral, sp3 (2) 0.03 (2) B: pyramidal, sp³; N: pyramidal, sp3 (3) 2.0 (3) B: pyramidal, sp³; N: planar, sp2 (4) 0.20 (4) B: pyramidal, sp³; N: tetrahedral, sp3 74. Determine the value of equilibrium constant (KC) 79. The first ionisation potential in electron volts of for the reaction: nitrogen and oxygen atoms are respectively given by; A2(g) + B2(g)  2AB(g) (1) 14.6, 13.6 If 5 moles of A2, 4 moles of B₂ and 6 moles of AB (2) 13.6, 14.6 are placed in a 2 litre vessel and allowed to come to (3) 13.6, 13.6 equilibrium. The final concentration of AB is 5M; (4) 14.6, 18.6 (1) 16.66 (2) 1.66 80. Statement I: The sum of first three ionization (3) 166 enthalpy of boron is very high. (4) 0.1666 Statement II: BCl3 easily accepts a lone pair of electrons from ammonia to form BCl3.NH3. 75. If 1 grain is equal to 64.8 mg, how many moles of (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. aspirin (molecular weight =169) are present in a 5 (2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is grain aspirin tablet? incorrect. (1) 19.2 × 10–3 (3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is (2) 0.192 × 10–3 correct. (3) 1.92 × 10–3 (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect. (4) 192 × 10–3 81. Statement I: Aluminum reacts with aqueous alkali 87. Statement I: In water, orthoboric acid behaves as a and liberates dihydrogen. strong tribasic acid. Statement II: Aluminum dissolves in dilute HCl Statement II: Orthoboric acid has tetrahedral and liberates CO2 gas. structure. (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. (2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is (2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect. incorrect. (3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is (3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct. correct. (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect. (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect. 82. The correct increasing order of atomic radii of the 88. The correct stability order for the following species following Group 13 elements is; is; (1) Al < Ga < In < Tl (2) Ga < Al < In < Tl (3) Al < In < Ga < Tl (4) Al < Ga < Tl < In 83. Tautomerism will be exhibited by; (1) (CH3)3CNO (2) (CH3)2NH (3) R3CNO2 (4) RCH2NO2 84. The alkane that gives only one mono-chloro product on chlorination with Cl2 in presence of diffused (1) II > IV > I > III sunlight is; (2) I > II > III > IV (1) 2,2-Dimethylbutane (3) II > I > IV > III (2) Neopentane (4) I > III > II > IV (3) n-Pentane (4) Isopentane 89. Assertion (A): The given reaction will shift in forward direction on increasing the pressure. 85. Statement I: Al(OH)3 is only basic in nature. N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3 (g) Statement II: Al–O and O–H bonds can be broken with equal ease in Al(OH)3. Reason (R): On increasing the pressure, the (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. equilibrium will shift in that direction where (2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is number of moles are more. incorrect. (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, (3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of correct. Assertion (A). (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect. (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, SECTION-B but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A). 86. In the following reaction: (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false. H3C−CCH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ Red hot iron tube → A, (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true. 873K The number of sigma (σ) bonds present in the 90. The molecule which has pyramidal shape is; product A is; (1) PCl3 (1) 21 (2) 23 (2) SO3 (3) 24 (3) CO32– (4) 18 (4) NO3– 91. Assertion (A): pH value of acidic buffer solution 97. Radiation corresponding to the transition n = 4 to n change, if buffer solution is diluted upto very larger = 2 in hydrogen atoms falls on a certain metal (work extent. function = 2.5 eV). The maximum kinetic energy of Reason (R): [H+] decrease due to change in the photo-electrons will be; concentration as well as  and decrease in (1) 0.5 eV concentration is more as compare to increase in . (2) 2.55 eV (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, (3) 4.45 eV and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A). (4) 0.05 eV (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of 98. At 5 × 105 bar pressure density of diamond and Assertion (A). graphite are 3 g/cc and 2 g/cc respectively, at certain (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false. temperature 'T'. Find the value of U – H for the (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true. conversion of 1 mole of graphite to 1 mole of diamond at temperature 'T'; 92. Calculate P–Cl bond enthalpy; (1) +100 kJ/mol Given: fH of PCl3(g) = 306 kJ/mol; (2) +500 kJ/mol Hatomization of P(s) = 314 kJ/mol; (3) –100 kJ/mol fH of Cl(g) = 121 kJ/mol; (1) 123.66 kJ/mol (2) 371 kJ/mol (4) –500 kJ/mol (3) 3.71 kJ/mol (4) 12.366 kJ/mol 99. Which of the following would have a permanent 93. If the ionization energy of He+ is –19.6 × 10–18 J per dipole moment? atom then the energy of Be3+ ion in the fourth (1) BF3 stationary state is; (2) SiF4 (1) –4.9 × 10–18 J (3) SF4 (2) –44.1 × 10–18 J (4) XeF4 (3) –11.025 × 10–18 J (4) –19.4 × 10–18 J 100. The correct decreasing order of acidity for the 94. A 1.7 g sample of H2O2 solution containing x% following compounds is; H2O2 by mass requires x mL of a KMnO4 solution for complete oxidation under acidic condition. The molarity of KMnO4 solution is; (1) 2M (2) 20M (3) 0.2M (4) 0.02M 95. If the volume occupied in a crystal by a molecule of NaCl is 47 × 10–24 mL, calculate the volume of the crystal weighing 1 gm. (1) 4.84 mL (2) 48.4 mL (3) 0.484 mL (4) 484 mL 96. For the reaction: 2Fe(NO3)3 + 3Na2CO3→Fe2(CO3)3 + 6NaNO3 Initially if 2.5 mole of Fe(NO3)3 and 3.6 mole of (1) I > III > II > IV Na2CO3 is taken. If 6.3 moles of NaNO3 is obtained (2) III > I > II > IV then % yield of given reaction is; (3) III > IV > II > I (1) 50 (2) 84 (4) I > III > IV > I (3) 87.5 (4) 100  [AITS-06 | 11th-NEET | 03-03-2024] (BOTANY) SECTION-A (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the 101. Which one of the following belongs to the order true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation Diptera? of Assertion (A). (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the (1) Man (2) Wheat true, but Reason (R) is not a correct (3) Housefly explanation of Assertion (A). (4) Mango (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false. (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true. 102. Neurospora, which is used extensively in genetic work belongs to the class; 107. Choose the mismatched pair w.r.t to the phases of (1) basidiomycetes. cell cycle. (2) ascomycetes. (1) G1 phase- Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication. (3) deuteromycetes. (4) phycomycetes. (2) G2 phase- Proteins required for mitosis are synthesised. 103. Find the incorrect statement w.r.t the (3) Go phase- Cells can proliferate but are pteridophytes. metabolically inactive. (1) The pteridophytes include horsetails and ferns. (4) S phase- The amount of DNA per cell doubles. (2) Pteridophytes are used for medicinal purposes and as soil-binders. 108. Consider the following statements and identify the correct stage of mitosis. (3) They are frequently grown as ornamentals. (4) Pteridophytes are found in hot and dry places. A. Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes. B. Disintegration of the nuclear envelope is 104. Statement I: The monocotyledonous plants show the presence of fibrous root system. completed. C. Morphology of chromosomes is most easily Statement II: In Monstera, roots arise from parts of studied in this stage. the plant other than the radicle and are called adventitious roots. (1) Prophase (2) Metaphase (3) Anaphase (4) Telophase (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. (2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect. 109. Match List-I and List-II to find out the correct (3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is option w.r.t ETS in chloroplasts. correct. List I List II (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect. (Process) (Location) I. Photolysis of water A. Outer side of the 105. The epidermal tissue systems in plants are made up thylakoid membrane of all the following, except; II. Location of primary B. Stroma of the (1) epidermal cells. accepter of electrons chloroplast (2) vascular bundles. in ETS (3) stomata. III. Space with high C. Associated with PS (4) epidermal appendages. proton concentration II IV. Space with less D. Lumen of the 106. Assertion (A): The presence of mesosomes is a proton concentration thylakoids characteristic feature of eukaryotes. (1) I(C), II(B), III(D), IV(A) Reason (R): Mesosomes are specialised (2) I(A), II(B), III(D), IV(C) differentiated structures formed by the infoldings of (3) I(D), II(A), III(C), IV(B) cell membrane. (4) I(C), II(A), III(D), IV(B) 110. Choose the mismatched pair. 117. The ______ form the basis of classification and (1) Elaioplasts – Store oils identification of flowering plants. (2) Aleuroplasts – Store fats (1) vegetative characteristics (3) Amyloplasts – Store carbohydrates (2) morphological characteristics (4) Leucoplasts – Colourless plastids (3) floral characteristics (4) anatomical characteristics 111. The enzyme involved in ethanolic fermentation of pyruvate is; 118. Statement I: Stomata are structures present in the (1) hexokinase. epidermis of leaves. (2) lactate dehydrogenase. Statement II: Stomata regulates the process of (3) alcohol dehydrogenase. transpiration and gaseous exchange. (4) succinate dehydrogenase. (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. (2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is 112. All the following phytohormones are plant growth incorrect. promoters, except; (3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is (1) auxin. (2) cytokinin. correct. (3) gibberellin. (4) ABA. (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect. 113. Statement I: In plants, the ability to follow 119. Choose the incorrect statement. different pathways in response to environment or (1) Within the chloroplast, there is a membranous phases of life to form different kinds of structures is system consisting of grana. called plasticity. (2) There is a clear division of labour within the Statement II: In buttercup the leaves of the juvenile chloroplast. plant are different in shape from those in mature (3) The membrane of chloroplast is responsible for plants. trapping the light energy. (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. (4) Enzymatic reactions within the granum (2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is synthesise glucose, which in turn forms incorrect. starch. (3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct. 120. Choose the mismatched pair w.r.t the given (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect. conversions in glycolysis. (1) 1,3-bisphosphoglyceric acid into 3- 114. Phycoerythrin is one of the major pigments in; phosphoglyceric acid : ATP is utilized (1) blue green algae. (2) Fructose-6-phosphate into fructose 1,6- (2) green algae. bisphosphate : ATP is utilized (3) brown algae. (3) PEP into pyruvic acid : ATP is formed (4) red algae. (4) Glucose into glucose-6-phosphate : ATP is utilized 115. Identify the class of kingdom Protista based o following characteristics. 121. Match List-I and List-II to find out the correct A. Most of them are photosynthetic. option. B. The cell walls of one of its members are List-I List-II embedded with silica and thus the walls are (PGR) (Effect) indestructible. I. Auxins A. Increase the length of grapes C. A member of this group is considered chief stalks ‘producer’ of the oceans. II. Gibberellins B. Initiate rooting in stem (1) Chrysophytes (2) Dinoflagellates cuttings (3) Euglenoids (4) Protozoans III. Cytokinins C. Hastens fruit ripening IV. Ethylene D. Promote nutrient mobilisation 116. All of the following belong to the same genus, (1) I(A), II(B), III(D), IV(C) except; (2) I(A), II(D), III(B), IV(C) (1) pardus. (2) leo. (3) I(D), II(A), III(C), IV(B) (3) aestivum. (4) tigris. (4) I(B), II(A), III(D), IV(C) 122. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t universal rules 128. Assertion (A): Pili and fimbriae are surface of nomenclature. structures of the bacteria but do not play a role in (1) The first word in a biological name represents motility. the genus. Reason (R): The fimbriae are elongated tubular (2) The two words in a biological name, when structures made of a special protein. handwritten, are separately underlined. (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the (3) Biological names are generally derived from true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation Greek language. of Assertion (A). (4) The specific epithet starts with a small letter. (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true, but Reason (R) is not a correct 123. Consider the following characteristics of fungi and explanation of Assertion (A). identify the class. (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false. A. Some members of this group are saprophytes (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true. while a large number of them are decomposers of litter. 129. The centriole duplicates in the cytoplasm in ____ B. Mycelium is septate and branched. phase of cell cycle. C. These are known as imperfect fungi because only (1) G1 phase the asexual phases of these fungi are known. (2) M phase (1) Phycomycetes (3) S phase (2) Ascomycetes (4) G0 phase (3) Basidiomycetes (4) Deuteromycetes 130. In Z-scheme, the electrons from PS-I move downhill to a molecule of energy-rich; 124. A gymnosperm in which the pinnate leaves persist (1) NADP+. for a few years, the stem is unbranched, dioecious (2) NAD+. and possesses coralloid roots, is _____. (3) FAD+. (1) Pinus (4) GTP. (2) Cycas (3) Sequoia 131. The movement of the protons when FADH2 donates (4) Cedrus electrons in the ETS takes place; (1) from mitochondrial matrix to cytoplasm. 125. Choose the odd one out w.r.t the actinomorphic (2) from mitochondrial matrix to intermembranal flower. space. (1) Pea (2) Datura (3) from intermembranal space to mitochondrial (3) Chilli (4) Mustard matrix. (4) from intermembranal space to mitochondrial 126. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t the bulliform cytoplasm. cells. (1) Certain adaxial epidermal cells along the veins 132. Assertion (A): The plant cells grow in size by cell modify themselves into large, empty, enlargement which requires water. colourless cells called bulliform cells. Reason (R): Turgidity of cell inhibits the extension (2) These are present in grasses. growth in plant cells. (3) They become turgid due to water stress. (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the (4) They make the leaves curl inwards to minimise true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation water loss through transpiration. of Assertion (A). (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the 127. Choose the correct option w.r.t the number of hypogynous flowers from the following. true, but Reason (R) is not a correct Mustard, china rose, brinjal, plum, rose, peach. explanation of Assertion (A). (1) Four (2) Two (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false. (3) Six (4) Three (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true. 133. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t the role of NAD+ (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. during respiration in plants. (2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is (1) Acts as a coenzyme in reactions catalysed by incorrect. pyruvic dehydrogenase. (3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is (2) Acts as the final hydrogen acceptor in ETS. correct. (3) Acts as an electron carrier in reduced state. (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect. (4) Its reduced form acts as an electron donor to complex I of ETS. 138. How many of the following represent(s) the characteristics of leptotene stage of meiosis I? 134. The CO2 fixation product in mesophyll cells of C4 A. The chromosomes become gradually visible plants is; under the light microscope. (1) PGA. (2) PGAL. B. The compaction of chromosomes continues (3) RuBP. (4) OAA. throughout the leptotene. 135. Match List-I and List-II to find out the correct C. The leptotene is the first stage of prophase I. option. D. Tetrad is visible during the leptotene stage. List-I List-II (1) Four I. Zygotene A. Appearance of recombination (2) Three nodules (3) Two II. Pachytene B. Formation of complex (4) One structure called synaptonemal complex 139. All of the following belong to same order, except; III. Diplotene C. Terminalisation of chiasmata (1) tiger IV. Diakinesis D. Dissolution of the (2) cat synaptonemal complex (3) dog (1) I(A), II(B), III(D), IV(C) (4) gibbon (2) I(A), II(D), III(B), IV(C) (3) I(D), II(A), III(C), IV(B) 140. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t the shapes of the (4) I(B), II(A), III(D), IV(C) cell. (1) Red blood cells - Biconcave SECTION-B (2) Columnar epithelial cells - Long and narrow 136. Identify the statements as true (T) or false (F) w.r.t (3) Nerve cell - Branched and long the taxonomical hierarchy and choose the correct (4) White blood cell - Oval option. A. As we go higher from species to kingdom, the 141. Assertion (A): Chemosynthetic autotrophic number of common characteristics goes on bacteria oxidise various inorganic substances such decreasing. as nitrates, nitrites and ammonia and use the B. Lower the taxa, more are the characteristics released energy for their ATP production. that the members within the taxon share. Reason (R): Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria A B play a great role in recycling nutrients like nitrogen, (1) T F phosphorous, iron and sulphur. (2) T T (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the (3) F T true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation (4) F F of Assertion (A). (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the 137. Statement I: Schleiden and Schwann together true, but Reason (R) is not a correct formulated the cell theory that was modified later by explanation of Assertion (A). Rudolf Virchow. Statement II: Rudolf Virchow first explained that (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false. cells divided and new cells are formed from pre- (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true. existing cells. 142. Identify the number of plants having alternate 147. Assertion (A): The process through which ATP is phyllotaxy and choose the correct option. synthesised within mitochondria and chloroplast is China rose, mustard, sun flower, Calotropis, called phosphorylation. Alstonia, guava. Reason (R): Special substances like ATP, carry (1) Four energy in their chemical bonds. (2) Three (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the (3) Two true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation (4) One of Assertion (A). (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the 143. In dicot leaf, the vascular bundles are surrounded by true, but Reason (R) is not a correct a layer of thick walled; explanation of Assertion (A). (1) palisade mesophyll cells. (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false. (2) guard cells. (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true. (3) bundle sheath cells. (4) spongy mesophyll cells. 148. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t the inflorescence in plants. 144. Statement I: The breaking of the C-C bonds of (1) The shoot apical meristem changes to floral complex compounds through oxidation within the meristem. cells, leading to release of energy is called (2) The arrangement of flowers on the floral axis respiration. is termed as inflorescence. Statement II: The compounds that are oxidised (3) In racemose type of inflorescence, the main during respiration are known as respiratory axis continues to grow. substrates. (4) In cymose, the flowers are borne in an (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. acropetal succession. (2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect. 149. ______ found that the green parts in plants is (3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is where glucose is made, and it is usually stored as correct. starch. (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect. (1) Julius von Sachs (2) T.W Engelmann 145. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t the discovery of (3) Cornelius van Niel plant growth regulators. (4) Joseph Priestley (1) Auxin was isolated by F.W. Went from tips of coleoptiles of oat seedlings. 150. Match List-I and List-II to find out the correct (2) The ‘bakanae’ foolish seedling disease of option. rice seedlings, was caused by a fungal List-I List-II pathogen Gibberella fujikuroi. I. Isogamy with non- A. Ulothrix (3) Miller identified and crystallized the flagellated gametes cytokinesis promoting active substance that are II. Isogamy with B. Volvox termed kinetin. flagellated gametes (4) H.H. Cousins confirmed the release of a III. Anisogamy C. Eudorina volatile substance from ripened oranges called IV. Oogamy D. Spirogyra abscisic acid. (1) I(A), II(B), III(D), IV(C) (2) I(A), II(D), III(B), IV(C) 146. The male and the female gametophytes do not have (3) I(D), II(A), III(C), IV(B) an independent free-living existence in; (4) I(B), II(A), III(D), IV(C) (1) bryophytes and pteridophytes. (2) bryophytes only. (3) pteridophytes only. (4) gymnosperms.  [AITS-06 | 11th-NEET | 03-03-2024] (ZOOLOGY) SECTION-A 156. All are economically important insect except; (1) Laccifer 151. The following characteristics belongs to which of (2) Bombyx the following phylum? (3) Apis A. Tissue absent. (4) Locust B. Internal fertilisation. C. Development is indirect. 157. Which of the following has smallest diameter? D. Canal system is present. (1) Trachea E. Sexes are not seperate. (2) Terminal bronchioles (1) Cnidaria (2) Porifera (3) Tertiary bronchi (3) Platyhelminthes (4) Ctenophora (4) Secondary bronchi 152. Which of the following is incorrect about columnar 158. Choose the mismatched option. epithelium? (1) Dentalium → Tusk shell A. It is made of tall and slender cells. (2) Sepia → Cuttle fish B. Free surface may have microvilli. (3) Loligo → Squid C. They are found in stomach and intestine and (4) Pila → Chiton help in secretion and absorption. D. Ciliated epithelium is mainly present in hollow 159. Bidder’s canal in frog is found in; structure like bronchioles and oviduct. (1) Liver (2) Testis E. They have apical nuclei. (3) Ovary (4) Kidney (1) A only (2) E only (3) B and D only (4) B and C 160. Select all false statements regarding mode of action of an enzyme. 153. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct A. Enzymes work by lowering the energy of option. activation. List-I List-II B. Enzymes cause the release of heat, which starts (A) Fibrinogen (I) Defence mechanism the reaction. C. Each enzyme (E) has a substrate (S) binding (B) Globulins (II) Osmotic balance site in its molecule so that a highly stable (C) Albumins (III) Coagulation of blood enzyme-substrate complex (ES) is produced. D. The difference in average energy content of A B C substrate from that of transition state is called (1) III I II ‘activation energy’. (2) I III II (1) A and D (2) B and C (3) III II I (3) B, C and D (4) C and D (4) II I III 161. Respiratory part of the respiratory system consist of; 154. Which feature is absent in annelids? (1) the part starting with external nostrils up to (1) Nephridia are excretory organs. terminal bronchioles. (2) Lateral swimming appendages in aquatic form (2) alveoli and their ducts. like Nereis. (3) the parts starting with external nostrils up to the (3) Longitudinal and circular muscles helps in alveoli. locomotion. (4) terminal bronchioles and alveoli. (4) Pseudocoelom. 162. All of the following statements are correct about 155. Which of the following is not a cofactor? WBC except; (1) Coenzyme (1) They are nucleated. (2) Apoenzyme (2) They are lesser in number. (3) Prosthetic group (3) They are generally short lived. (4) Metal ions (4) They help in blood clotting. 163. Choose the incorrect statement. 170. The outer part of cerebral hemisphere consist of; (1) Locomotion require coordinated muscular (1) grey matter. activities. (2) white matter. (2) Muscle is a specialised tissue of endodermal (3) both grey matter and white matter. origin. (4) non myelinated nerve fibre. (3) Muscles contribute about 40-50% of adult human body weight. 171. Cretinism in children is caused due to _____ in (4) Muscles show special properties like mother during pregnancy. excitability, contractility, extensibility and (1) Hypothyroidism elasticity. (2) Hyperthyroidism (3) Hypoparathyroidism 164. Which of the following statements is false? (4) Hyperparathyroidism (1) Hormones provide chemical coordination, integration and regulation of the human body. 172. Which of the following is incorrect? (2) Hormones regulate metabolism, growth and (1) Blood vessel leading to glomerulus is called development of our organs. efferent arteriole. (3) GIT also produces hormones. (2) Vasa recta, peritubular capillaries, Glomerulus (4) Hormones can be used again and again like all have blood. biocatalyst. (3) Cortical nephron has no or highly reduced vasa recta. 165. Unipolar nerve cell means; (4) Vasa recta runs parallel to the Henle’s loop in juxtamedullary nephron. (1) nerve cell with one dendron. (2) nerve cell with many dendron. 173. Which of the following is caused due to Rh factor (3) nerve cell without dendron. incompatibility? (4) nerve cell with one dendron and one axon. (1) Sickle cell anaemia (2) Erythroblastosis foetalis 166. Select the incorrect option. (3) AIDS (1) Invertebrates possess very simple endocrine (4) Turner syndrome systems with few hormones. (2) The hypothalamus is the upper part of 174. Which of the following statement is incorrect? forebrain. (1) As the diaphragm relaxes, air is expelled from (3) The hypothalamus contains several group of the respiratory system. neurosecretory cells which produces hormone. (2) During inspiration the lungs act as suction (4) The hypothalamus produces releasing pump. hormone, inhibiting hormone, oxytocin and (3) Cells utilise oxygen for metabolism and energy vasopressin. consumption. (4) An increase in pulmonary volume decreases 167. Which of the following is retained in small amount the intra-pulmonary pressure. in kidney matrix of some animals to maintain a desired osmolarity? 175. Which of the following statement is incorrect? (1) Ammonia (2) Urea (1) Sucrose is a disaccharide. (3) Uric acid (4) Ammonia and uric acid (2) Cellulose is a polysaccharide. (3) Uracil is a pyrimidine. 168. The fascia surrounding a muscle is made up of; (4) Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid. (1) Cartilage (2) Collagenous connective tissue 176. Assertion (A): The abdomen in female cockroach (3) Adipose tissue consists of 10 segments. (4) Blood vessels Reason (R): In female cockroach, 6th sternum is boat-shaped and forms genital pouch. 169. Which of the following option is not true? (1) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true. (1) In males, LH stimulates synthesis and secretion (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, of androgens from testes. and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of (2) In males, FSH and androgens regulate Assertion (A). spermatogenesis. (3) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, (3) In females, LH induces ovulation of fully but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of mature follicle. Assertion (A). (4) FSH is produced only in males. (4) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false. 177. What is the partial pressure of oxygen in systemic 184. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct venous blood? option. (1) 153 mm Hg List-I List-II (2) 95 mm Hg (A) Glucocorticoids (I) Balance of (3) 45 mm Hg water and (4) 40 mm Hg electrolyte in our body 178. In an open circulatory system; (B) Mineralocorticoids (II) Carbohydrate (1) there is no heart. metabolism (2) there is no need of blood vessels. (C) Gonadocorticoids (III) Secretion of (3) there is no distinction between blood and tissue estrogen and fluid. androgens (4) there are no open spaces or sinuses in the body. A B C 179. Thymus is mainly concerned with; (1) II I III (1) regulation of body temperature. (2) I III II (2) regulation of body growth. (3) III II I (3) immunological functions. (4) III I II (4) secretion of thyrotropin. 185. Difference between glomerular filtrate and blood 180. The region between the ends of the A-bands of two plasma is of; adjoining sarcomeres is called; (1) Proteins (1) Z-band (2) Potassium (2) H-zone (3) first is white and second is yellow (3) T-tubule (4) first is yellow and second is white (4) I-band SECTION-B 181. Which of the following statement is false? (1) The kidney have build in mechanism for 186. Choose the correct option. regulation of GFR. A. Diploblastic :Porifera, Coelenterata (2) Tubular secretion does not play any significant B. Triploblastic : Platyhelminthes to chordates role in urine formation. C. Acoelomate: Porifera, Coelenterata, (3) The amount of urine output per day in normal Platyhelminthes adult is about 1.5 L. D. Pseudocoelomate: Aschelminthes (4) During urine formation tubular cells secrete E. Coelomate: Annelida to chordata H+, K+ and NH3 in the filtrate. (1) All are incorrect (2) All are correct 182. Which of the following statements is incorrect (3) A, B and E are correct regarding skeletal muscle shortening during (4) Only E is correct contraction? (1) The I-band shortens. 187. Statement I: Endocrine glands secrete a variety of (2) The A-band shortens. (3) The H-zone becomes narrow. enzymes. (4) The sarcomeres shortens. Statement II: Compound epithelium covers the dry surface of the skin, the moist surface of buccal 183. Which of the following feature is not related with cavity, pharynx, inner lining of ducts of salivary pons? glands and pancreatic duct. (1) It forms floor of brain stem. (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. (2) It serves as neural link between different parts (2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is of brain. incorrect. (3) It can moderate the functions of respiratory (3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is rhythm centre. correct. (4) It has a chemosensitive area for respiratory (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect. rhythm centre. 188. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct 193. Which of the following sequences is correct for option. regulation of kidney function? List-I List-II (1) An excess loss of water from body → (A) Pigments (I) Concanavalin A Stimulates hypothalamus → Osmoreceptor → (B) Terpenoides (II) Monoterpenes Neurohypophysis → ADH → Increases water (C) Alkaloids (III) Morphine permeability of DCT and CT → Prevention of (D) Lectins (IV) Carotenoids diuresis A B C D (2) An excess loss of water from body → (1) IV II III I Osmoreceptor → Hypothalamus → (2) IV III II I Neurohypophysis → ADH → Increases water (3) I IV III II permeability of DCT and CT → Prevention of (4) I III II IV diuresis (3) An excess loss of water from body → 189. Assertion (A): Haemoglobin is a red coloured Osmoreceptor → Hypothalamus → pigment present in the RBCs. Neurohypophysis → Aldosterone → Increases Reason (R): It contains iron. water permeability of DCT and CT → (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, Prevention of diuresis and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of (4) An excess loss of water from body → Assertion (A). Osmoreceptor → Hypothalamus → (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, Adenohypophysis → ADH → Increases water but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of permeability of DCT and CT → Prevention of Assertion (A). diuresis (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false. (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true. 194. Which is the longest bone in human? (1) Humerus 190. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct (2) Tibia option. (3) Femur List-I List-II (4) Clavicle (A) Neutrophils I 20-25% (B) Basophils II 2-3% 195. The correct sequence of cranial meninges from (C) Monocytes III 6-8% inner to outside is; (D) Eosinophils IV 0.5-1% (1) Arachnoid → Duramater → Piamater E Lymphocytes V 60-65% (2) Duramater → Arachnoid → Piamater A B C D E (3) Piamater → Arachnoid → Duramater (1) V IV III I II (4) Piamater → Duramater → Arachnoid (2) I II III V IV (3) V IV III II I 196. RAAS controls; (4) II IV I III V (1) Ultrafiltration (2) Blood pressure 191. Which of the following statements about human (3) Glucose reabsorption vertebral column is false? (4) Cardiac output (1) Vertebral column consists of 26 vertebrae. (2) It is ventrally placed. 197. Which of the following is correct about human (3) It extends from the base of skull and constitutes heart? the main framework of the trunk. (1) The volume of both atria > the volume of both (4) Neural canal in vertebra is the passage of spinal ventricles cord. (2) The volume of both ventricles > the volume of both atria 192. Cortisol has all of the following effects except; (3) The volume of both atria = the volume of both (1) Metabolising fat for energy. ventricles (2) Suppress the immune response. (4) Ventricles are upper chamber and atria are (3) Suppress RBC production. lower chambers in our heart. (4) Produces anti-inflammatory reaction. 198. Statement I: A sigmoid curve is obtained when 200. Choose the correct option in respect of percentage saturation of haemoglobin with CO2 is characteristics to respective group. plotted against the pCO2. Cyclostomes Chondrichthyes Osteichthyes