AIPMT 2000 Past Paper PDF

CAREER POINT. AIPMT - 2000 AIPMT - 2000 Q.1 Two masses as shown are suspended from a Q.6 Two projectiles of same mass and with same mass...

CAREER POINT. AIPMT - 2000 AIPMT - 2000 Q.1 Two masses as shown are suspended from a Q.6 Two projectiles of same mass and with same massless pulley. Calculate the acceleration of the velocity are thrown at an angle 60º & 30º with system when masses are left free : the horizontal, then which quantity will remain same : (1) Time of flight (2) Horizontal range of projectile (3) Max height acquired 5g (4) All of them 10g Q.7 A mass is performing vertical circular motion (1) 2g/3 (2) g/3 (see figure).If The average velocity of the (3) g/9 (4) g/7 particle is increased, then at which point the Q.2 A body of mass 3 kg hits a wall at an angle of 60º string will break : & returns at the same angle. The impact time was A m 0.2 s. Calculate the force exerted on the wall : D C O 60º B 60º (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D Q.8 For the given reaction, the particle X is : 10 ms–1 11 11 6C → 5B + β + + X (1) 150 3 N (2) 50 3 N (1) Neutron (2) Anti neutrino (3) 100 N (4) 75 3 N (3) Neutrino (4) Proton Q.3 A mass of 1kg is thrown up with a velocity of Q.9 A man is slipping on a frictionless inclined 100 m/s. After 5 seconds, it explodes into two plane & a bag falls down from the same height. parts. One part of mass 400 g comes down with a Then the speed of both is related as : velocity 25 m/s Calculate the velocity of other (1) VB > Vm (2) VB < Vm part : (3) VB = Vm (4) VB and Vm can't related (1) 40 m/s upward (2) 40 m/s downward Q.10 A body of weight 72 N moves from the surface (3) 100 m/s upward (4) 60 m/s downward of earth at a height half of the radius of the Q.4 Calculate the net resistance of the circuit earth, then gravitational force exerted on it will between A and B : be : 3Ω 4Ω (1) 36 N (2) 32 N (3) 144 N (4) 50 N Q.11 Rainbow is formed due to : A 7Ω B (1) Scattering & refraction 6Ω (2) Total internal reflection & dispersion 8Ω (3) Reflection only (1) 8/3 Ω (2) 14/3 Ω (4) Diffraction and dispersion (3) 16/3 Ω (4) 22/3 Ω Q.12 Gravitational force is required for : Q.5 A capacitor is charged with a battery and energy (1) Stirring of liquid (2) Convection stored is U. After disconnecting battery another capacitor of same capacity is connected in (3) Conduction (4) Radiation parallel with it. Then energy stored in each Q.13 For a plane convex lenx (µ = 1.5) has radius of capacitor is : curvature 10 cm. It is silvered on its plane (1) U/2 (2) U/4 surface. Find focal length after silvering : (3) 4 U (4) 2 U (1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm (3) 15 cm (4) 25 cm CAREER POINT: CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 1  CAREER POINT. AIPMT - 2000 Q.14 By photo electric effect, Einstein proved : Q.22 A charge Q is situated at the corner of a cube, 1 the electric flux passed through all the six faces (1) E = hν (2) KE = mv 2 of the cube is : 2 Q Q – Rhc 2 (1) (2) (3) E = mc2 (4) E = 6 ∈0 8 ∈0 n2 Q.15 Maximum frequency of emission is obtained for Q Q (3) (4) the transition : ∈0 2 ∈0 (1) n = 2 to n = 1 (2) n = 6 to n = 2 Q.23 For adjoining fig., The magnetic field at point, (3) n = 1 to n = 2 (4) n = 2 to n = 6 'P' will be : Q.16 For a hollow cylinder & a solid cylinder rolling without slipping on an inclined plane, then which 5A P 2.5A of these reaches earlier on the ground : 2.5 m (1) Solid cylinder 5m (2) Hollow cylinder µ0 (3) Both simultaneously (1) µ 0 (2) ⊗ 4π π (4) Can't say anything Q.17 To find out degree of freedom, the correct µ0 (3) ⊗ (4) µ 0 expression is : 2π 2π 2 γ +1 Q.24 A charge having q/m equal to 108 c/kg and with (1) f = (2) f = γ –1 2 velocity 3 × 105 m/s enters into a uniform 2 1 magnetic field B = 0.3 tesla at an angle 30º with (3) f = (4) f = γ +1 γ +1 direction of field. Then radius of curvature will be : Q.18 The frequency order of for γ - rays (b), X – rays (a), UV – rays (c) : (1) 0.01 cm (2) 0.5 cm (1) b > a > c (2) a > b > c (3) 1 cm (4) 2 cm (3) c > b > a (4) a > c > b Q.25 The value of quality factor is : Q.19 Electric field at centre O of semicircle of radius 'a' ωL ω (1) (2) having linear charge density λ given is given by R RC (3) LC (4) L/R O a Q.26 Two stationary sources each emitting waves of wave length λ. An observer moves from one source to other with velocity u. Then number of 2λ λπ beats heared by him : (1) (2) ∈0 a ∈0 a 2u u (1) (2) λ λ λ λ (3) (4) 2π ∈0 a π ∈0 a u (3) uλ (4) Q.20 The width of river is 1 km. The velocity of boat 2λ is 5 km/hr. The boat covered the width of river Q.27 A string is cut into three parts, having with shortest will possible path in 15 min. Then fundamental frequencies n1, n2 and n3 the velocity of river stream is : respectively. Then original fundamental (1) 3 km/hr (2) 4 km/hr frequency 'n' related by the expression as : (3) 29 km/hr (4) 41 km/hr 1 1 1 1 (1) = + + n n1 n 2 n3 Q.21 Motion of a particle is given by equation S = (3t3 + 7t2 + 14 t + 8)m, The value of (2) n = n1 × n2 × n3 acceleration of the particle at t = 1 sec. is : (3) n = n1 + n2 + n3 (1) 10 m/s2 (2) 32 m/s2 n1 + n 2 + n 3 (3) 23 m/s2 (4) 16 m/s2 (4) n = 3 CAREER POINT: CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 2  CAREER POINT. AIPMT - 2000 Q.28 The equations of two waves given as x = acos(ωt + δ) Q.34 If F = (60 î + 15 ˆj – 3 k̂ ) N and and y = a cos (ωt + α), Where δ = α + π/2, then resultant wave represent : V = (2 î – 4 ˆj + 5 k̂ ) m/s, then instantaneous (1) a circle (c.w) power is : (2) a circle (a.c.w) (1) 195 watt (2) 45 watt (3) an Ellipse (c.w) (3) 75 watt (4) 100 watt (4) an ellipse (a.c.w) Q.35 For the adjoining diagram, a triangular lamina is shown the correct relation between I1, I2 & I3 is Q.29 The relation between λ and T1/2 is : (I – moment of inertia) (T1/2 = half life, λ → decay constant) A ln 2 (1) T1/2 = (2) T1/2 ln2= λ I1 I3 λ 5 4 1 ln (3) T1/2 = (4) (λ + T1/2) = I2 λ 2 B 3 C 1 (1) I1 > I2 (2) I2 > I1 Q.30 The ratio (W/Q) for a carnot – engine is , Now 6 (3) I3 > I1 (4) I3 > I2 the temp. of sink is reduced by 62ºC, then this Q.36 Two spherical bob of masses MA and MB are ratio becomes twice, therefore the initial temp. of hung vertically from two strings of length lA the sink and source are respectively : and lB respectively. They are excuting SHM (1) 33ºC, 67ºC (2) 37ºC, 99ºC with frequency relation fA = 2fB, Then : (3) 67ºC, 33ºC (4) 97 K, 37 K lB Q.31 From the following diode circuit. Which diode in (1) lA = 4 forward biased condition : 0 – 2V (2) lA = 4lB (1) (3) lA= 2 lB & MA = 2MB 0 2V l M (2) (4) lA = B & MA = B 2 2 –5V – 2V (3) Q.37 Nuclear – Fission is best explained by : 5V 12V (1) Liquid droplet theory (4) (2) Yukawa π - meson theory Q.32 Given Truth table is correct for : (3) Independent particle model of the nucleus A B Y (4) Proton-proton cycle 1 1 1 Q.38 Who evaluated the mass of electron indirectly 1 0 0 with help of charge : 0 1 0 (1) Thomson (2) Millikan 0 0 0 (3) Rutherford (4) Newton (1) NAND (2) AND Q.39 A car battery of emf 12 V and internal resistance 5 × 10–2 Ω, receives a current of 60 Å (3) NOR (4) OR from external source, then terminal voltage of Q.33 The bob of simple pendulum having length l, is battery is : displaced from mean position to an angular (1) 12 V (2) 9 V position θ with respect to vertical. If it is released, (3) 15 v (4) 20 V then velocity of bob at lowest position : Q.40 Two bulbs of (40 W, 200 V), and (100 W, 200 (1) 2gl(1 – cos θ) V). Then correct relation for their resistance : (2) 2gl(1 + cos θ) (1) R40 < R100 (2) R40 > R100 (3) 2gl cos θ (3) R40 = R100 (4) 2gl (4) No relation can be predicted CAREER POINT: CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 3  CAREER POINT. AIPMT - 2000 Q.41 According to the Faraday Law of electrolysis, Q.50 Which pair have not equal dimensions : the mass deposited at electrode proportional to : (1) Energy and torque (1) m ∝ I2 (2) Force and impulse (2) m ∝ Q (3) Angular momentum and Plank's constant (3) m ∝ Q2 (4) Elastic modulus and pressure (4) 'm' does not depend on Q Q.51 Increasing order of electrophilic substitution for Q.42 A tall man of height 6 feet, want to see his full following compounds : image. Then required minimum length of the CH3 mirror will be : (I) (II) (1) 12 feet (2) 3 feet (3) 6 feet (4) Any length OCH3 CF3 Q.43 The potentiometer is best for measuring voltage, as : (III) (IV) (1) It has a sensitive galvanometer (1) IV< I < II < III (2) III < II < I < IV (2) It has wire of high resistance (3) I < IV < III < II (4) II < III < I < IV (3) It measures p.d. like in closed circuit Q.52 Ethyl benzoate can be prepared from benzoic (4) It measures p.d. like in open circuit acid by using : Q.44 For a planet having mass equal to mass of the (1) Ethyl alcohol earth but radius is one fourth of radius of the earth. Then escape velocity for this planet will be (2) Ethyl alcohol and dry HCl (1) 11.2 km/s (2) 22.4 km/s (3) Ethyl chloride (3) 5.6 km/s (4) 44.8 km/s (4) Sodium ethoxide Q.45 The correct relation for α, β for a transistor : Q.53 Polarization in acrolein as : +δ –δ 1– α α (1) CH 2= CH –CHO (1) β = (2) β = α 1– α –δ +δ β –1 (2) CH 2= CH –CHO (3) α = (4) αβ =1 β –δ +δ Q.46 The life span of atomic hydrogen is : (3) CH 2= CH –CHO (1) Fraction of one sec. (2) One year +δ –δ (4) CH 2= CH – CHO (3) One hour (4) One day Q.47 The cations and anions are arranged in alternate Q.54 A reduction  → B CHCl  3 / KOH → C reduction  → ( vip; u ) ( vip; u ) form in : N-methyl aniline than A is : (1) Metallic crystal NH2 NO2 (2) Ionic crystal (3) Co-valent crystal (1) (2) (4) Semi-conductor crystal NC Q.48 When an electron do transition from n = 4 to n = 2, then emitted line in spectrum will be : (3) CH3NH2 (4) (1) First line of Lyman series (2) Second line of Balmer series Q.55 First product of the reaction between RCHO (3) First line of Paschen series and NH2NH2 : - (4) Second line of Paschen series (1) RCH = NNH2 (2) RCH = NH Q.49 A bubble in glass slab (µ = 1.5) when viewed (3) RCH2NH2 (4) RCON3 from one side appears at 5 cm and 2 cm from Q.56 In Friedal craft reaction Toluene can be other side, then thickness of slab is : prepared by : (1) 3.75 cm (2) 3 cm (1) C6H6 + CH3Cl (2) C6H5Cl + CH4 (3) 10.5 cm (4) 2.5 cm (3) C6H6 + CH2Cl2 (4) C6H6 + CH3COCl CAREER POINT: CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 4  CAREER POINT. AIPMT - 2000 Q.57 Which reagent converts propene to 1-propanol : Q.67 Equilibrium constant Kp for following reaction : (1) H2O, H2SO4 MgCO3(s) MgO(s) + CO2(g) (2) B2H6, H2O2, OH– (1) Kp = PCO 2 (3) Hg(OAc)2, NaBH4/H2O PCO2 × PMgO (4) Aq. KOH (2) Kp = PCO 2 × Q.58 Reduction by LiAlH4 of hydrolysed product of PMgCO3 an ester gives : PCO2 + PMgO (1) Two alcohols (3) Kp = PMgCO3 (2) Two aldehyde (3) One acid and one alcohol PMgCO3 (4) Kp = (4) Two acids PCO2 × PMgO Q.59 α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose are : Q.68 Correct relation b/w dissociation constant's of a (1) Epimers (2) Anomer di-basic acid : (3) Enantiomers (4) Diastereomers (1) Ka1 = Ka2 (2) Ka1 > Ka2 Q.60 CF2 = CF2 is monomer of : 1 (3) Ka1 < Ka2 (4) Ka1 = (1) Teflon (2) Orlon Ka 2 (3) Polythene (4) Nylon-6 Q.69 For a any reversible reaction. If increases Q.61 Correct order of stability is : concentration of reactants. Then effect on (1) 1–butene > Trans–2–butene > Cis–2–butene equilibrium constant : (2) Trans–2–butene > 1–butene > Cis–2–butene (1) Depend's on amount of concentration (3) Trans–2–butene > Cis–2-butene > 1–butene (2) Unchange (4) Cis-2–butene > Trans–2–butene > 1–butene (3) Decrease Q.62 2-butene shows geometrical isomerism due to : (4) Increase (1) Restricted rotation about double bond Q.70 A cube of any crystal A-atom placed at every (2) Free rotation about double bond corners and B-atom placed at every centre of (3) Free rotation about single bond face. The formula of compound : (4) Chiral carbon (1) AB (2) AB3 Q.63 Dihedral angle in staggered form of ethane is : (3) A2B2 (4) A2B3 (1) 0º (2) 120º Q.71 In quantitative analysis of second group in lab. (3) 60º (4) 180º H2S gas is passed in acidic medium for ppt. Q.64 Which one is responsible for produce energy in When Cu+2 and Cd+2 react with KCN, than in bio reaction : which of the following condition, ppt will not (1) Thyroxine (2) Adrenelene be formed due to relative stability : (3) Oestrogen (4) Projestrone (1) K2[Cu(CN)4] – More stable Q.65 Average molar kinetic energy of CO and N2 at K2[Cd(CN)4] – Less stable same temperature is : (2) K2[Cu(CN)4] – Less stable (1) KE1 = KE2 K2[Cd(CN)4] – More stable (2) KE1 > KE2 (3) K3[Cu(CN)4] – More stable (3) KE1 < KE2 K2[Cd(CN)4] – Less stable (4) Can't say any thing. Both volumes are not (4) K3[Cu(CN)4] – Less stable given K3[Cd(CN)4] – More stable Q.66 For given energy, corresponding wavelength will be E = 3.03 × 10–19 Joules (h = 6.6 × 10–34 J x Q.72 Conjugate acid of NH2– : sec., C = 3 × 108 m/sec.) (1) NH4OH (2) NH4+ –2 (1) 65.3 nm. (2) 6.53 nm. (3) NH (4) NH3 (3) 3.4 nm. (4) 653 nm. CAREER POINT: CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 5  CAREER POINT. AIPMT - 2000 Q.73 Which statement is wrong about pH and H+ Q.84 Which of the following element exhibit (1) pH of neutral water does not zero maximum oxidation state : (2) Adding 1N, 1N soln of CH3COOH and NaOH (1) Cr (2) Mn (3) Fe (4) V pH will be seven Q.85 Which of the following statement is correct (3) pH of dilute and hot H2SO4 is more than for the stability of ions of ethyl alcohol and concentrate and cold H2SO4 phenol : (4) Mixing solution of CH3COOH and HCl, pH (1) Delocalisation of π-electrons in phenoxide ion will be less than 7 (2) Delocalisation of electrons in ethoxide ion Q.74 A 300 gram radioactive sample has half life of (3) Inductive effect of ethyl and phenyl group 3 hour's. After 18 hour's remaining quantity will be : (4) Localisation of π-electrons in phenoxide ion (1) 4.68 gram (2) 2.34 gram Q.86 Which compound has planar structure : (3) 3.34 gram (4) 9.37 gram (1) XeF4 (2) XeOF2 Q.75 Which of the following compound is electron (3) XeO2F2 (4) XeO4 defficient : Q.87 Which complex compound will give four (1) BeCl2 (2) BCl3 (3) CCl4 (4) PCl5 isomers : Q.76 dπ - pπ bond present in : (1) [Fe(en)3]Cl3 (1) CO 32 – (2) PO 4–3 (3) NO3– (4) NO 2– (2) [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl Q.77 Which statement is wrong : (3) [Fe(PPh3)3NH3ClBr]Cl (1) Bond energy of F2 > Cl2 (4) [Co(PPh3)3Cl]Cl3 (2) Electronegativity of F > Cl Q.88 Which species does not exhibits paramagnetism : (3) F is more oxidising than Cl (1) N2+ (2) O2– (3) CO (4) NO (4) Electron affinity of Cl > F Q.89 For the disproportionation of copper : Q.78 Which compound form linear polymer due to 2 Cu+ → Cu+2 + Cu, Eº is : - (Given Eº for H-bond : Cu+2/Cu is 0.34 V & Eº for Cu+2/Cu+ is 0.15 V : (1) H2O (2) NH3 (3) HBr (4) HCl (1) 0.49 V (2) – 0.19 V Q.79 Shape of Fe(CO)5 is : (3) 0.38 V (4) – 0.38 V (1) Octahedral Q.90 Cell reaction is spontaneous when : (2) Square planar (1) ∆Gº is negative (2) ∆Gº is positive (3) Trigonal bipyramidal (3) ∆E ºRe d is positive (4) ∆E ºRe d is negative (4) Square pyramidal Q.91 At infinite dilution equivalent conductances of Q.80 Correct order of dissociation energy of N2 and Ba+2 & Cl– ions are 127 & 76ohm–1cm–1 eq–1 N2+ is : respectively. Equivalent conductance of BaCl2 (1) N2 > N2+ (2) N2 = N2+ at infinite dilutions is : (3) N2+ > N2 (4) None (1) 139.5 (2) 101.5 Q.81 Isoelectronic species are : (3) 203 (4) 279 (1) CO, CN–, NO+, C22– Q.92 2Zn + O2 → 2ZnO ∆Gº = – 616 J (2) CO–, CN, NO, C2– 2Zn + S2 → 2ZnS ∆Gº = – 293 J (3) CO+, CN+,NO–, C2 S2 + 2O2 → 2SO2 ∆Gº = – 408 J (4) CO, CN, NO, C2 ∆Gº for the following reaction is : Q.82 Which ion is colourless : 2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2 (1) Cr+4 (2) Sc+3 (1) – 731 J (2) – 1317 J +3 (3) Ti (4) V+3 (3) – 501 J (4) + 731 J Q.83 Mg is present in : Q.93 At 27ºC latent heat of fusion of a compound is (1) Chlorophyl (2) Haemoglobin 2930 J/mol. Entropy change is : (3) Vitamin-12 (4) Vitamin-B (1) 9.77 J/mol–K (2) 10.77 J/mol–K (3) 9.07 J/mol–K (4) 0.977 J/mol–K CAREER POINT: CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 6  CAREER POINT. AIPMT - 2000 Q.94 For the reaction C2H5OH(l) + 3O2(g) → Q.101 The first step for initiation of photosynthesis 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l) which one is true : will be : (1) ∆H = ∆E – RT (1) Photolysis of water (2) ∆H = ∆E + RT (2) Excitement of chlorophyll molecule due to absorption of light (3) ∆H = ∆E + 2RT (3) ATP formation (4) ∆H = ∆E – 2RT (4) Glucose formation Q.95 For the reaction H+ + BrO3– + 3Br– → 5Br2 + Q.102 When the plants are grown in magnesium H2O which of the following relation correctly deficient but urea rich soil; the symptoms represents the consumption & formation of expressed are : reactants and products : (1) Yellowish leaves (2) Colourless petiole d[Br – ] 3 d[Br2 ] (3) Dark green leaves (4) Shoot apex die (1) =– dt 5 dt Q.103 For the synthesis of one glucose molecule the d[Br – ] 3 d[Br2 ] calvin cycle operates for : (2) = dt 5 dt (1) 2 times (2) 4 times d[Br – ] 5 d[Br2 ] (3) 6 times (4) 8 times (3) =– Q.104 Plants take zinc in form of : dt 3 dt (1) ZnSO4 (2) Zn++ (3) ZnO (4) Zn d[Br – ] 5 d[Br2 ] (4) = Q.105 The bacteria generally used for genetic dt 3 dt engineering is : Q.96 From the colligative properties of solution which (1) Agrobacterium (2) Bacillus one is the best method for the determination of mol. wt of proteins & polymers : (3) Pseudomonas (4) Clostridium (1) Osmotic pressure Q.106 For assimilation of one CO2 molecule; the energy required in form of ATP & NADPH2 (2) Lowering in V.P. (1) 2 ATP & 2 NADPH2 (3) Lowering is freezing point (2) 5 ATP & 3 NADPH2 (4) Elevation in B.Pt. (3) 3 ATP & 2 NADPH2 Q.97 Which one of the following method is commonly (4) 18 ATP & 12 NADPH2 used method for destruction of colloid : Q.107 Which is the first CO2 Acceptor enzyme in C4 (1) Dialysis plants : (2) Condensation (1) RuDP Carboxylase (2) Phosphoric acid (3) Filteration by animal membrane (3) RUBISCO (4) PEP-Carboxylase (4) By adding electrolyte Q.108 According to mendelism which character is Q.98 Volume of CO2 obtained by the complete showing dominance : decomposition of 9.85 gm. BaCO3 is : (1) Terminal position of flower (1) 2.24 lit. (2)1.12 lit. (2) Green colour in seed coat (3) 0.84 lit. (4) 0.56 lit. (3) Wrinkled seed Q.99 Oxidation numbers of A, B and C are + 2, +5 and – (4) Green pod colour 2 respectively possible formula of compound is : Q.109 Due to the cross between TTRr × ttrr the (1) A2(BC2)2 (2) A3(BC4)2 resultant progenies showed how many percent plants tall, red flowered : (3) A2(BC3)2 (4) A3(B2C)2 (1) 50% (2) 75% (3) 25% (4) 100% Q.100 R and S enantiomer are differ in : Q.110 Which is showing accurate pairing : (1) Rotation of PPL (1) Syphilis - Treponema pallidum (2) Solubility in achiral solvent (2) AIDS - Bacillus conjugalis (3) Chemical properties (3) Gonorrhoea - Leishmania denovoni (4) Dipole moment (4) Typhoid – Mycobacterium leprae CAREER POINT: CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 7  CAREER POINT. AIPMT - 2000 Q.111 Which is expressing right appropriate pairing : Q.122 What is true for mammalia : (1) Brassicaceae - Sunflower (1) Platypus is oviparous (2) Malvaceae - Cotton (2) Bats have feather (3) Papilionaceae - Catechu (3) Elephant is a ovo viviparous (4) Liliaceae - Wheat (4) Diaphragm is absent in them Q.112 Enzymes not found in : Q.123 Which of the following character is not found in (1) Fungi (2) Algae all the chordates : (3) Virus (4) Cyanobacteria (1) Diaphragm (2) Coelom Q.113 Virus are living, because : (3) Pharyngeal gill clifts (4) Dorsal nerve cord (1) They multiply in host cells Q.124 Hair are found in the inflorescences of Zea mays (2) Carry anaerobic respiration are the modification of : (3) Carry metabolic activity (1) Style (2) Stigma (3) Spathe (4) Filaments (4) Cause infection Q.125 Pneumatophores are found in : Q.114 If the apical bud has been removed then we (1) The vegetation which is found in marshy observe : and saline lake (1) More lateral branches (2) The vegetation which found in saline soil (2) More axillary buds (3) Xerophytes (3) Plant growth stops (4) Epiphytes (4) Flowering stops Q.126 Concentration of urine depends upon which Q.115 Which hormone is responsible for fruit ripening : organ : (1) Ethylene (2) Auxin (1) Bowman's capsule (3) Ethyl chloride (4) Cytokinin (2) Length of Henle's loop Q.116 Eight nucleated embryosac is a : (3) P.C.T. (1) Only monosporic (2) Only bisporic (4) Network of capillaries arising from (3) Only tetra sporic (4) Any of the above glomerulus Q.117 Which is the cause of damage to relative Q.127 In which point pulmonary artery is different biological effectiveness : from pulmonary vein : (1) High temperature (2) Pollution (1) Its lumen is broad (2) Its wall is thick (3) Radiation (4) Low temperature (3) It have valves Q.118 Which is the reason for highest biomass in (4) It does not possess endothelium aquatic ecosystem : Q.128 Reason, why hair loss is more in old age : (1) Nano plankton, blue green algae, green algae (1) Reduction of blood supply (2) Sea grass, and slime molds (2) Decrease in protein synthesis (3) Benthonic and brown algae (3) Low energy production (4) Diatoms (4) Reduced storage of glycogen Q.119 Geocarpic fruits is : Q.129 What is the work of copper T : (1) Carrot (2) Radish (1) To inhibit ovulation (3) Ground nut (4) Turnip (2) To inhibit fertilization Q.120 Endosperm is formed during the double fertilization by : (3) To inhibit implantation of blastocyst (1) Two polar nuclei & one male gamete (4) To inhibit gametogenesis (2) One polar nuclei & one male gamete Q.130 What is the work of progesteron which is (3) Ovum and male gamete present in oral contraceptive pills : (4) Two polar nuclei & two male gametes (1) To inhibit ovulation Q.121 By which action a seed coat becomes permeable (2) To check oogenesis to water : (3) To check entry of sperms in to cervix & to (1) Sclarification (2) Stratification make them inactive (3) Vernalization (4) All of the above (4) To check sexual behaviour CAREER POINT: CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 8  CAREER POINT. AIPMT - 2000 Q.131 Conversion of ammonia to urea is done Q.141 Depolarization of axolema during nerve by ……..... Cycle : conduction takes place because of : (1) Ornithin cycle (2) Arginine cycle (1) Equal amount of Na+ & K+ move out across (3) Fumaric cycle (4) Citrulline cycle axolema Q.132 What is name of joint between ribs and sternum : (2) Na+ move inside and K+ move more out side (1) Cartilaginous joint (2) Angular joint (3) More Na+ outside (3) Gliding joint (4) Fibrous joints (4) None Q.133 Bone related with skull is : Q.142 Which statement is true for WBC : (1) Coracoid (2) Arytenoid (1) Non nucleated (2) In deficiency cancer is caused (3) Pterygoid (4) Atlas (3) Manufactured in thymus Q.134 Melatonin is secreted by : (4) Can squeeze through blood capillaries (1) Pineal body (2) Skin Q.143 Which pair is correct : (3) Pituitary Gland (4) Thyroid (1) Sweat = temperature regulation Q.135 M S H is secreted by : (2) Saliva = sense of food taste (1) Anteria lobe of pituitary (3) Sebum = sexual attraction (2) Middle lobe of pituitary (4) Humerus = Hind leg (3) Posteria lobe of pituitary Q.144 Which gland secretes odourous secretion in (4) Endostyle mammals : Q.136 A person who is eating boiled potato his food (1) Bartholins (2) Prostate contains the component is : (3) Anal gland (4) Liver-bile (1) Cellulose which is digested by cellulase Q.145 Characteristic of simple epithelium is : (2) Starch which is not digested (1) They are arranged indiscriminately (3) Lactose which is not digested (2) They make a definite layer (4) DNA which can be digested by pancreatic (3) Continue to divide and help in organ DNA'ase function Q.137 In mammals milk is digested by action of : (4) None (1) Rennin (2) Amylase Q.146 Which food should be eaten in deficiency of (3) Intestinal bacteria (4) Invertase Rhodopsin in eyes : Q.138 What happens if bone of frog is kept in dilute (1) Carrot & ripe papaya hydrochloric acid : (2) Guava, banana (1) Will become flexible (3) Mango & Potato (2) Will turn black (4) None (3) Will break in pieces Q.147 Which factor is responsible for inhibition of enzymatic process during feed back : (4) Will shrinke (1) Substrate (2) Enzymes Q.139 Which disease of man is similar with cattle's, (3) End product (4) Temperature bovine spongyform encephalopathy : Q.148 During viral infection the protein formed in host (1) Encephalitis cells to resist is : (2) Jecob-crutzfelt disease (1) Interferone (2) Antitoxin (3) Spongiocitis of cerebrum (3) Antibody (4) Histone (4) Spondylitis Q.149 The movement of ions against the concentration Q.140 Erythroblastosis foetalis is caused when : gradient will be : (1) Rh– female & Rh+ male (1) Active transport (2) Rh+ female & Rh– male (2) Osmosis (3) Rh+ female & Rh+ male (3) Diffusion (4) Rh– female & Rh– male (4) All CAREER POINT: CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 9  CAREER POINT. AIPMT - 2000 Q.150 Which is not a vestigial organ in man : Q.160 Which cell organelle is concerned with (1) Third molar (2) Nails glycosylation of protein : (3) Segmental muscles of abdomen (1) Ribosome (4) Coccyx (2) Peroxisome Q.151 Homo sapiens have evolved in : (3) Endoplasmic reticulum (1) Paleocene (2) Plestocene (4) Mitochondria (3) Oligocene (4) Myocene Q.161 Simillarity in DNA and RNA : Q.152 Character which is closely related to human (1) Both are polymer of nucleotides evolution : (2) Both have similar pyrimidine (1) Disappearance of tail (3) Both have similar sugar (2) Reduction in size of jaws (4) Both are genetic material (3) Binocular vision Q.162 Aquatic fern is used to increase the yield in (4) Flat nails paddy crop : Q.153 Which evidence of evolution related to Darwin's (1) Azolla (2) Salvinia finches : (3) Marsilea (4) Isoetes (1) Evidences from biogeographical distribution Q.163 Plant group with largest ovule, largest tree, and (2) Evidences from comparative anatomy largest gametes : (3) Evidences from embryology (1) Gymnosperm (2) Angiosperm (4) Evidences from palaeontological (3) Bryophyta (4) Pteridophyta Q.154 Who is directly related to man : Q.164 In ferns, Meiosis takes place at the time of : (1) Gorilla (2) Rhesus (1) Spore formation (3) Gibbon (4) Orangutan (2) Spore germination Q.155 Lemur edri-edri is found in : (3) Gamete formation (1) Madagascar (2) Mauritius (4) Antheridia and archegonia formation (3) India (4) Sri Lanka Q.165 Similarity in Ascaris lumbricoides and Q.156 Coconut milk is used in tissue culture in which Anopheles stephensi : present : (1) Sexual dimorphism (2) Metamerism (1) Cytokinin (2) Auxin (3) Anaerobic respiration (4) Endoparasitism (3) Gibberellin (4) Ethylene Q.166 Length of one loop of B- DNA : Q.157 A giant rat is formed in the laboratory, what is (1) 3.4 nm. (2) 0.34 nm. the reason : (3) 20 nm. (4) 10 nm. (1) Gene mutation (2) Gene synthesis Q.167 Primary function of enteronephric nephridia of (3) Gene manipulation (4) Gene replication Pheretima : Q.158 Plasmid has been used as vector because : (1) Osmoregulation (1) It is circular DNA which have capacity to (2) Excretion of nitrogenous waste join to eukaryotic DNA (3) Respiration (2) It can move between prokaryotic and (4) Locomotion eukaryotic cells Q.168 Which statement is correct : (3) Both ends show replication (1) A. indica is largest wild honey bee (4) It has antibiotic resistance gene Q.159 Irregularity is found in drosophila during the (2) Wax is waste material of honey bee organ differentiation for example- inplace of (3) C.V. Fritsch discovered the transmission wing, long legs are formed. Which gene is methods in honey bee responsible for : (4) Drone of honey bee is diploid (1) Double dominant gene Q.169 ATP is : (2) Homeotic gene (1) Nucleotide (2) Nucleoside (3) Complimentary gene (3) Nucleic acid (4) Vitamin (4) Plastid CAREER POINT: CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 10  CAREER POINT. AIPMT - 2000 Q.170 Essential amino acid is : Q.180 What happens in plants during vascularisation : (1) Phenyl alanine (2) Glycine (1) Differentiation of procambium, formation (3) Aspartic acid (4) Serine of primary phloem followed by formation of primary xylem Q.171 Anticodon occurs in : (2) Differentiation of procambium followed by (1) t-RNA (2) m-RNA the formation of primary phloem and (3) r-RNA (4) DNA xylem simultaneously Q.172 In three dimensional view the molecule of (3) Formation of procambium, primary phloem t-RNA is : and xylem simultaneously (1) L-shaped (2) S-shaped (4) Differentiation of procambium followed by (3) Y-shaped (4) E-shaped the formation of secondary xylem Q.173 Saline solution is given to patients of Cholera Q.181 Which of the following ribosomes are engaged because : in protein synthesis in animal cell : (1) Na+ prevents water loss from body (1) Ribosomes which occur on nuclear (2) NaCl function as regulatory material membrane and E.R. (2) Ribosomes of only cytosol (3) NaCl produces energy (3) Ribosomes of only nucleolus and cytosol (4) NaCl is antibacterial (4) Ribosomes of only mitochondria and Q.174 Function of telomeres in nucleus : cytosol (1) Pole ward movement Q.182 First cloned animal : (2) To initiate the RNA synthesis (1) Dolly sheep (2) Polly sheep (3) To seal the ends of chromosome (3) Molly sheep (4) Dog (4) To recognize the homologous chromosome Q.183 Which of the following is initiation codon : Q.175 Spindle fibre unite with which structure of (1) UAG (2) AUC chromosomes : (3) AUG (4) CCU (1) Chromocentre (2) Chromomere Q.184 Method of DNA replication in which two (3) Kinetochore (4) Centriole strands of DNA separates and synthesize new Q.176 Which of the following have carbohydrate as strands : prosthetic group : (1) Dispersive (1) Glycoprotein (2) Conservative (2) Chromoprotein (3) Semiconservative (3) Lipoprotein (4) Non conservative (4) Nucleoprotein Q.185 In Drosophila the XXY condition leads to Q.177 Viable material of endangered species can be femaleness whereas in human beings the same condition leads to Klienfelter's syndrome in preserved by : male. It proves : (1) Gene bank (2) Gene library (1) In human beings Y chromosome is active (3) Herbarium (4) Gene pool in sex determination Q.178 Proteoglycan in cartilages which is part of (2) Y chromosome is active in sex polysaccharide : determination in both human beings and (1) Condriotin (2) Ossein Drosophila (3) In Drosophila Y-chromosome decides (3) Cassin (4) Cartilegen femaleness Q.179 Mangolian idiots are due to trisomy in 21st (4) Y chromosome of man have genes for chromosome is called : syndrome (1) Down's syndrome Q.186 In which stage of cell cycle, DNA replication (2) Turner's syndrome occurs : (3) Kleinfelters syndrome (1) G1 - phase (2) S - phase (4) Triplex syndrome (3) G2 - phase (4) M - phase CAREER POINT: CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 11  CAREER POINT. AIPMT - 2000 Q.187 Black rust of wheat is caused by : Q.197 Most of the mutations are : (1) Puccinia (2) Ustilago (1) Harmful (2) Harmful and recessive (3) Albugo (4) Phytophthora (3) Beneficial (4) Dominant Q.188 Which of the following animals have scattered Q.198 Stored food in fungi : cells with cell – tissue grade organisation : (1) Starch (2) Proteins (1) Sponge (2) Hydra (3) Glycogen (4) Chitin (3) Liver fluke (4) Ascaris Q.199 Living beings maintain continuity of life by : Q.189 Blastopore is the pore of : (1) Adaptation (1) Archenteron (2) Blastocoel (2) DNA–replication and its transfer in next (3) Coelom (4) A.C. generation Q.190 Cleavage in mammals : (3) RNA synthesis (1) Holoblastic equal (4) None of the above (2) Holoblastic unequal Q.200 What shall be the effect of destruction of wild (3) Superficial life : (4) Discoidal (1) Wild gene of disease resistance will not be Q.191 Extranuclear DNA is found in : obtained (1) Lysosome and chloroplast (2) Soil erosion (2) Chloroplast and mitochondria (3) Floods (3) Mitochondria and lysosome (4) Green house effect (4) Golgi and E.R. Q.192 Which of the following is used to manufacture ethanol from starch : (1) Penicilline (2) Saccharomyces (3) Azotobactor (4) Lactobacillus Q.193 A student observed an algae with chl. 'a' 'd' and phycoerythrin it should belong to : (1) Phaeophyta (2) Rhodophyta (3) Chlorophyta (4) Bacillariophyta Q.194 Lysosome contains : (1) Oxidative enzymes (2) Hydrolytic enzymes (3) Reductive enzymes (4) Anabolic enzymes Q.195 Role of enzyme in reactions : (1) Decrease activation energy (2) Increase activation energy (3) Inorganic catalyst (4) None of the above Q.196 What happens in light reaction (Photo chemical reaction ) : (1) Formation of ATP and NADPH2 (2) Formation of ATP (3) Formation of sugar (4) Breakdown of sugar CAREER POINT: CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 12  CAREER POINT. AIPMT - 2000 ANSWER KEY (AIPMT-2000) Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 Ans 2 1 3 2 2 2 2 3 3 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 3 1 Ques. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 Ans 2 2 3 2 1 1 1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2 2 1 1 2 3 2 Ques. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 Ans 2 2 4 2 2 1 2 2 3 2 1 2 4 2 1 1 2 1 2 1 Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 Ans 3 1 3 1 1 4 1 2 2 2 3 4 2 1 2 2 1 2 3 1 Ques. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 Ans 1 2 1 2 1 1 3 3 3 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 4 2 2 1 Ques. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 Ans 2 1 3 2 1 3 4 4 1 1 2 3 1 1 1 4 2 3 3 1 Ques. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 Ans 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 1 3 1 1 1 3 1 2 4 1 1 2 1 Ques. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 Ans 2 4 1 3 2 1 3 1 1 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 3 1 2 3 Ques. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 Ans 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 3 1 1 1 1 1 3 3 1 1 1 1 2 Ques. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 Ans 1 1 3 3 1 2 1 2 1 1 2 2 2 2 1 1 2 3 2 1 HINTS & SOLUTIONS 1. 10g – T = 10a → 1 × 50 ĵ = 0.4 × 25 (– ˆj ) + 0.6 v T – 5g = 5a → 5g = 15a 50 ĵ + 10 ĵ = 0.6 v g a= →60ˆj 3 v= = 100 ˆj = 100 m/s ĵ 0.6 4. It is balanced wheatstone bridge so equivalent resistance between A & B 3 4 T A B a↑ T a↓ 7 5g 10g 6 8 R 1 × R 2 14 × 7 14 2. R= = = Ω 60º R1 + R 2 21 3 30º q2 30º 1 1 60º 2C C 5. 2 C ∆p mv cos 30º −(− mv cos 30º ) q2 F= = energy stored (U) = ∆t ∆t 2C 2mv cos 30º 2 × 3 × 10 × 3 After connecting with another capacitor = = = 150 3 N ∆t 0.2 × 2 q + q2 q+0 q VCommon = 1 = = 3. Velocity after 5 second C1 + C 2 C + C 2C v = 100 – 10 × 5 Q Energy on each capacitor v = 50 m/s. 2 1 2 1  q  U from conservation of momentum = CVCommon =   =. 2 2  2C  4 CAREER POINT: CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 13  CAREER POINT. AIPMT - 2000 1 1 2u 2 sin θ cos θ = 6. R= 4 (5) − v 2 2 g Range of a projectile for angles of projection θ 1 1 = and 90 – θ are same. 16 25 − v 2 7. Tension in the string at the lowest position B is v = 3 km/hr. maximum. ds d 10. F = mg = 72N 21. v= = (3t3 + 7t2 + 14t + 8) dt dt 2 2  Re   Re  = 9t2 + 14t + 14 g' = g   = g      Re + h   Re + Re / 2  dv a= = 18t + 14  2R  4 2 dt =g e = g at, t = 1 sec. 3R  e 9 a = 32 ms–2. 4 4 F' = mg' = mg × = 72 × = 32N 5µ 0 2µ 9 9 23. Magnetic field due to 5A → = 0⊗ 2π × 2.5 2π 13. Equivalent power of combination Peq = 2PL + PM 2.5µ 0 µ Magnetic field due to 2.5A → = 0 1 2π × 2.5 2π = 2(µ – 1)   + 0 R 2µ 0 µ 0 µ 0 Resultant Magnetic field = – = ⊗ 2 π 2π 2π → 24. V → V sin30º 30º → B The required focal length mV⊥ r= 1 R 10 qB f=– =– =– = – 10cm Peq 2(µ − 1) 2(1.5 − 1) m  3 × 10 5 × sin 30º  2 r =     Q γ=1+   17. q  0.3  f 2 2 3 × 10 5 ⇒ =γ–1 ⇒f = r= = 0.5 × 10–2 m = 0.5 cm f γ −1 108 × 0.3 × 2 19. u 26. s1 O s2 For first source  v−u  u α=π n1 = n   = 1 −  n  v   v for IInd source v+u  u 2Kλ n2 = n   = 1 +  n Electric field at O = sin (α/2)  v   v a 2λ π λ nu nu = sin = Beat freq. = |n1 – n2| = n + –n+ 4π ∈0 a 2 2π ∈0 a v v d 2nu u  1 n 20. t= = = 2 Q v = nλ ∴ =  v λ  λ v u 2 − v2 CAREER POINT: CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 14  CAREER POINT. AIPMT - 2000 27. l = l1 + l2 + l3 1 g 36. f= k k k k 2π l = + + n n1 n 2 n3 1 f∝ 1 1 1 1 l ⇒ = + + n n1 n 2 n3 fA lB = W 1 fB lA 30. = Q 6 2f B lB T 1 ⇒ = 1– L = fB lA TH 6 lB TL 5 ⇒ 4= =n lA TH 6 lB If sink temp. decrease by 62ºC then ⇒ lA = 4 TL − 62 2 T − 62 2 1– = ⇒ L = 39. V = E + IR TH 6 TH 3 = 12 + 60 × 5 × 10–2 5 = 12 + 3 2TH = 3TL – 186 ⇒ 2TH = 3 × TH – 186 6 = 15 V 5 5−4 V2 1 2TH – TH = – 186 ⇒ TH = 186 40. P= ,P∝ 2 2 R R TH = 186 × 2 = 372 K = 99ºC i.e. R40 > R100 5 42. The minimum height of mirror TL = × 372 = 310 K = 37ºC 6 h 6 = = = 3 feet 2 2 33. θ 44. Ves for earth is 11.2 km/sec. lcosθ l. l 2GM e ves = = 11.2 km/sec. Re 2GM e × 4 2GM e v 'es = = 2 Potential energy at extreme position = kinetic Re Re energy at mean position = 2 × 11.2 = 22.4 km/sec. 1 mgl (1 – cos θ) = mv2 t−x 2 49. From one side, = 1.5 5 v = 2gl(1 − cos θ) x From other side, = 1.5 → x = 3 → → 2 34 P = F. v t −3 = (60 î +15 ĵ – 3 k̂ ). (2 î – 4 ĵ + 5 k̂ ) ∴ = 1.5 ⇒ t = 7.5 + 3 = 10.5 cm 5 = (120 – 60 – 15) = 45 watt 35. For triangular lamina Longest side → Imin Smallest side → Imax Therefore I2 > I1 > I3 CAREER POINT: CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 15