Facial Bone Fractures Past Paper PDF

1. What time a zygomatic bone and arch fracture is considered as “a fresh fracture”: A) till20days B) till 5 days C) till 30 days D) till 10 days E) till 15 days 2. Which variant is correct about zygomatic arch fractures? A) in many cases 2 fracture line and 2 fragments are formed B) in many cases 3...

1. What time a zygomatic bone and arch fracture is considered as “a fresh fracture”: A) till20days B) till 5 days C) till 30 days D) till 10 days E) till 15 days 2. Which variant is correct about zygomatic arch fractures? A) in many cases 2 fracture line and 2 fragments are formed B) in many cases 3 fracture line and 3 fragments are formed C) in many cases 4 fracture line and 2 fragments are formed D) in many cases 2 fracture line and 3 fragments are formed E) in many cases 3 fracture line and 2 fragments are formed 3. Which one is not characteristic for isolated zygomatic bone fractures: A) nasal bleeding B) limited mouth opening C) conjectival hemorrhage D) liquorrhea E) diplopia 4. Where the symptom of “step” is observe in case of isolated zygomatic fracture? A) on the inferior edge of orbit, on the medial edge of orbit, in zygomaticomaxillary suture on the superior edge of orbit, on the superior-lateral edge of orbit, in zygomaticomaxillary suture B) on the inferior edge of orbit, on the inferior-lateral edge of orbit, in zygomaticomaxillary suture C) on the inferior edge of orbit, on the superior-lateral edge of orbit, in zygomaticomaxillary suture D) on the medial edge of orbit, on the superior-lateral edge of orbit, in zygomaticomaxillary suture E) What time a zygomatic bone and arch fracture is considered as “an incorrect heeling fracture”: 5. A) till 20 days B) more than 10 days C) more than 20 days D) till 30 days E) more than 30 days 6. What time a zygomatic bone and arch fracture is considered as “an old fracture”: A) from 21 to 30 days B) more than 30 days C) more than 11 days D) from 11 to 30 days E) from 11 to 20 days 7. Which one is not characteristic for isolated zygomatic bone fractures: A) facial deformity B) present of hemorrhage in area of premolar and molar teeth C) nasal bleeding D) numbness of infraorbital area skin E) numbness of supraorbital area skin 8. Which variant concerned late complications of jaw fractures: A) inflammatory processes in surrounding soft tissues B) hematogenic osteomyelitis C) posttraumatic osteomyelitis D) hemorrhage and hematomas E) infection of bone 9. Which variant concerned late complications of jaw fractures: A) infection of bone B) posttraumatic maxillary sinusitis C) inflammatory processes in surrounding soft tissues D) hematogenic sinusitis E) hemorrhage and hematomas 10. Which variant concerned late complications of jaw fractures: A) inflammatory processes in surrounding soft tissues B) hemorrhage and hematomas C) infection of bone D) hematogenic maxillary sinusitis E) false joint 11. Which one is not characteristic for zygomatic bone fractures: A) diplopia B) conjectival hemorrhage C) chemosis D) restriction of eye balls movements E) astigmatism 12. Post traumatic maxillary sinusitis could be developed after: A) nasal bone fracture B) frontal bone fracture C) mandibular condylar fracture D) isolated zygomatic arch fracture E) zygomatic bone fracture 13. Which one is developed after reparative osteogenesis disturbance in case of jaw fractures: A) osteoporosis B) exostosis C) incorrect bone heeling D) bone callus E) false joint 14. Which variant concerned the general cause of the late bone healing in case of jaw fractures: A) incorrect fixation of bone fragments B) pathological osteoporosis C) soft tissue interposition D) inflammatory complication of bone fragments E) osteosclerosis 15. Which variant concerned the local cause of the late bone healing in case of jaw fractures: A) corrcte immobilisation of bone fragments B) tooth less bone fragments C) avitaminosis D) protein metabolism disturbance E) soft tissue interposition 16. Which complication did not develop as a result of reparative osteogenesis disturbance in case of jaw fractures: A) late consolidation of fragments B) development of bone defect in the fracture line C) false joint D) not fractured bone fragments healing E) consolidation of fragments in wrong position 17. In which case mostly developed posttraumatic complications? A) zygomatic bone fractures B) maxillary fractures C) mandibular fractures D) close fractures E) open fractures 18. Treatment tactics of posttraumatic osteomyelitis in acute phase: A) sequestrectomy, antibacterial, antiinflammatory and fortifying treatment only antibacterial, antiinflammatory and fortifying treatment B) opening of abscesses, fracture line tooth extraction, sequestrectomy, antibacterial, antiinflammatory and fortifying treatment C) fracture line tooth extraction, immobilisation of mobile fragments, antibacterial, antiinflammatory and fortifying treatment D) opening of abscesses, fracture line tooth extraction, immobilisation of mobile fragments, antibacterial, antiinflammatory and fortifying treatment E) 19. Which one includes into the treatment tactics of posttraumatic osteomyelitis in chronic phase: A) osteotomy B) dental prosthodentics C) distraction osteosynthesis D) Osteoperforation E) sequestrectomy 20. Which one is not promotion factor for developing of posttraumatic osteomyelitis: A) multiple jaw fractures B) insufficiently effective reposition and bracing of the damag fragments of jaws C) chronic odontogenic infection on the fracture line D) neurovascular group damaging E) fractures which are pass out of the tooth 21. Which one is not promotion factor for developing of posttraumatic osteomyelitis: A) disturbance of treatment by patients B) late referring of patient to medical center C) general weakness of patient D) satisfactory conditions of life of the patient E) presence of craniocerebral trauma 22. Treatment tactics of posttraumatic maxillary sinusitis in chronic phase: A) radical maxillary sinusotomy without the rinostomy B) maxillary sinus punction C) only removing of bone fragments and foreign bodys D) creation oroantral opening E) radical maxillary sinusotomy with rinostomy 23. Which one is not post zygomatic traumas complication: A) limited mouth opening B) posttraumatic maxillary sinusitis C) emphysema of the orbit D) diplopia E) dislocation asphyxia 24. Which variant does not indicate secondary displacement of facial bone fractures? A) early functional load B) not correct fixation of bone fragmants C) disturbance of treatment by patients D) general weakness of patient E) additional trauma to that area 25. In which case could be observed nasal bleeding? A) mandibular condylar fractures B) alveolar process fractures C) mandibular angular fractures D) isolated zygomatic arch fractures E) zygomatic bone fractures 26. Determine appropiation: I Mechanical injury II Physical injury III chemical injury 1) thermic and radial injury 2) injury by the influence of acid, alkali and toxic agents 3) with fire arms and unfire arms A) I-2, II-3, III-1 B) I-1, II-3, III-2 C) I-2, II-1, III-3 D) I-3, II-1, III-2 E) I-1, II-2, III-3 27. Cooperative trauma: The violation of integrity of structure or its functional state on cellular, tissue or organ level by influence of external damaging factor A) B) Trauma that arise under the influence of external damaging factor (mechanical injury+burn) C) Trauma of two different anatomical places with the same damaging factors D) Trauma that is repeated among the same qroup of people on certain circumstances E) Injure of one orqan or an organ seqment by the influense of external damaging factor 28. Combined injuries A) trauma that is repeated among the same qroup of people on certain circumstances B) injure of one orqan or an organ seqment by the influense of external damaging factor C) formulation of wound process in cellular tissue and organs by influence of internal damaging factor D) trauma of two different anatomical places with the same damaging factors E) Trauma that arise under the influence of external damaging factor (mechnical injury+burn) 29. İzolated traumas: A) trauma that is repeated among the same qroup of people on certain circumstances B) trauma that arise under the influence of external damaging factor (mechnical injury+burn) C) injure of one orqan or an organ seqment by the influense of external damaging factor D) formulation of wound process in cellular tissue and organs by influence of internal damaging factor E) trauma of two different anatomical places with the same damaging factors 30. Multiple traumas: A) trauma of two different anatomical places with the same damaging factors B) trauma that is repeated among the same qroup of people on certain circumstances C) trauma that arise under the influence of external damaging factor (mechnical injury+burn) D) injure of one orqan or an organ seqment by the influense of external damaging factor E) formulation of wound process in cellular tissue and organs by influence of internal damaging factor 31. Exacerbation occuring right after trauma A) bite violation lie joint osteomyelitis B) weakness of sight, diplopiya fright of light C) wound infection sepsis medistenite D) asphyxia, blooding,shock E) fainting,heart and breathe failure 32. Determine appropratrion: I obturation asphixia II stenotic asphixia III dislocation asphixia 1) Due to pressure and narrowing of the trachea in case of inflammatory swelling, hemorrhage, emphysema of pharynx, neck and tongue 2) Due to intrusion of the content into the upper airway – blood, mucus, gastric content etc. 3) Is developing due to dislocation of injured organs (mandible, tongue, larynx, maxillae, and soft palate A) I-3, II-1, III-2 B) I-2, II-3, III-1 C) I-1, II-3, III-2 D) I-2, II-1, III-3 E) I-1, II-2, III-3 33. Determine appropratrion: I Valve asphixia II Aspiration asphixia III stenotic asphyxia 1) Due to developing of the valve from the flap of injured soft palate or less frequently soft tissues of the face. 2) Due to intrusion of the content into the upper airway – blood, mucus, gastric content etc 3) Due to pressure and narrowing of the trachea in case of inflammatory swelling, hemorrhage, emphysema of pharynx, neck and tongue A) I-1, II-3, III-2 B) I-2, II-3, III-1 C) I-3, II-1, III-2 D) I-1, II-2, III-3 E) I-2, II-1, III-3 34. Which of the followings belongs to the surgical treatment of maxillary fractures? A) Standart tires Vasilyeva B) Various kinds of ligature binding C) Zubonadesnevaya bus Weber D) Circling seam E) Osteosintez mini titanium plates 35. Which of the followings belongs to the surgical treatment of mandibular fractures? A) Weber brace B) Hinged brace C) mini –plates made of titanium D) Vankevich brace E) Ayvi 36. Is it observed during the lower –mandible fractures? A) Existing fracture in the joint dislocation B) Damage of lower-alveol nerve C) Damage of mental nerve D) Occlusion E) mandible dislocation 37. Is not it observed during the mandible fractures? A) Existing fracture in joint dislocation B) Occlusion C) Opening of Antrum of Highmore D) Damage of lower alveol E) Damage of mental nerve 38. In which of the following cases are mandibular fractures able to be estimated as open fracture? If 1) it covers two anatomical areas of jaw 2) the fragments of fractures destroys skin integrity 3) the line of fracture passes through the line of teeth 4) fracture exists in the dislocation of joint A) 1,2,4 B) 1,2,3 C) 2,3 D) 1,3 E) 1,4 39. In which of the following cases are not the fractures of jaw able to be estimated as open fracture? If 1) it covers two anatomical areas of jaw 2) the fragments of fragtures destroys skin integrity 3) the line of fracture passes through the line of teeth 4) fractrue exists in the dislocation of joint A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,4 C) 2,3 D) 1,3 E) 1,4 40. In which of the following cases is it observed the little displacement of the fragments of fracture during the jaw fracture? If-A) at the time of firearm injuries B) different numbers of muscles join to the fragments of fracture C) the line of fracture passes through the left angle area D) the same number muscles opening and closing the jaw join to the fragments of fracture E) the line of fracture passes through joint dislocation 41. Which of the followings is the main reason for the fragments of fracture diverging from each-other along the lower-side of jaw during the fractures of jaw’s symphsis area? A) accumulation effect of m. platysma B) the influence of joint disc C) the influence of orbicularis oris D) the effect of muscles with two abdomens E) the effect of temporal muscles and mastication 42. During which anatomical area of the jaw is it observed more displacement of the fragments of fracture? A) the fractures of dislocation of crown B) the fractures of symphysis area C) the fractures of joint dislocation D) the fractures of body areas E) the fractures of mental areas 43. Which are the main muscles providing the small fragment displacement to above side during the mandibular body area fractures? A) the muscles with two abdomens and temper B) the muscles with two abdomens and jaw-sublingual C) inner and outer wing-shaped D) the muscles of masticatory and temper E) the muscles of masticatory and inner wing-shaped 44. Which are the main muscles providing the small fragment displacement to inner side during the mandibular body fractures? A) the muscles with two abdomens and temper B) the muscles with two abdomens and jaw-sublingual C) the muscles of masticatory and inner wing-shaped D) the muscles of masticatory and temper E) inner and outer wing-shaped muscles 45. Which of the followings is the cause of little displacement of the fragments of fracture during the jaw angle fractures? A) as a result of tractive force of temporal muscles B) as a result of joint disc C) location of the wisdom tooth in angle area D) as a result of the pulling influence of muscle with two abdomens E) wide-field combination of the tendons of masticatory muscle in angle area 46. Which of the following signs are able to be observed during th mandibular fractures? 1) destruction of teeth 2) symptom of ‘’glasses’’ 3) Hemasinus 4) symptom of Vensan A) 3,4 B) 1,3 C) 2,3 D) 2,4 E) 1,4 47. Which of the following signs is not able to be observed during th fractures of jaw? 1) destruction of teeth 2) symptom of ‘’glasses’’ 3) Hemasinus 4) symptom of Vensan A) 1,4 B) 3,4 C) 2,4 D) 2,3 E) 1,3 48. Which of the followings is the main reason of dislocation asficsion happening during the mandibular fractures? 1) destruction of teeth 2) the effect of the impact force 3) tractive force of muscle 4) appearing of tongue on pedicle A) 2,4 B) 1,3 C) 3,4 D) 2,3 E) 1,4 49. Do any complications like dislocation asficsion happen more during the fractures of jaw? A) during the fractures of single-sided mental area B) during the fractures of bilateral joint appendix C) during the fractures of symphsis area D) right mental, the fracture of left angle area E) during the fractures of double-sided mental area 50. Which way is relevant to check the symptom of pressure during the fractures of mandibular symphsis area? A) It needs to pressure through the body area of mandible B) it needs to pressure from outside to the under of eye socket C) It needs to pressure to both angle area of the mandible from outside to inside D) It needs to pressure through the area of chin E) It needs to pressure through the ear canal 51. When is the’’ coupling’’symptom observed during the fractures of mandible? during X-ray picture of lateral projection appearing after the fractures of mandible’s body area A) during X-ray picture of frontal projection appearing after the fractures of jaw’s mental area B) during X-ray picture of lateral projection appearing after the protrusion fractures of mandible’s joint C) during X-ray picture of frontal projection appearing after the fractures of crown protrusion of mandible D) during X-ray picture of rear projection appearing after the fractures of mandible’s symphsis area E) 52. Which are the common clinical signs,if the fractures of unilateral joint protrusion are accompanied by the protrusion of articular head? 1) Symptom of Vensan 2) Inertia in joint 3) Chin paresthesia 4) Symptom of Malevich 5) frontal harshness of pinna A) 1,4 B) 1,2,5 C) 3,4,5 D) 2,5 E) 1,3 53. Which are not the common clinical signs,if the fractures of unilateral joint protrusion are accompanied by the protrusion of articular head? 1) Symptom of Vensan 2) Joint inertia 3) Chin paresthesia 4) Symptom of Malevich 5) frontal harshness of pinna A) 3,4,5 B) 1,2,5 C) 2,5 D) 1,3,4 E) 1,3 54. Which of the followings belongs to the provisional methods of immobilization during the fractures of mandible? 1) Catapult-shaped bandage 2) Brace of Tiqerstedt 3) Brace of Vasilyev 4) Brace of standard transportation 5) Bandage of Pomeranseva –Urbanski A) 1,2,5 B) 2,4,5 C) 1,2,3 D) 2,3,5 E) 1,4,5 55. Which of the followings belongs to the permanent methods of immobilization during mandible’s fractures? 1) Catapult-shaped bandage 2) Brace of Tiqerstedt 3) Brace of Vasilyev 4) Brace of standard transportation 5) Bandage of Pomeranseva –Urbanski A) 2,3,4 B) 1,2,3 C) 2,5 D) 2,3 E) 4,5 56. Define the conformity 1) Brace of Tiqerstedt 2) Catapult-shaped bandage 3) mini plates containing titanium 4) Brace of Vasilyev 5) Bandage of Pomeranseva –Urbanski ab A) 1,3,4 2,5 B) 1,3 2,4,5 C) 1,5 2,3,4 D) 2,5 1,3,4 E) 2,4,5 1,3 57. Define the conformity. a- Lefor I b-Lefor II 1) starts from the seam of nose-forehead 2) passes through the zygomatic-alveolar crest 3) starts from the bottom level of pear-shaped hole 4) proceeds in the bottom level of higmore cavity 5) passes through the bottom part of wing-shaped protrusion of underlying bone ab A) 1,2,3 1,3,5 B) 1,2 3,4,5 C) 1,3,5 2,4 D) 1,2,5 3,4,5 E) 3,4,5 1,2,5 58. Define the conformity a-mandibular fractures b-jaw fractures 1) symptom of Vensan 2) fracture of joint protrusion 3) Lefor classification 4) symptom of Malevich ab A) 1,3 2,4 B) 3,4 2,3,4 C) 2,4 1,3,4 D) 1,2,3 2,4 E) 1,2,4 3,4 59. Which of the followings does not belong to jaw fractures? A) Geren fracture B) Hemosinus C) Vasmund classification D) Vensan symptom E) Lefor classification 60. Choose the appropuation: I According to blood source vines II According to blood flow time III According to blood gathering after trauma 1) firstly secondly early in one 3 days after wound 2) arterial venous kapillar mixed blood 3) inside tissue external inside bleed A) I-1, II-3, III-2 B) I-2, II-3, III-1 C) I-3, II-1, III-2 D) I-2, II-1, III-3 E) I-1, II-2, III-3 61. It is noticed changes in blood, breath circulation. So in what condition is the patient? A) long lasting tightness sindrome B) traumatic collapse C) traumatic shock D) post traumatic disease E) clinical death 62. After trauma patient has strong lack of vein: lower of vein tonus, less of blood amount;lower of arterial and venous pressure, hypoxion of brain and less the life important organs activity A) longlasting tightness sindrome B) traumatic shock C) posttraumatic disease D) clinical death E) traumatic collapse 63. MFA the I aid for patients: A) at qualified desert hospital B) in the medical point of soldiers C) the medical point of army D) in the special place of soldiers E) 64. on the battle MFA I aid before the doctors arrival: A) in the special place of soldiers B) at qualified desert hospital C) in the medical point of soldiers D) on the battle E) the medical point of army 65. MFA the doctors I aid: A) in the special place of soldiers B) at qualified desert hospital C) on the battle D) in the medical point of soldiers E) the medical point of army 66. MFA the I qualified and should be shown: A) the medical point of army B) at qualified desert hospital C) in the medical point of soldiers D) on the battle E) in the medical point of soldiers 67. MFA the I special aid: on the battle A) B) the medical point of army C) in the medical point of soldiers D) in the medical point of soldiers E) at qualified desert hospital 68. On the medical point I aid for soldiers: medical prospecting survice of army A) B) medical C) medical nurse D) epidimiological survice E) doctor 69. On the face-chin field main principles of the I aid: to fill the medical card A) B) to take to silent place C) to make the patient drink D) to put bandage E) temporarly stopping of blood 70. How many periods of the clinical course of the combined radiation injury exists? A) 3 B) 5 C) 4 D) 6 E) 2 71. What cropped primary radiation reaction on the stage of the first and pre-hospital care? A) autohaemotherapy B) is used detoxification C) is used laxative D) is used per oral radio protective medicaments E) is used antibiotics 72. A) Up to what time is postponed surgery for combined radiation injury? at the end of fever B) cure auto-infection C) to the appearance of necrotic areas D) until the liquidation of the high radiation sickness E) until the false joints 73. The sign of liquorrhea is: A) glasses symptom B) convergent squint C) nasal bleeding D) positive symptom of fragments mobility E) positive handkerchief symptom 74. The sign of liquorrhea is: A) glasses symptom B) headache C) exophthalm D) cerebrospinal fluid pressure fall-of E) positive symptom of fragments mobility 75. Before being hospitalized the patient suffering multiple head injury must be assisted with: A) trepanation of the skull B) secondary surgical debridement C) constant fragment immobilization D) primary surgical debridement E) reducing the shocking experience, bleeding, asphyxia 76. Indicate different between gunshot injury of face and other area of body: A) features of wound canals B) wound bleeding C) time of epithelization of wound D) external view of wound effect on quality of life of patient E) rapid development of complications 77. Indicate secondary particles injuries: A) necrotic bony tissue B) destroying bullet C) bullet particles D) arrow like element E) teeth,teeth and facial bone particles 78. Indicate features of injuries: A) time of injury(season) B) zone of injury C) body temperature D) metal aloy of particles E) acceleration energy of bullet 79. Indicate features of injury: A) wound preparation B) metal alloy of particles C) physical condition of wound D) weather temperature and its polution E) how long pulsating cavity and zone of molecular concussion last 80. Specify the volume of given help to the defeat centers at burns of the patient: A) preparation of bandage,painkiller,antibiotics,using of cardiacs B) preparation of bandage,antishock therapy, C) first emergency surgery D) dry aseptic bandage, painkillers E) first emergency surgery, transplantation of skin 81. The primary emergency surgery of a burn is: A) skin transplantation B) using of primery plasticity C) excision of burned-down skin D) processing by antisepticsaround burns of skin,transplantation of skin processing by antiseptics around burns of skin, incision of big bladers,antiburns vaccine,aerozols E) 82. Skin transplantation on a zone of a burn is carred out: A) after falling away of a crust and granulation development B) 5 day after burn C) as late as possible D) since the period of the beginning of epitalization E) as soon as possible 83. Accelerates wound healing is: A) trimetildiftonparaamin B) emulsia of synthomycin C) analgin D) korglikon E) solkoseril ointment 84. What stage of a burn indicates by formation of blisters on skin: A) 2 – 3 – 4 stage B) 3 B – 4 stage C) 4 stage D) 1 stage E) 2-3 a stages 85. Which isn't characteristic for the combined trauma (radiation sickness + skin trauma) : A) general weakness B) gum bleeding,stomatitis C) blood count change D) symptoms complicating each other E) increasing of arterial pressure 86. In what position the patient with a craniocerebral trauma and a fracture of a jaw is transported: A) transportation of the patient is forbidden B) sitting C) any position D) on one side lying E) lying on a back 87. Specify tactics of treatment of the patient with a heavy craniocereberal trauma and a maxillofacial trauma: A) first emergency surgery B) first emergency surgery, temporary or permanently fixation of jaw fragments C) at the beginning of treatment craniocerebral trauma D) the treatment of inflammatory complication, permanent fixation of jaw fragments preventing the bleeding, improvement of function of external breath, temporary immobilization,the treatment of craniocerebral trauma E) 88. Specify tactics of treatment of the patient with a light craniocereberal trauma and a maxillofacial trauma: at the beginning of treatment craniocerebral trauma A) preventing the bleeding, improvement of function of external breath, temporary immobilization,the treatment of craniocerebral trauma B) C) the treatment of inflammatory complication, permanent fixation of jaw fragments D) preventing the bleeding, improvement of function of external breath E) first emergency surgery,permanent immobilization of jaw fragments, medical treatment 89. What is spesific for the combined maxillofacial injuries: A) hypoglycemic syndrom B) pterygo-palatal ganglion syndrom C) auricolatemporalsyndrom D) hyperglycemic syndrom E) syndroms complicating each other 90. What is SMC: A) object of medical camp B) separate medical camp C) military field surgical hospital D) general medical camp E) object of medical brigade 91. Aid in the maxillofacial department of the hospital: A) struggle with asphyxia B) conservative methods of immobilization C) temporary immobilization D) all kinds of conservative and surgical treatments E) surgical methods of immobilization 92. Features of primary surgical treatment of wounds in the maxillofacial department of the hospital: A) antiseptic wound treatment, excision of necrotic tissue, wound closure B) treatment of the wound with antiseptics, sutures and bandages partial dissection and excision of nonviable tissue sparing, removal of foreign bodies, fixation of fragments, using primary plastic surgery C) D) stop bleeding, wound cleaning with antiseptics, sutures and bandages E) excision of necrotic tissue, removal of blood clots, wound drainage 93. Volume of care for patients with a combined wound in maxillofacial department of the military hospital: A) ventilation of lungs B) final stop bleeding, antishock therapy, radiation sickness, decontamination C) evacuation to a rear hospital base primary debridement subject to radiation damage and preparing for immobilization treatment, decontamination D) E) debridement 94. Indicate the difference between gunshot injuries of the facial area and other regions of the body: A) the time of wound epithelization B) present of inflammatory process within the wound C) duration of wound healing D) rapid developing of complications E) incompliance of the external appearance of wound and patient general health condition 95. Indicate the difference between gunshot injuries of the facial area and other region of the body: A) rapid developing of complication B) duration of wound healing C) present of inflammatory process within the wound D) the time of wound epithelization E) present of secondary damaging fragments 96. Indicate the main symptom of bilateral condylar fracture of mandible: A) laceration of oral mucosa of alveolar process B) epistaxis C) open bite D) malocclusion in the regions of molars on the side opposite to fracture E) malocclusion in the region of molars on the side of fracture 97. Indicate the position of fragments in case of unilateral mental fracture: A) mesial B) upward C) distal D) lateral E) downward 98. Indicate the symptoms of mandibular angle fracture: A) fragments not displaced; there is no anesthesia,no malocclusion B) malocclusion as result of fragment movement,there is no anesthesia in upper lip C) malocclusion as result of fragment displacement,anesthesia of upper lip malocclusion due to dislocation of bigger fragment upward and smaller fragment downward,anesthesia of lower lip D) malocclusion due to dislocation of bigger fragment downward and smaller fragment upward,anesthesia of lower li. E) 99. Indicate the tooth, which is avulse mostly by trauma: A) lower premolars B) upper premolars C) upper and lower frontal teeth D) upper frontal teeth E) lower frontal teeth 100. The tooth evulsion is: A) incomplete,impacted B) horizontal,vertical C) complete,incomplete,impacted D) complete,incomplete E) complete,impacted 101. Which one is mechanical injuries: A) combined injuries B) hard tissue injuries and burns C) soft and hard tissue injuries D) burns and freezing E) soft tissue injuries and freezing 102. What from the follows showing injury`s character: A) combined injuries, burns and freezing B) combined injuries and burns C) blind and penetrating D) gunshot injuries E) burns and freezing 103. The primarydebridement of facial region wounds should done: A) immediately B) within 24 hours C) within 72 hours D) within 48 hours E) within 8-12 hours 104. Delayed debridement of facial wound should done: A) within 3 days B) within 8 days C) within 24-48 hours D) immediately E) within 8-12 hours 105. Delayed initiate debridement of facial wound should done: A) within 8-12 hours B) within 48 hours C) within 8 days D) immediately E) within 3 days 106. Delayed initiate suturing of facial wound should done: A) within 6-8 days B) within7-8 days C) within 8-9 days D) within 10-15 days E) within 4-5 days 107. Delayed secondary suturing of facial wound should done: A) after debridement of necrotic tissue and formation of granulated tissue B) at the time of scar formation C) after epithelization of wound D) within 4-5 days E) within 8-9 days 108. Which one is necessary in case of secondary debridement of facial wound: A) antirabic vaccination B) analgesic drug C) tetanus vaccination D) gamma globulin E) staphylococci antitoxin 109. Indicate the type of asphyxia due to airways obstruction by liquid content: A) obturation B) valve C) stenotic D) dislocation E) aspiration 110. The emergency management of stenotic asphyxia: A) correction of anatomic position of organ B) tracheotomy C) antibiotic therapy D) removing of foreign body E) oropharyngeal tube 111. Indicate the planned management of dislocation asphyxia: A) antibiotic therapy B) tracheotomy C) oropharyngeal tube D) removing of foreign body E) anatomic correction of organ 112. Indicate type of asphyxia in patients with disconnection of mental region: A) stenotic B) dislocation C) valve D) aspiration E) obturation 113. Indicate the prophylaxis of asphyxia in case of great displacement of the tissue of the floor of the mouth: A) antibiotic therapy B) ligature and pulling out of the tongue C) bimaxillary splint D) oropharyngeal tube insertion E) tracheostomy 114. For the prophylaxis of asphyxia the tongue should be ligated in: A) lateral border B) middleone third C) root of tongue D) anteriorone third E) border between posterior and middle one third 115. Which method relates with osteosynthesis of the mandible: A) circling suture with gingiva spikes or prosthesis B) hanging fragments of the low jaw to the facial and brain skeleton bones C) repositioned in – fixing apparatus D) bone suture E) bones fixing apparatus 116. Which method of osteosynthesis of low jaw is considered as most prospective at present: A) P-shaped steel bracket B) circling suture made of polyamide yarn C) bones suture with wire D) titanium mini- plates E) introduction of Cirshner’s spoke 117. Which method of treatment must be applied in case of fracture of low jaw near condylar neck with dislocation of the latter outward for 0,5 sm? A) surrounding seam of polyamide yarn B) imposing a smooth splint bracket C) intermandibular splinting with intermaxillary rubber traction D) osteosynthesis with bones suture intermandibular on tooth splinting with intermaxillary rubber traction pad and interdental plate E) 118. Lefort fracture by type II is characterized by the fact that the fracture line runs: A) fracture one of the maxilla B) estrangement upper jaw with zygomatic bones on alveolar ridge and on the hard palate, through the lower edge of the pear-shaped holes and the ends of the pterygoid process of sphenoid bone at the bottom of the maxillary C) sinuses. trough root of the nose, the inner wall of the orbit to the infraorbital slit, through it and goes forward on the lower wall of the orbit through the fronto-zygomatic suture and the zygomatic arch D) trough the root of the nose, the inner wall of the eye socket to the infraorbital slit through it and goes forward on the lower wall of the orbit to the junction of the zygomatic bone of the upper jaw with the zygomatic bone, and at the back - through the alar appendices of the sphenoid bone E) 119. Fracture of the type by LefortI is characterized by the fracture line that runs: through the root of the nose, the inner wall of the eye socket to the infraorbital slit through it and goes forward on the lower wall of the orbit to the junction of the zygomatic bone of the upper jaw with the zygomatic bone, and back through the processes of the sphenoid wingA) B) fracture of one of the maxilla C) the separation of the upper jaw with - zygomatic bones through the root of the nose, the inner wall of the orbit to the infraorbital slit through it and goes forward on the lower wall of the orbit through the fronto - zygomatic suture and the zygomatic arch D) over the alveolar ridge and over the hard palate, through the lower edge of the pear-shaped holes and the ends of the pterygoid process of sphenoid bone at the bottom of the maxillary sinuses E) 120. Lefort III fracture type is characterized by the fracture line that goes: above alveolar ridge and on the hard palate, through the lower edge of the pear-shaped holes and the ends of the pterygoid process of sphenoid bone, through the bottom of the maxillary sinuses A) B) separation of the upper jaw with cheekbones C) fracture of one of the maxilla through the root of the nose, the inner wall of the orbit to the infraorbital slit, through it and goes forward on the lower wall of the orbit through the fronto - zygomatic suture and the zygomatic arch D) through the root of the nose, the inner wall of the eye socket to the infraorbital slit through it and goes forward on the lower wall of the orbit to the junction of the zygomatic bone of the upper jaw with the zygomaticbone, and back through the processes of the sphenoid wingE) 121. Sagittal fracture of the upper jaw is: A) fracture of upper jaw of the type of Lefort II, but without damage to the nasal bones B) fracture of upper jaw of the type III Lefort C) fracture of upper jaw of the type II Lefort D) fracture of the upper jaw of the type I Lefort E) when breaks off only one maxilla 122. Distinction of the "symptom of glasses" in case of an isolated fracture of the upper jaw and bone fractures of the skull base is: A) the colour intensity B) the localization of haemorrhage C) the appearance after the injury and limited character D) the time of its occurrence and prevalence E) the prevalence and severity of colour 123. For fractures of the upper jaw "symptom of glasses ": A) appears no earlier than 24-48 hours after the injury and is of prevalent nature B) appears no earlier than 24-48 hours after injury and is limited C) appears immediately after the injury and is limited D) appears immediately after the injury and is ubiquitous nature E) appears no earlier than 12 hours after the injury and is within the circular muscle of the eye 124. At dual spot probe there are: A) only one brown spot of blood on a napkin B) only a yellow spot on a napkin brown spot of blood flowing at the centre of gauze, and the yellow corolla cerebrospinal fluid on the periphery C) D) mixed colours of brown and yellow E) yellow spot in the centre of the macula and brown at the periphery 125. “Handkerchief” symptom is use in diagnosis of: A) fractures of nasal bones B) fractures of zygomatic bone C) fractures of maxilla D) fractures of bones of the skull base E) fractures of the orbit 126. Positive symptom of Malevich’s is: pain along the fracture slit when pressed with index finger on hook-like (bottom-up) processes of the sphenoid A) B) step symptom in the zygomatics, the facial suture. C) step symptom in the infraorbital region D) crepitus of skin in a infraorbital region E) sound of the cracked pot that occurs when tapped on the damaged side of the teeth 127. Why children with maxillofacial injuries have delayed clinical symptoms of concussion: A) child injury is usually less painful than that of adults B) because of the elasticity of the bones of the skull and the presence of unclosed fontanels: C) children are not able to describe all the symptoms D) children tolerate injury easier than adults do E) children do not pay attention to clinical signs 128. A) Symptom that is not characteristic for an isolated fracture of the zygomatic bone: numbness of skin of infraorbital region B) retraction of the soft tissue of the zygomatic region C) “Load” symptom D) bleeding from nose E) "Step" symptom in the middle of the lower edge of the eye socket 129. Diplopia may occur in which direction of the significant shift of the zygomatic bone? A) forward B) upward and forward C) upward D) downward E) outward 130. In case of the fracture of the mandible within midline displacement of the fragments occurs: frontal plane with contact in – deviation of the molars in lingual and premolars in buccal direction A) B) frontal plane with contact in – deviation of the molars and premolars in buccal direction C) sagittal and frontal planes D) sagittal plane E) frontal plane with contact in – deviation of the molars and premolars in lingual direction 131. Grumouscontact at a median fracture arises because: A) chewing muscle turns outwards, and the temporal one pulls up B) temporal muscle shifts chips upward C) lateral pterygoid shifts the fragment on the side (inside) D) mandibular-hyoid muscle turns chips inwards E) masseter muscle turns the chip outwards 132. Grumouscontact at a median fracture of the lower jaw is: inclination of premolars and molars from right hand side to lingual and from left hand side to the buccal A) B) cross-bite C) inclination of premolars and molars in buccal direction D) inclination of premolars and molars in the lingual direction E) ordinary contact of antagonists 133. At medial oblique fractures of the lower jaw - fragments shift: A) big fragment - outwards, and the small one downwards B) big fragment - downwards, and a the small one – upwards C) big fragment - outwards and downwards, and a small one - inwards and downwards D) big fragment - downwards, and the little one - inwards E) big fragment - outwards and the small one - upwards 134. How do fragments shift in case of single fractures of body of lower jaw: big fragment downwards, backwards and outwards, small one downwards and towards the fracture A) B) big fragment - downwards and outwards, small one - upwards, backwards and inwards big fragment - upwards and towards the fracture, small one – downwards, forward and inwards C) big fragment - downwards and towards the fracture, small one - upwards, forward and inwards D) big fragment – downwards and towards the fracture, small one downwards, backwards and outwards E) 135. How are the fragments displaced at a single fracture of the mandibular angle: big fragment is displaced downwards and outwards, and the small one upwards and inwards. A) big fragment is displace upwards and towards the fracture, and the small one - downwards and inwards. B) C) don’t displaced. big fragment is displace downwards and towards the fracture, and the small one - upwards and outwards. D) big fragment is shift downwards and towards the fracture, and the small one - upwards and inwards. E) 136. A) In case of fracture of the ramus of the lower jaw: big fragment shifted inwards and the small one – downwards. big fragment is shifted downwards and inwards, and the small one - upwards and outwards. B) C) big fragment is shifted outwards, and the small one - downwards and inwards. big fragment is shift downwards and towards the fracture, and the small one - upwards and inwards. D) E) big fragment is not displaced, small fragment inwards. 137. In case of fracture of the coronoid process of the mandible changes of the bite are as follows: A) occlude in cross-bite B) none of teeth occludes together C) antagonist teeth do not occlude at the side of injury D) antagonist teeth occlude only at the side of injury E) no bite changes observed 138. Which fragments should be fixated first in case comminuted fractures of midface: A) fragments of the maxillae B) fragments of the mandible C) between each other D) displaced to non-displaced E) fragments within soft tissues 139. In bilateral fractures of body, angles, branches and condylar processes of the mandibular, those of the following contact: A) just on one side B) just frontal C) no contact all along D) just molars E) teeth all along 140. At double fractures of the mandible: the medium fragment is displaced downwards and inwards, large and small fragments – downwards A) the medium fragment is displaced downwards and inwards, large and small fragments upwards B) C) the medium fragment is displaced upwards, large and small fragments - downwards the medium fragment is displace downwards and inwards, the large fragment - downwards and towards the damage, the small one - upwards and inwards D) the medium fragment is displace downwards and inwards, the large fragment upwards and towards the damage, the small one downwards and inward E) 141. Which tooth can be temporarily not removed from the line of fracture: A) tooth supporting inflammation. B) retential tooth, preventing proper (tight) juxtaposition of the fragments of the jaw. C) if the tooth is completely dislocated from the socket, but its integrity is preserved. D) the one with broken roots E) intact tooth necessary for retention of fragment in correct position 142. For an isolated fracture of the zygomatic arch is unusual: A) deformation of the face B) restriction lateral movements of the mandible C) retraction soft tissue of the zygomatic region D) restriction and pain when opening the mouth E) numbness skin infraorbital region 143. Indications for use of osteosynthesis with the mini-plates and screws: A) tooth fracture at the level of the tooth neck B) fracture crown of the tooth in an oblique direction C) tooth root fracture D) fractures the lower and upper jaw E) upper teeth fracture 144. A) Indications for compression- distraction osteosynthesis: comminuted mandibular fractures fracture of alveolar part of the mandible or maxillary alveolar process, if more bone fragments is stable for at least four teeth on less than 2 B) C) contemporary fractures of the upper and lower jaw one-party fracture of the mandible without bone defect if the fracture gap passes through the alveolar part, devoid of teeth D) E) slow consolidation of bone fragments 145. Indications for osteosynthesis: A) one-partly alveolar fracture of the lower jaw B) fracture lower jaw and serious medical condition of the victim (coma, shock) C) fractures of the edentulous mandible with significant displacement of bone fragments D) one-party fracture of the alveolar bone of the upper jaw E) impacted dislocated teeth 146. Which method of treatment of edentulous jaw is more appropriate: A) maxillary mandibular fixation B) staple splint C) titanium mini plates D) Vasilyev’s standard splint E) reconstruction plate 147. Which of below mentioned is a symptom of zygomatic fracture: A) load symptom B) Frey symptom C) Vincent symptom D) Dupuytren's symptom E) step deformity 148. Which of below mentioned X-ray examinations is the most informative for zygomatic fracture: A) contrast X-ray examinations B) orthopantomogram C) side radiography of facial bones D) intra-oral X-ray image E) computer tomography 149. The main event held during medical evacuation: A) feeding B) neck massage C) closed cardiac massage D) immobilization E) breathing exercises 150. Stage of medical evacuation, with the dentist: A) military field surgical hospital B) maxillofacial department of the military hospital C) medical battalion item D) separate medical battalion E) medical center of shelf 151. Stage of medical evacuation, where render qualified assistance: A) maxillofacial department of the military hospital B) military field surgical hospital C) medical center shelf D) medical battalion item E) separate medical battalion 152. Stage of medical evacuation, where specialized support: A) separate medical battalion B) sorting station C) medical battalion item D) medical center shelf E) maxillofacial department of the military hospital 153. To temporarily stop the bleeding from the wounds of the maxillofacial region in the infirmary of the regiment carried out: A) suturing of the vessel in the wound B) ligating of vessel C) finger pressed against the vessel D) use of a tourniquet E) hard tamponade wound 154. To permanently stop of the bleeding from the wounds of the maxillofacial region in the infirmary of the regiment carried out: A) the imposition of a pressure bandage B) taughttamponade of wound C) ligating of the vessel D) finger pressed against the vessel E) closure of the vessel in the wound 155. The amount of aid in the infirmary of the regiment during asphyxia of valve: A) fixation of tongue B) the introduction of the air tube C) intubation D) excision of the valve and a tracheotomy E) excision of the valve or suturing of damaged tissues 156. The amount of aid in the infirmary of the regiment during asphyxia of valve: A) ventilation of lungs B) the introduction of the air tube C) intubation D) tracheotomy E) removal of tongue from the mouth and flashing 157. Who developed the Z-plasty: A) N. М. Michelson B) А. I. Evdokimov C) А. E. Rauer D) А. А. Limberg E) V. М. Khitrov 158. Which skin grafts are used for the skin grafting in maxillofacial area: A) partial grafts B) partial and complete grafts C) split thickness grafts D) dermal grafts E) split thickness and dermal grafts 159. Which transplant, used for the skin grafting, is the most sensitive for unfavorable conditions, which can occur during the transplantation: A) thick split dermal graft; B) middle split dermal graft; C) partial graft D) split thickness graft; E) dermal graft 160. The cartilage, transplanted into the transplant bed, undergo the following change: A) regenerate B) resorbed C) scleroses but does not ossify D) no resorption and no regeneration E) ossifies 161. The transplantation of the person's own tissues is called: A) heterotransplantation B) implantation C) homotransplantation D) autotransplantation E) allotransplantation 162. The transplantation of the tissue (bone, cartilage etc. ) to another person is called: A) homotransplantation B) implantation C) heterotransplantation D) autotransplantation E) allotransplantation 163. Will arthroosteoplastyin the childhood cause jaw growth impairment on the operated side and its following deforming if the person had defectof ramus and condylar process of mandible: A) is not likely B) yes C) not always D) no E) depends on operative technique 164. The patient has a nasal bone deformity (saddle nose). Which tissue (transplant) is to be used to eliminate such deformity: A) bone B) fascia C) fatty tissue D) de-epidermalized dermis E) cartilage 165. The following is not used for contour plastic surgery: A) fatty tissue B) de-epidermalized dermis C) cartilage D) bone E) titanic implant 166. What is dysostosis: A) defective development of the nervous tissue B) defective vascularization C) defective development of the muscle tissue D) defective ossification E) defective odontogenesis 167. What is the name of maxillary sinus bottom lifting operation: A) maxillary sinusotomy B) resection C) maxillary sinus punction D) hemisection E) sinus lift 168. The purpose of the sinus lifting operation: A) preservation of the maxillar molars B) removal of polyps C) creation of conditions for the dental implants to be placed D) increase the pneumatization of the maxillary sinus E) genyantritis treatment 169. What is the source of nutrition for the autografts after their transplantation for alveolar ridge reconstruction: A) the transplant vessels B) saliva and the neighboring tooth pulp C) the neighboring tooth pulp D) the bone and periosteum of the host bone bed E) saliva 170. Which one can be used instead of missing tissue: A) allograft B) xenograft C) alloplast D) implant E) graft 171. Which kind of transplantation is called xenograft: A) synthetic tissue transplantation B) all answers are correct C) tissue which is taken from same species but different genes D) tissue which is taken from different kind of animals E) tissue which is transplanting from one site to other site of same person 172. Tissue transplantation from one site to other site of same person is called: A) isotransplantation B) xenotransplantation C) all answers are correct D) allotransplantation E) autotransplantation 173. Which variant is synonym of heterogenic transplantation: A) all answers are correct B) isogenic transplantation C) allogeneic transplantation D) autogenous transplantation E) xenotransplantation 174. Which variant is synonym of homogenic transplantation: A) all answers are correct B) allotransplantation C) xenotransplantation D) autotransplantation E) isotransplantation 175. Which kind of bone grafting in first phase of osteogenesis produces living cells: A) autogen,alloplast B) alloplast,allogen C) all answers are incorrect D) autogen, allogen E) allogen,xenogen 176. What is called tissue transplantation in same species but different genesis: A) isogen B) alloplast C) allogenetic D) xenogen E) autogenous 177. What is the name of tissue transplantation from different animals: A) alloplast B) autogen C) isogen D) allogen E) xenogen 178. Usually which pair of ribs are using in bone grafting: A) 5,6,7 B) 4,5,6 C) 7,8,9 D) 3,4,5 E) 1,2,3 179. Complication oflocal flap reconstruction: A) divergence of edges of a wound B) necrosis of pedicle flaps C) inflammation of the wound D) necrosis of triangular flaps E) all of the above necrosis 180. Local complication of pedicle flap plastic surgery: A) neuritis B) all answers are incorrect C) necrosis D) myozit E) diplopia 181. Local complication of pedicle flap plastic surgery: A) neuritis B) all answers C) diplopia D) myozit E) hematoma 182. Local complication of pedicle flap plastic surgery: A) all answers are incorrect B) neuritis C) diplopia D) inflammation E) myozit 183. Which type of treatment carried out in violation of the blood supply to the flap on pedicle: A) hydromassage B) a pressure bandage C) elctrocoagulation D) kriotherapy E) physiotherapy 184. What is include minimum antigen: A) bone B) skin C) fatt tissue D) myocardium E) cartillage 185. Which one is the best allograft: A) skin B) bone C) muscle D) fassia E) cartillage 186. Which changes can occur in transplantatedcartillage bed: A) ossification B) quickly regeneration C) osseointegration D) regeneration and resorption will not occur E) resorption will occur 187. Applying of foreign body in human organism by means of anatomic,functional and esthetic reconstruction is called: A) homotransplantation B) autotransplantation C) implantation D) heterotransplantation E) allotransplantation 188. On which principle is Limberg surgical operation based: A) formation of triangular flap from lip B) preparation of moving flap C) transplantation of triangle flap D) formation of bridge-shaped flap E) reciprocal transplantation of triangle flap 189. Optimal daily incremental distance in the bone destruction of jaws: A) 2 mm in a week B) 1 mm in two days C) 3 mm per a day D) 1 mm per a day E) 2 mm per a day 190. Which osteotomy method is mostly used in orthognathic surgery of maxillary ramus: A) Bezrukov method B) Tesse method C) Caldwell-Luc method D) Plotnikov method E) Obwegeser method 191. Which type of transplant is considered to be optimal in the reconstruction of mandible: A) autotransplant taken from parietal bone B) autotransplant taken from iliac crest C) autotransplanttaken from thigh-bone D) autotransplanttaken from fibularon vascular pedicle E) autotransplanttaken from rib 192. Which layer of skin is used in the independent skin implant: A) complete layer of skin B) one layer of skin C) subcutaneous layer D) epidermis E) one complete layer of skin 193. This scientist studied the plastic surgery with mutual triangular slices: A) Khitrov B) Michelson C) Raver D) Evdukimov E) Limberg 194. This is osseointegration of implant: A) integration of implant to bone B) local resurrection of implant to bone tissue C) presence of fibrosis tissue between bone and implant D) strong combination of implant E) close contact of implant with newly formed bone tissue 195. Two-phased implantation is carried out for the following purpose (during following case) : A) in order to reduce the trauma B) in order to obtain osseointegration C) for the purpose of improvement of functional effectiveness D) in order to prevent fibrosis integration E) inpoor regeneration of bone tissue 196. According to new classification of International Health Organization, implantation refers to: A) heterotransplantation B) isotransplantation C) autotransplantation D) explantation E) allotransplantation 197. Explantation is called as follows for reconstructive restoration of tooth rows: A) heterotransplantation B) isotransplantation C) autotransplantation D) replantation E) implantation 198. According to the feature of adaptation to bone, these implants refer to biotolerant materials: A) glass ceramics B) three -calcium phosphate C) stainless steel, cobalt-chromium concentration D) aluminum oxide ceramics E) nickelide titanium 199. According to the feature of adaptation to bone, these materials have bioinert properties: A) tricalcium phosphate B) stainless steel C) cobalt-chromium concentration D) aluminum oxide ceramics, carbon, titanium, nickelidetitanium E) hydroxyapatite 200. According to the feature of adaptation to bone, these implant materials are considered biactive: A) carbon, titanium B) nickelide titanium, stainless steel C) stainless steel, aluminum oxide D) tricalcium phosphate, hydroxyapatite, glass ceramics E) cobalt-chromium concentration, carbon