Aircraft Maintenance Reviewer Sheet PDF

AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE REVIEWER SHEET b. An embossed letter ‘HP’ c. An embossed letter ‘H’ 12. The purpose of a relief system val...

AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE REVIEWER SHEET b. An embossed letter ‘HP’ c. An embossed letter ‘H’ 12. The purpose of a relief system valve in a brake Aircraft Landing Gear System assembly system is to 1. Excessive wear in the shoulder area of an aircraft tire a. Reduce pressure for break application is an indication of b. Prevent the tire from skipping a. Overinflation c. Compensate for the thermal expansion b. Excessive toe-in 13. In shock struts, chevron seals are used to c. Underinflation a. Absorb bottoming effect 2. How long should you wait after a flight before b. Prevent oil from escaping checking tire pressure? c. serve as a bearing surface a. At least 2 hours (3 hours in hot weather) 14. The left brake is dragging excessively on an airplane b. At least 3 hours (4 hours in hot weather) on which no recent brake service work has been c. At least 4 hours (5 hours in hot weather) performed. The most probable cause is. 3. Aside from an external leak in the line, what will a. Foreign particles stuck in the master cylinder cause parking brakes to continually bleed off compensating port. pressure? b. Excessively worn brake linings. a. An internal leak in the master cylinder c. Low fluid supply in the brake system reservoir. b. Insufficient hydraulic fluid in the reservoir 15. A stripe or mark applied to a wheel rim and c. Glazed brake linings extending onto the sidewall of a tube-type tire is a 4. The purpose of an orifice check valve is to a. Slippage mark. a. Relieve pressure to a sensitive component b. Wheel-to-tire balance mark b. Restrict flow in one direction and allow free c. Wheel weight reference mark flow in the other 16. Chines are used on some aircraft nose wheel tire to c. Relieve pressure in one direction and prevent help flow in the other direction a. Nose gear extension at higher air speeds. 5. Aircraft brakes requiring a large volume of fluid to b. Reduce the possibility of hydroplaning. operate the brakes generally c. Deflecting water away from the fuselage. a. Use independent master cylinder systems 17. An electric motor used to raise and lower a landing b. Do not use brake system accumulators gear would most likely be a c. Use power brake control valves a. Shunt field series-wound motor. 6. Lockout deboosters are primarily pressure reducing b. Split field shunt-wound motor. valves that c. Split field series-wound motor. a. Allow full debooster piston travel without 18. What device in a hydraulic system with a constant- fluid from the high pressure side entering the delivery pump allows circulation of the fluid no low pressure chamber demands are on the system? b. Cannot allow full debooster piston travel a. Pressure relief valve. without fluid from the high pressure side b. Shuttle valve entering the low pressure chamber c. Pressure regulator c. Must be bled separately after brake bleeding has 19. A hydraulic system referred to as a ‘power pack’ been completed system will 7. What would be the effect if the piston return spring a. Have an engine-driven pump for greater broke in a brake master cylinder? pressure a. The brakes would become spongy b. Have all hydraulic power components located b. The brake would become excessive in one cucuit. c. The brakes would drag c. Have a pressurized reservoir. 8. What type of valve is used in the brake actuating line 20. What is the purpose of the torque links attached to to isolate the emergency brake system from the the cylinder and piston of a landing gear oleo strut? normal power brake control valve system? a. Limit compression stroke. a. A bypass valve b. Hold the strut in place. b. An orifice check valve c. Maintain correct wheel alignment. c. A shuttle valve 21. Debooster valves are used in brake system primarily 9. Instructions concerning the type of fluid and amount to of air pressure to be put in a shock strut are found a. Ensure rapid application and release of the a. On the airplane data plate brakes. b. In the aircraft operations limitations b. Reduce brake pressure and maintains static c. In the aircraft manufacturer’s service pressure. manual c. Reduce the pressure and release the brakes 10. The metering pin in oleo shock struts serve to rapidly. a. Lock the struts in the DOWN position. 22. In brakes service work, the term ‘bleeding brakes’ is b. Retard the flow of oil as the struts are the process of: composed. a. Withdrawing air only from the system. c. Meter the proper amount of air in struts. b. Withdrawing fluid from the system for the 11. On an air valve core stem, what indicates high- purpose of removing air that has entered the pressure type? system. a. An embossed letter ‘NP’ c. Replacing small amounts of fluid in reservoir. 23. Extension of an oleo shock strut is measured to 32. If the extended longitudinal axis of the main landing determine the: gear wheel assemblies in intersects aft of the aircraft, a. Amount of oil in the strut. the wheels can be termed as having b. Physical condition of the strut itself. a. Toe-out c. Proper operating position of the strut. b. Toe- in 24. Many brake types can be adapted to operate c. Negative amber mechanically or hydraulically. Which type is not 33. An O-ring intended for use in a hydraulic system adaptable to mechanical operation? using MIL-H5606 (mineral base) fluid will be a. Single-disk spot type. marked with b. Single-servo type. a. A blue striper or dot c. Expander-tube type. b. one or more white dots. 25. Debooster cylinders are used in brake systems c. A white and yellow stripe. primarily to: 34. When an empty shock strut is filled with fluid, care a. Reduce brake pressure and maintain static should be ta to extend and compress the strut pressure. completely at least two times to b. Relieve excessive fluid and ensure a positive a. Thoroughly lubricate the piston rod release. b. Force out any excess fluid c. Reduce the pressure to the brake and c. Ensure proper packing ring sealing and increase the volume of fluid flow. removal of air bubbles. 26. What condition would most likely cause excessive 35. When installing a chevron-type seal in an aircraft fluctuation of the pressure gauge when the hydraulic hydraulic cylinder, the open side of the seal should pump is operating? face a. Accumulator air pressure low a. Opposite direction of fluid pressure b. Inadequate supply of fluid b. Up or forward when the unit is installed in a c. System relief valve sticking closed horizontal position. 27. If an airplane equipped with master cylinders and c. The direction of fluid pressure. single-disk brake pedal travel, but the brakes are 36. Internal leakage in a brake master cylinder unit can hard and effective, the probable cause is cause a. The master cylinder one-way cup is leaking a. Fading brakes b. Worn brake linings b. Slow release of brakes c. Worn brake disk causing excessive clearance c. The pedal to slowly creep down while pedal between the notches on the perimeter of the disk pressure is applied. and the splines or keys on the wheel 37. Why do most aircraft tire manufacturers recommend 28. A flexible hydraulic hose identified as MIL-H-8788 that the tubes in newly installed tire must be first will have a stripe running the length of the hose. The inflated, fully deflated and the re-inflated to the stripe correct pressure? a. Is used to ensure that the hose is installed a. To allow the tube to position itself correctly without excessive twisting inside the tire. b. Identifies that the hose is for high pressure b. To eliminate all the air between the tube and the fluids, with a 60 degree flexing range inside of the tire c. Identifies that the hose is constructed of Teflon c. To test the entire assembly leaks and is suitable for a wide temperature range 38. Exposure to and/or storage near which of the 29. An automatic damping action at the steering damper following is considered harmful to the aircraft tires? if for any reason the flow of high-pressure fluid is 1. Humidity 5. Helium removed from the 2. Fuel 6. Electrical equipment a. Outlet of the steering damper 3. Oil 7. Hydraulic fluid b. Inlet of the steering damper 4. Ozone 8. Solvents c. Replenishing check valve 30. A brake debooster valve is installed in systems a. 2,3,4,5,6,7,8 where the high pressure of the hydraulic system (300 b. 1,2,3,5,7,8 psi) is used to operate brakes c. 2,3,4,6,7,8 a. That are designed to work with lower 39. What action of any, should be taken when there is a pressure difference of more than 5 pounds of air pressure in b. That are used in conjunction with an antiskid tires mounted as duals? system a. Replace both tires c. That are used on aircraft having high landing b. Correct the discrepancy and enter in the speeds aircraft records 31. The repair of an out-of-tolerance toe-in condition of c. Replace the tire with the lowest pressure main landing gear wheels determined not to be the 40. Excessive wear in the center of the tread of an result of bent or twisted components consists of aircraft tire is an indication of a. Shimming the axle in the oleo trunnion a. Incorrect camber b. Inserting, removing, or changing the location b. Excessive toe-out of washers or spacers at the center pivotal c. Over inflation point of the scissors torque links 41. How can it be determined that all air has been c. Placing shims or spacers behind the bearing of purged from a master cylinder brake system? the out-of-tolerance wheel or wheels.  a. By operating a hydraulic unit and watching the b. As a safety precaution in case the bolts that system pressure gauge for smooth, full- scale hold the wheel halves together have been deflection. damaged or weakened. b. By noting whether the brake is firm or c. To remove the static load imposed upon the spongy wheel bearing by the inflated tire. c. By noting the amount of fluid return to the 51. Nose gear centering cams are used in many master cylinder upon brake release. retractable landing gear systems. The primary 42. After performing maintenance of an aircraft’s purpose of the centering device is to: landing gear system which may have affected the a. Align the nosewheel prior to touchdown. system’s operation, it usually necessary to b. Engage the nosewheel steering. a. Conduct a flight test. c. Center the nosewheel before it enters the b. Re-inspected the area after the first flight. wheel well. c. Make an operational check with the aircraft on 52. A sleeve, spacer, or bumper ring is incorporated in a jacks landing gear oleo shock strut to: 43. What is the purpose of compensating port or valve in a. Limit the extension of the torque arm. a brake master cylinder of an independent brake b. Limit the extension stroke. system? c. Reduce the rebound effect. a. Permits the fluid flow toward or away from 53. A pilot reports the right brake on an aircraft is the reservoir as temperature changes. spongy when the brake pedal is depressed in a b. Assists in the master cylinder piston return. normal manner. The probable cause is: c. Prevents fluid from flowing back to the a. The hydraulic master cylinder piston is sticking. reservoir. b. Air in the brake hydraulic system. 44. A filter incorporating specially treated cellulose c. The hydraulic master cylinder piston return paper is identified as a spring is weak. a. Sediment trap 54. A special bolt in a landing gear attachment requires a b. Cuno filter torque value of 440 inch-pounds. How many foot- c. Micronic filter pounds are required? 45. A landing gear positon and warning system will a. 36.8 provide a warning in the cockpit when throttle is b. 38 a. Retarded and gear is not down and locked. c. 36.6 b. Advanced and gear is down and locked. 55. If a brake debooster is used in a hydraulic brake c. Retarded and gear is down and locked. system, its position in the system will be: a. Between the pressure manifold of the main hydraulic system and the power brake control 46. The hydraulic packing seal used in a landing gear valve. shock strut are b. Between the brake control valve and the a. Generally designed to be compatible with more brake actuating cylinder. than one type of fluid. c. In the brake pressure line between the brake b. Keep from direct contact with fluid Teflon or pedal and the brake accumulator. nylon back up rings. 56. Which statement is true with respect to an aircraft c. Used only with a specific type of fluid. equipped with hydraulically operated multiple-disk 47. The best safeguards against heat buildup in aircraft type brake assemblies? tires are a. There are no minimum or maximum disk a. Proper tire inflation, minimum braking, and clearance checks required due to the use of self- ground rolls into the wind compensating cylinder assemblies. b. Short ground rolls, sloe taxi speeds, minimum b. Do not set parking brake when brakes are braking and proper tire inflation hot. c. Minimum braking, proper tire inflation, and c. No parking brake provisions are possible for this long ground rolls. type of brake assembly. 48. The removal, installation, and repair of landing gear 57. What is one effect a restricted compensator port of a tires by the holder of a private pilot certificate on an master cylinder will have on a brake system? aircraft owned or operated is considered to be a. The brakes will operate normally. a. A violation of the Federal Aviation Regulations b. The reservoir will be filled by revers flow. b. A minor repair c. The restriction will cause slow release of the c. Preventive maintenance brakes. 49. What is the function of a cam incorporated in a nose 58. On all aircraft equipped with retractable landing landing gear shock strut? gear, some means must be provided to: a. Provides an internal shimmy damper a. Retract and extend the landing gear if the b. Straightens the nose wheel normal operating mechanism fails. c. Provides steering of aircraft during ground b. Extend the landing gear if the normal operation. operating mechanism fails. 50. Why do tire and wheel manufacturers often c. Prevent the throttle from being reduced below a recommended that the tires on split rim wheels be safe power setting while the landing gear is deflated before removing the wheel from the axle? retracted. a. To relive the strain on the wheel retaining nut 59. Overinflated aircraft tires may cause damage to the: and axle threads. a. Brake linings.  b. Wheel hub. c. Releasing the air and seeing that the oil is the c. Wheel flange. level of the filler plug. 60. When servicing an air/oil shock strut with MIL-5606 71. The braking action of a Cleveland disk brake is the strut should be: accomplished by compressing a rotating brake disk a. Collapsed and fluid added at the filler between two opposite brake linings. How is equal opening. pressure on both sides of the rotating disk assured? b. Fully extended and fluid added at the filler a. By allowing the brake rotor to float to opening. automatically equalize as pressure is applied to c. Partially extended and fluid added at the filler the rotor. opening. b. By allowing the caliper to float to 61. Aircraft tire pressure should be checked: automatically equalize as pressure is applied a. Using only a push on stick-type gauge having 1- to the rotor. pound increments. c. By allowing the brake linings to automatically b. At least once a week or more often. equalize as pressure is applied to the rotor. c. As soon as possible after each flight. 72. If a shock strut bottoms after it has been properly 62. A pilot reports that the brake pedals have excessive serviced, the travel. A probable cause is: a. Strut should be disassembled and the metering a. Weak return springs. pin orifice plate replaced. b. Lack of fluid in the brake system. b. Air pressure should be increased. c. Oil or some foreign matter on the brake rotors c. Strut should be removed, disassembled, and and linings. inspected. 63. What should be checked when a shock strut bottoms 73. Power boost brake systems are used on aircraft that during a landing? have: a. Air pressure. a. High landing speeds. b. Packing seals for correct installation. b. Low normal hydraulic system pressure. c. Fluid level. c. More than one brake assembly per axle. 64. The primary purpose for balancing aircraft wheel 74. The pressure source for power brakes is: assemblies is to: a. The main hydraulic system. a. Prevent heavy spots and reduce vibration. b. The power brake reservoir. b. Distribute the aircraft weight properly. c. A master cylinder. c. Reduce excessive wear and turbulence. 75. A high-speed aircraft tire with a sound cord body 65. A fully-charged hydraulic accumulator provides: and bead may be recapped a. Air pressure to the various hydraulic a. A maximum of three times. components. b. Only by the tire manufacturer. b. A source for additional hydraulic power c. An indefinite number of times. when heavy demands are place on the system. 76. When an air/oil type of landing gear shock strut is c. Positive fluid flow to the pump inlet. used, the initial shock of landing shock of landing is 66. The correct inflation pressure for an aircraft tire can cushioned by: be obtained from: a. Compression of the air charge. a. Tire manufacturer’s specifications. b. The fluid being forced through a metered b. The aircraft service manual. opening. c. The information stamped on the aircraft wheel. c. Compression of the fluid. 67. When a properly operating fusible plug has allowed 77. To prevent a very rapid extension of an oleo shock a tire to deflate, the tire should be: strut after initial compression resulting from landing a. Replaced. impact, b. Externally inspected for damage. a. Various types of valves or orifices are used c. Removed from the wheel and inspected for which restrict the reverse fluid flow. carcass and tread damage. b. The metering pin gradually reduces the size of 68. If it is determined that spongy brake action is not the orifice as the shock strut extends. caused by air in the brake system, what is the next c. The air is forced through a restricted orifice in most likely cause? the reverse direction. a. Worn brake lining. 78. The purpose of a sequence valve in a hydraulic b. Internal leakage in the master cylinder. retractable landing gear system is to: c. Deteriorated flexible hoses. a. Prevent heavy landing gear from falling too 69. If an aircraft shock strut (air/oil type) bottoms upon rapidly upon extension. initial landing contact, but functions correctly during b. Provide a means of disconnecting the normal taxi, the most probable cause is: source of hydraulic power and connection the a. Low fluid. emergency source of power. b. Low air charge. c. Ensure the operation of the landing gear and c. A restricted metering pin orifice. gear doors in the proper order. 70. On most aircraft, the oil level of an air and oil shock 79. When bleeding aircraft brakes, one of the indications strut is check by: that the air has been purged from the system is: a. Removing the oil filler plug and inserting a a. Partial brake pedal travel. gauge. b. Full brake pedal travel. b. Measuring the length of the strut extension with c. Firm brake pedals. a certain air pressure in the strut.  78. The fusible plugs installed in some aircraft wheels a. Water soluble oil will: b. Water displacing oil a. Indicate tire tread separation. c. Water only b. Prevent over inflation. 9. What is indicated by a black ‘smoky’ residue c. Melt at a specified elevated temperature. streaming back from some of the rivets on an aircraft? a. The rivets were excessively work hardened Sheetmetal & Non-Sheetmetalic Structure during installation 1. (1) When performing a ring (coin tap) test on b. Exfoliation corrosion is occurring inside the composite structure, a change in sound may be due structure to damage or to transition to a different internal c. Fretting corrosion is occurring between the structure rivets and the skin (2) The extent of separation damage in composite 10. What type of bit should be used to drill holes in structures is most accurately measured by a ring Plexiglas? (coin tap) test a. A standard twist drill Regarding the above statements, b. A specially modified twist drill a. Both No.1 and No.2 are true c. A dulled twist drill b. Only No.1 is true 11. What precaution, if any, should be taken to prevent c. Only No.2 is true corrosion inside a repaired metal honeycomb 2. Clad aluminum alloys are used in aircraft because structure? they a. Prime the repair with a corrosion inhibitor a. Can be heat treated much easier than the other and seal from the atmosphere forms of aluminum b. Paint the outside area with several coats of b. Are less subject to corrosion than uncoated exterior paint aluminum alloys c. None. Honeycomb is usually made from a man- c. Are stronger than unclad aluminum alloys made or fibrous material which is not 3. A well-designed rivet joint will subject the rivets to susceptible to corrosion a. Compressive loads 12. Mild steel rivets are used for riveting b. Shear loads a. Nickel-steel parts c. Tension loads b. Magnesium parts 4. If a streamline cover plate is to be hand formed using c. Steel parts a form block, a piece of dead soft aluminum should 13. A main difference between Lockbolt/Huckbolt first be placed over the hollow portion of the mold tension and shear fasteners (other than their and securely fastened in place. The bumping application) is in the operation should be a. Number of locking collar grooves a. Distributed evenly over the face of the b. Shape of the head aluminum at all times rather than being started c. Method of installation at the edges or center. 14. What is the minimum spacing for a single row of b. Started by tapping the aluminum lightly aircraft rivets? around the edges and gradually working a. Two times the diameter of the rivet shank down into the center b. Three times the length of the rivet shank c. Started by tapping the aluminum in the center c. Three times the diameter of the rivet shank until it touches the bottom of the mold and then 15. The coefficient of expansion of most plastic working out in all directions enclosure materials is 5. If it is necessary to compute a bend allowance a. Greater than both steel and aluminum problem and bend allowance tables are not available, b. Greater than steel but less than aluminum the neutral axis of the bend can be c. Less than either steel or aluminum a. Represented by the actual length of the required 16. What should be the included angle of a twist drill for material for the bend soft metals? b. Found by adding approximately one-half of a. 118° the thickness to the bend radius b. 90° c. Found by subtracting the stock thickness from c. 65° the bend radius 17. Which part of the 2017-T36 aluminum alloy 6. The sight line on a sheet metal flat layout to be bent designation indicates the primary alloying agent used in a cornice or box brake is measured and marked in its manufacture? a. One-half radius from either bend tangent line a. 2 b. One radius from either bend tangent line b. 17 c. One radius from the bend tangent line that is c. 20 placed under the brake 18. Rivet gauge, or transverse pitch is the distance 7. On a sheet metal fitting layout with a single bend, between the allow for stretching by a. Centers of rivets in adjacent rows a. Adding the setback to each leg b. Centers of adjacent rivets in the same row b. Subtracting the setback from one leg c. Heads of rivets in the same row c. Subtracting the setback from both legs 19. Which statement is true regarding a cantilever wing? 8. When necessary, what type of cutting fluid is usually a. It has nonadjustable lift struts acceptable for machining composite laminates? b. No external bracing is needed  c. It requires only one lift strut on each side 30. Which rivet may be used as received without further 20. Fiberglass damage that extends completely through a treatment? laminated sandwich structure a. 2024-T4 a. May be repaired b. 2117-T3 b. Must be filled with resin to eliminate dangerous c. 2017-T3 stress concentrations 31. Cabin upholstery materials installed in current c. May be filled with putty which is compatible standard category airplanes must with resin a. Be fireproof 21. Threaded rivets (Rivnuts) are commonly used to b. Be at least flame resistant a. Join two or more pieces of sheet metal where c. Meet the requirements prescribed in Part 43 shear strength is desired 32. A rivet set used to drive MS20470 rivets should b. Attach parts or components with screws to a. Have the same radius as the rivet head sheet metal b. Have a slightly greater radius than the rivet c. Join two or more pieces of sheet metal where head bearing strength is desired c. Be nearly flat on the end, with a slight radius on 22. What should be the included angle of a twist drill for the edge to prevent damage to the sheet being hard metal? riveted a. 118° 33. The general rule for finding the proper rivet dimeter b. 100° is c. 90° a. Three times the thickness of the materials to be 23. When repairing a small hole on a metal stressed skin, joined the major consideration in the design of the patch b. Two times the rivet length should be c. Three times the thickness of the thickest sheet a. The shear strength of the riveted joint 34. MS20426AD-6-5 indicates a countersunk rivet b. To use rivet spacing similar to a seam in the skin which has c. That the bond between the patch and the skin is a. A shank length of 5/16 inch (excluding head) sufficient to prevent dissimilar metal corrosion b. A shank length 5/32 inch (excluding head) 24. A factor which determines the minimum space c. An overall length of 5/16 inch between rivets is the 35. Superficial scars, scratches, surface abrasion, or rain a. Length of the rivets being used erosion on fiberglass laminates can generally be b. Diameter of the rivets being used repaired by applying c. Thickness of the material being riveted a. A piece of resin-impregnated glass fabric facing 25. What is the material layer used within the vacuum b. One or more coats of suitable resin (room- bag pressure system to absorb excess resin during temperature catalyzed) to the surface curing called? c. A sheet of polyethylene over the abraded surface a. Bleeder and one or more coats of resin cured with b. Breather infrared heat lamps c. Release 36. Fiberglass laminate damage that extends completely 26. If a new safety belt is to be installed in an aircraft, through one facing and into the core the belt must conform to the strength requirements in a. Cannot be repaired which documents? b. Requires the replacement of the damaged core and facing a. STC 1282 c. Can be repaired by using a typical metal facing b. 14 CFR Part 39 patch c. TSO C22 37. When straightening members made of 2024-T4, you 27. What is one of the determining factors which permit should machine countersinking when flush riveting? a. Straighten cold and reinforce a. Thickness of the material and rivet diameter are b. Straighten cold and anneal to remove stress the same c. Apply heat to the inside of the bend b. Thickness of the material is less than the 38. The classification for high tensile strength fiberglass thickness of the rivet head used in aircraft structure is c. Thickness of the material is greater than the a. E-glass thickness of the rivet head b. S-glass 28. When balsa wood is used to replace a damaged c. G-glass honeycomb core, the plug should be cut so that 39. Repairs o splices involving stringers on the lower a. The grain is parallel to the skin surface of stressed skin metal wings are usually b. It is about 1/8 inch undersize to allow sufficient a. Not permitted bonding material to be applied b. Permitted only if the damage does not exceed 6 c. The grain is perpendicular to the skin inches in any direction 29. Under certain conditions, type a rivets are not used c. Permitted but are normally more critical in because of their reference to strength in tension than similar a. Low strength characteristics repairs to the upper surface b. High alloy content 40. Which is correct concerning the use of a file? c. Tendency toward embrittlement when subjected a. Apply pressure on the forward stroke, only, to vibration except when filing very soft metals such as lead or aluminum  b. A smoother finish can be obtained by using a 51. The installation of Cherrymax and Olympic-lok double-cut file than by using a single-cut file rivets is accomplished by utilizing c. The terms ’double-cut’ and ‘second-cut’ have a. Rivet gun, special rivet set, and bucking bar the same meaning in reference to files b. A pulling tool 41. The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a stud, c. Ordinary hand tools grommet, and receptacle. The stud diameter is 52. Which is an identifying characteristic of acrylic measured in plastics? a. Tenths of an inch a. Zinc chloride will have no effect b. Hundredths of an inch b. Acrylic has a yellowish tint when viewed from c. Sixteenths of an inch the edge c. Acetone will soften plastic, but will change its 42. Heat-treated rivets in the D and DD series that are color not driven within the prescribed time after heat 53. The sharpest bend that can be placed in a piece of treatment or removal from refrigeration metal without critically weakening the part is called a. Must be reheat treated before use the b. Must be discarded a. Bend allowance c. May be returned to refrigeration and used later b. Minimum radius of bend without reheat treatment c. Maximum radius of bend 43. Parts fabricated from Alclad 2024-T3 aluminum 54. What is the most common method of cementing sheet stock must have all transparent plastics? a. Bends made with a small radius to develop a. Heat method maximum strength b. Soak method b. Bends 90° to the grain c. Bevel method c. Scratches, kinks, tool marks, nicks, etc., must 55. Which rivet is used for riveting nickel-steel alloys? be held to a minimum a. 2024-aluminum 44. Metal fasteners used with carbon/graphite composite b. Mild steel structures c. Monel a. May be constructed of any of the metals 56. If an aircraft’s transparent plastic enclosures exhibit commonly used in aircraft fasteners fine cracks which may extend in a network over or b. Must be constructed of material such as under the surface or through the plastic, the plastic is titanium or corrosion resistant steel said to be c. Must be constructed of high strength aluminum- a. Hazing lithium alloy b. Brinelling 45. The part of a replacement honeycomb core that must c. Crazing line up with the adjacent original is the 57. Which of the following drill bit types work best a. Cell side when drilling an aramid fiber (Kevlar©) composite b. Ribbon direction laminate? c. Cell edge a. Tool steel with standard grind 46. Longitudinal (fore and aft) structural members of a b. Diamond dust coated semi-monocoque fuselage are called c. Carbide W-point a. Spars and ribs 58. The purpose of a joggle is to b. Longerons and stringers a. Allow clearance for a sheet an extrusion c. Spars and stringers b. Increase obstruction for a sheet or an extrusion 47. When drilling stainless steel, the drill used should c. Decrease the weight of the part and still retain have an included angle of the necessary strength a. 90° and turn at a low speed 59. What is the purpose of refrigerating 2017 and 2024 b. 118° and turn at a high speed aluminum alloy rivets after heat treatment? c. 140° and turn at a low speed a. To accelerate age hardening 48. What is the minimum edge distance for aircraft b. To relieve internal stresses rivets? c. To retard age hardening a. Two times the diameter of the rivet shank 60. Which fiber to resin (percent) ration for advanced b. Two times the diameter of the rivet head composite wet lay-ups is generally considered the c. Three times the diameter of the rivet shank best for strength? 49. The identifying marks on the heads of aluminum a. 40:60 alloy rivets indicate the b. 50:50 a. Degree of dimensional and process control c. 60:40 observed during manufacture 61. Sandwich panels made of metal honeycomb b. Head shape, shank size, material used, and construction ae used on modern aircraft because this specifications adhered to during manufacture type of construction c. Specific alloy used in the manufacture of the a. Has a high strength to weight ratio rivets b. May be repaired by gluing replacement skin to 50. A piece of sheet metal is bent to a certain radius. The the inner core material with thermoplastic resin curvature of the bend is referred to as the c. Is lighter than single sheet skin of the same a. Bend allowance strength and is more corrosion resistant b. Neutral line c. Bend radius 62. Which statement is true regarding the inspection of a a. Higher speed with less pressure applied to the stressed skin metal wing assembly known to have drill been critically loaded? b. Lower speed with more pressure applied to a. If rivets show no visible distortion, further the drill investigation is unnecessary c. Lower speed with less pressure applied to the b. If bearing failure has occurred, the rivet shanks drill will be joggled 72. How does acoustic emission testing detect defects in c. If genuine rivet tipping has occurred, groups composite materials? of consecutive rivet heads will be tipped in a. By picking up the ‘noise’ of any deterioration the same direction that may be present 63. The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a stud, b. By analyzing ultrasonic signals transmitted into grommet, and receptacle. The stud length is the parts being inspected measured in c. By creating sonogram pictures of the areas a. Hundredths of an inch being inspected b. Tenths of an inch c. Sixteenth of an inch 73. One of the best ways to assure that a properly 64. A piece of flat stock that is to be bent to a closed prepared batch of matrix resin has been achieved is angle of 15° must be bent through an angle of to a. 165° a. Perform a chemical composition analysis b. 105° b. Have mixed enough for a test sample c. 90° c. Test the viscosity of the resin immediately after 65. What is the purpose of a gusset or gusset plate used mixing in the construction and repair of aircraft structures? 74. If no scratches are visible after transparent plastic a. To hold structural members in position enclosure materials have been cleaned, their surfaces temporarily until the permanent attachment has should be been completed a. Polished with rubbing compound applied with a b. To provide access for inspection of structural damp cloth attachments b. Buffed with a clean, soft, dry cloth c. To join and reinforce intersecting structural c. Covered with a thin coat of wax members 75. The length of time that a catalyzed resin will remain 66. A sheet metal repair is to be made using two pieces in a workable state is called the of 0.0625-inch aluminum riveted together. All rivet a. Pot life holes are drilled for 1/8-inch rivets. The length of the b. Shelf life rivets to be used will be c. Service life a. 5/32 inch 76. Which is considered good practice concerning the b. 3/16 inch installation of acrylic plastics? c. 5/16 inch a. When nuts and bolts are used, the plastic should 67. When making repairs to fiberglass, cleaning of the be installed hot and tightened to a firm fit before area to be repaired is essential for a good bond. The the plastic cools final cleaning should be made using b. When rivets are used, adequate spacer or a. MEK (methyl ethyl ketone) other satisfactory means to prevent excessive b. Soap, water, and a scrub brush tightening of the frame to the plastic should c. A thixotropic agent be provided 68. What type loads cause the most rivet failures? c. When rivets or nuts and bolts are used, slotted a. Shear holes are not recommended b. Bearing 77. The primary alloying agent of 2024-T3 is indicated c. Head by the number 69. Aircraft structural units, such as spars, engine a. 2 supports, etc., which have been built up from sheet b. 20 metal, are normally c. 24 a. Repairable, using approved methods 78. How many of the following are benefits of using b. Repairable, except when subjected to microballoons when making repairs to laminated compressive loads honeycomb panels? c. Not repairable, but must be replaced when 1. Greater concentrations of resin in edges and damaged or deteriorated corners 70. Hole filling fasteners (for example, MS20470 rivets) 2. Improved strength to weight ratio should not be used in composite structures primarily 3. Less density because of the 4. Lower stress concentrations a. Possibility of causing delamination b. Increased possibility of fretting corrosion in the a. 2,3, and 4 fastener b. 1,2 and 4 c. Difficulty in forming a proper shop head c. All of the above 71. When comparing the machining techniques for 79. Alloy 2117 rivets are heat treated stainless steel sheet material to those for aluminum a. By the manufacturer and do not require heat alloy sheet, it is normally considered good practice treatment before being driven to drill the stainless steel at a  b. By the manufacturer but require reheat treatment a. filling with a putty consisting of a compatible before being driven resin and clean, short glass fibers. c. To a temperature of 910 to 930°F and quenched b. Sanding the damaged area until aerodynamic in cold water smoothness is obtained 80. One look of the main advantages of Hi-Lok type c. Trimming the rough edges and sealing with fasteners over earlier generations is that paint a. They can be removed and reused again 91. Most rivets used in aircraft construction have b. The squeezed can be installed with ordinary a. Dimples hand tools b. Smooth heads without markings c. They can be installed with ordinary hand c. A raised dot tools 92. Composite fabric material is considered to be the strongest in what direction? 81. The most important Factors needed to make a flat a. Fill pattern layout are b. Warp a. Radius, thickness, and mold line c. Bias b. Radius, thickness, and degree of bend 93. The markings on the head of a Dzus fastener identify c. The lengths of the legs (flat sections) the 82. A potted compound repair on honeycomb can a. Body diameter, type of head, and length of usually be made on damages less than the fastener a. 4 inches in diameter b. Body type, head diameter, and type of material b. 2 inches in diameter c. Manufacturer and type of material c. 1 inch in diameter 94. The strength and stiffness of a properly constructed 83. Shallow scratches in sheet metal may be repaired by composite buildup depends primarily on a. Burnishing a. A 60 percent matrix to 40 percent fiber ratio b. Buffling b. The orientation of the plies to the load c. Stop drilling direction 84. The monocoque fuselage relies largely on the c. The ability of the fibers to transfer stress to the strength of matrix a. Longerons and formers 95. When riveting dissimilar metals together, what b. Skin or covering precautions must be taken to prevent an electrolytic c. Bulkheads and longerons action? 85. You can distinguish between aluminum and a. Treat the surfaces to be riveted together with a aluminum alloy by process called anodic treatment a. Filing the metal b. Place a protective separator between areas of b. Testing with an acetic solution. potential electrical difference c. Testing with a 10 percent solution of caustic c. Avoid the use of dissimilar metals by soda redesigning the unit according to the 86. When bending metal, the material on the outside of recommendations outlined in AC 43.13-1A the curve stretches while the material on the inside of 96. A DD rivet is heat treated before use to the curve compresses. That part of the material a. Harden and increase strength which is not affected by either stress is the b. Relieve internal stresses a. Mold line c. Soften to facilitate riveting b. Bend tangent line 97. When a piece of aluminum alloy is to be bent using c. Neutral line minimum radius for the type and thickness of 87. How many MS20470 AD-4-6 rivets will be required material to attach a 10 x 5 inch plate, using a single row of a. The piece should be bent slowly to eliminate rivets, minimum edge distance and 4D spacing? cracking a. 56 b. The layout should be made so that the bend b. 54 will be 90° to the grain of the sheet c. 52 c. Less pressure than usual should be applied with 88. When installing transparent plastic enclosures which the movable (upper) clamping bar are retained by bolts extending through the plastic 98. Which of the following are generally characteristic material and self-locking nuts, the nuts should be of carbon/graphite fiber composites? a. Tightened to a firm fit, plus one full turn. 1. Flexibility b. Tightened to a firm fit, then backed off one 2. Stiffness full turn 3. High compressive strength c. Tightened to a firm 4. Corrosive effect in contact with aluminum 89. When repairing puncture-type damage of a metal 5. Ability to conduct electricity faced laminated honeycomb panel, the edges of the a. 1 and 3 doubler should be tapered to b. 2,3 and 4 a. Two times the thickness of the metal c. 1,3 and 5 b. 100 times the thickness of the metal 99. The classification for fiberglass reinforcement c. Whatever is desired for a neat, clean material that has high resistivity and is the most Appearance common is 90. Fiberglass laminate damage out exceeding the first a. E-glass layer or play can be repaired by b. S-glass  c. G-glass c. The minimum edge distance for the single row 100. When repairing large, flat surfaces with polyester is equal to that for the multiple row resins, warping of the surface is likely to occur. One 109. When an MS20470D rivet is installed, its full shear method of reducing the amount of warpage is to strength is obtained a. Add an extra amount of catalyst to the resin a. Only after a period of age hardening b. Use short strips of fiberglass in the bonded b. By the cold working of the rivet metal in forming repair a shop head c. Use less catalyst than normal so the repair will be c. By heat treating just prior to being driven more flexible 110. A single-lap sheet splice is to be used to repair a 101. Joggles in removed rivet shanks would indicate partial section of damaged aluminum skin. If a double row of a. Bearing failure 1/8-inch rivets is used, the minimum allowable b. Torsion failure overlap will be c. Shear failure a. ½ inch 102. The dimensions of an MS20430AD-4-8 rivet are b. ¾ inch a. 1/8 inch in diameter and ¼ inch long c. 13/16 inch b. 1/8 inch in diameter and1/2 inch long 111. The length of rivet to be chosen when making a c. 4/16 inch in diameter and 8/32 inch long structural repair that involves the joining of 0.032- 103. When inspecting a composite panel using the ring sheet, drilled with a No. 30 drill, is test/tapping method, a dull thud may indicate a. 7/16 inch a. Less than full strength curing of the matrix b. 5/16 inch b. Separation of the laminates c. ¼ inch c. An area of too much matrix between fiber layers 112. A sheet metal repair is to be made using two pieces of 104. Which of the following, when added to wet resins, 0.040-inch aluminum riveted together. All rivet holes provide strength for the repair of damaged fastener are drilled for 3/32-inch rivets. The length of the holes in composite panels? rivets to be used will be 1. Microballoons a. 1/8 inch 2. Flox b. ¼ inch 3. Chapped fibers c. 5/16 inch a. 2 and 3 113. Unless otherwise specified, the radius of a bend is the b. 1 and 3 a. Inside radius of the metal being formed c. 1,2, and 3 b. Inside radius plus one-half the thickness of the 105. Which procedure is correct when using a reamer to metal being formed finish a drilled hole to the correct size? c. Radius of the metal axis plus one-half the a. Turn the reamer in the cutting direction when thickness of the metal being formed enlarging the hole and in the opposite direction to 114. Which of the following need not be considered when remove from the hole determining minimum rivet spacing? b. Turn the reamer only in the cutting direction a. Rivet diameter c. Apply considerable pressure on the reamer when b. Rivet length starting the cut and reduce the pressure when c. Type of material being riveted finishing the cut 115. The preferred way to make permanent repairs on 106. Which part (s) of a semi-monocoque fuselage composites is by prevents (s) tension and compression from bending a. Bonding on metal or cured composite patches the fuselage? b. Riveting on metal or cured composite patches a. The fuselage covering c. Laminating on new repair plies b. Longerons and stringers c. Bulkhead and skin 107. What is generally the best procedure to use when removing a solid shank rivet? 116. Which of these methods may be used to inspect a. Drill through the manufactured head and shank fiberglass/ honeycomb structures for entrapped water? with a shank size drill and remove the rivet with a 1. Acoustic emission monitoring punch 2. X-ray b. Drill to the base of the manufactured rivet 3. Backlighting head with a drill one size smaller than the a. 1 and 2 rivet shank and remove the rivet with a punch b. 1 and 3 c. Drill through the manufactured head and shank c. 2 and 3 with a drill one size smaller than the rivet and 117. Which rivets should be selected to join two sheets of remove the rivet with a punch.032-inch aluminum? 108. What is the minimum edge distance allowed for a. MS20425D-4-3 aluminum alloy single lap sheet splices containing a b. MS20470AD-4-4 single row of rivets as compared to a joint with c. MS20455DD-5-3 multiple rows, all rivets being equal I diameter? 118. Select the alternative which best describes the a. The minimum edge distance for the single row is function of the flute section of a twist drill greater than that for the multiple row a. Provides a method for cooling oil to be delivered b. The minimum edge distance for the single row is to the cutting surface less than that for the multiple row b. Forms the area where the drill bit attaches to the drill motor  c. Forms the cutting edges of the drill point a. Restored strength and flexibility 119. Which of the following are generally characteristic of b. Improved wear resistance to the structure aramid fiber (Kevlar) composites? c. An unairworthy repair 1. High tensile strength 129. The aluminum alloys used in aircraft construction are 2. Flexibility usually hardened by which method? 3. Stiffness a. Cold-working 4. Corrosive effect in contact with aluminum b. Aging 5. Ability to conduct electricity c. Heat treatment a. 1 and 2 b. 2, 3 and 4 c. 1, 3 and 5 130. The shop head of a rivet should be 120. One method of inspecting a laminated fiberglass a. One and one-half times the diameter of the structure that has been subjected to damage is to rivet shank a. Strip the damaged area of all paint and shine b. One-half times the diameter of the rivet shank a strong light through the structure c. One and one-half times the diameter of the b. Use dye-penetrant inspection procedures, manufactured head of the rivet exposing the entire damaged area to the penetrant solution. Aircraft Fuel System c. Use an eddy current probe on both sides of the damaged are 1. To prevent vapor lock in fuel lines at high altitude, 121. The length of a rivet to be used to join a sheet of.032- some aircraft are equipped with: inch and.064-inch aluminum alloy should be equal to a. Vapor separators a. Two times the rivet diameter plus.064 inch b. Direct-injection type carburetors b. One and one-half times the rivet diameter plus c. Booster pumps.096 inch 2. (1) Gas-turbine engine fuel systems are very c. Three times the rivet diameter plus.096 inch susceptible to the formation of ice in the fuel filters. 122. Rivet pitch is the distance between the a. Centers of rivets in adjacent rows (2)A fuel heater operates as a heat exchanger to b. Centers of adjacent rivets in the same row warm the fuel. c. Heads of rivets in the same row Regarding the above statements, 123. A category of plastic material that is capable of a. Only no.1 is true softening or flowing when reheated is described as a b. Only no.2 is true a. Thermoplastic c. Both no.1 and no.2 are true b. Thermocure 3. What minimum required markings must be placed on c. Thermoset or near each appropriate fuel filler cover on utility 124. Which rivet is used for riveting magnesium alloy category aircraft? structures? a. The word ‘Avgas’ and the minimum fuel grade, a. Mild steel and the total fuel tank capacity. b. 5056 aluminum b. The word ‘Avgas’ and the minimum fuel grade or c. Monel designation for the engines, and the usable fuel tank 125. Proper pre-preg composite lay-up curing is generally capacity. accomplished by c. The word ‘Avgas’ and the minimum fuel grade. 1. Applying external heat 4. A fuel system must be designed to prevent fuel-vapor 2. Room temperature exposure ignition caused by: 3. Adding a catalyst or curing agent to the resin a. over-heating 4. Applying pressure b. back-fire a. 2 and 3 c. lightning b. 1 and 4 5. What are the four general types of fuel quantity c. 1, 2, and 4 gauges? 126. The flat layout or blank length of a piece of metal 1. Sight glass from which a simple L-shaped bracket 3 inches by 1 2. Mechanical inch is to be bent depends upon the radius of the 3. Electrical desired bend. The bracket which will require the 4. Electronic greatest amount of material is one which has a bend 5. Bourdon tube radius of 6. Vane-type transmitter a. 1/8 inch 7. Litmus indicator b. ½ inch 8. Direct-reading static pressure type c. ¼ inch a. 1,2,3,4 127. What reference tool is used to determine how the fiber b. 1,3,6,8 is to be oriented for a particular ply of fabric? c. 2,3,5,7 a. Fill clock (or compass) 6. Which of the following is employed to maintain lateral b. Bias clock (or compass) stability when jettisoning fuel? c. Warp clock (or compass) a. Two separate independent systems 128. Repairing advanced composites using materials and b. Crossfeed system techniques traditionally used for fiberglass repairs is c. Two interconnected systems likely to result in 7. Flapper valves are used in fuel tanks to:  a. reduce pressure b. By adding a knock enhancer. b. prevent a negative pressure c. By adding a fungicide agent. c. act as check valves 19. What type of remote-reading fuel quantity indicating 8. A drip gauge may be used to measure: system has several probes installed in each fuel tank? a. the amount of fuel in the tank a. Electromechanical b. system leakage with the system shutdown b. Electronic c. fuel pump diaphragm leakage c. Direct reading 9. The use of turbine fuels in aircraft has resulted in some 20. When moving the mixture control on a normally problems not normally associated with aviation operating engine into the idle cutoff position, engine gasolines. One of these problem is RPM should a. increasing viscosity of fuel as fuel temperature a. Slightly increase before the engine starts to die. lowers at altitude. b. Slightly decrease and then drop rapidly. b. higher vapor pressure. c. Remain the same Until the cutoff is effected, then c. microbial contaminants. drop rapidly. 10. Entrained water in aviation turbine fuel is a hazard 21. Which of the following would be most useful to locate because of its susceptibility to freezing as it passes and troubleshoot an internal fuel leak in an aircraft fuel through the filters. What are common methods of system? preventing this hazard? a. Aircraft structure repair manual. a. micromesh fuel strainers and fuel heater. b. Illustrated parts manual. b. high-velocity fuel pumps and fuel heater. c. A fuel system schematic. c. anti-icing fuel additives and fuel heater. 22. What is the purpose of flapper-type check valves in 11. Aircraft defueling should be accomplished integral fuel tanks? a. With the aircraft’s communication equipment on and a. To allow defueling of the tanks by section in contact with the tower in case of fire. b. To prevent fuel from flowing away from the b. In a hangar where activities can be controlled. boost pumps. c. In the open air for good ventilation. c. To allow the engine-driven pumps to draw fuel 12. A fuel temperature indicator is located in the fuel tanks directly from the tank if the boost pump fails. on some turbine-powered airplanes to tell when the 23. What flight safety-related advantage does a pressure fuel may be: fueling system provide? a. Getting cold enough to form hard ice. a. Keeps the aircraft within weight and balance b. In danger of forming ice crystals. limitations. c. About to form rime ice. b. Reduces the chances for fuel contamination. 13. (1) A fuel pressure relief valve is required on an c. Reduces the time required for fueling. aircraft positive-displacement fuel pump. 24. What type of fuel-booster pump requires a pressure (2) A fuel pressure relief valve is required on an relief valve? aircraft centrifugal fuel boost pump. a. Concentric Regarding the above statements, b. Sliding vane a. Only no.1 is true c. Centrifugal b. Only no.2 is true 25. A fuel totalizer is a component which indicates the: c. Both no.1 and no.2 are true a. Total amount of fuel being consumed by all engines. 14. The electronic-type fuel quantity indicating system b. Amount of fuel in any given tank. consists of a bridge circuit, c. Amount of fuel in all tanks. a. An amplifier, an indicator, and a tank unit. 26. As a general rule, which statement is true regarding b. A tank, an amplifier, and an indicator fuel leaks? c. A tank unit, a tank, and an amplifier a. Stains, seeps, and heavy seeps are not flight hazards. 15. What precautions must be observed if a gravity-feed b. All fuel leaks regardless of location or severity are fuel system is permitted to supply fuel to an engine considered a hazard to flight. form more than one tank at a time? c. Stains, seeps, and heavy seeps (in addition to a. The tank airspaces must be interconnected. running leaks) are considered flight hazards when b. The fuel outlet ports of each tank must have the located in unvented areas of the aircraft. same cross-sectional area. 27. The location of leaks and defects within the internal c. Each tank must have a valve in its outlet that portions of the fuel system can usually be determined automatically shuts off the line when the tank is empty. by: 16. What is the recommended practice for cleaning a fuel a. Visual inspection for evidence of wet spots and tank before welding? stains, and feeling for unusually warm components. a. Purge the tank with air. b. Performing a fuel flow check. b. Flush the inside of the tank with clean water. c. Observing the pressure gauge and operating the c. Steam clean the tank interior. selector valves. 17. When installing a rigid fuel line, ½ inch in diameter, at 28. Integral fuel tanks on transport aircraft are: what intervals should the line supported? a. Usually constructed of nonmetallic material. a. 24 inches b. Readily removed from the aircraft. b. 12 inches c. Formed by the aircraft structure. c. 16 inches 29. What is the dielectric (nonconducting material) in a 18. How may the antiknock characteristics of a fuel be capacitance-type fuel quantity indicating system? improved? a. Outer shell of the capacitor. a. By adding a knock inhibitor. b. Fuel in the tank.  c. Fuel and air in the tank. b. Higher than the vapor pressure of automotive gasoline. c. Approximately 20PSI at 100F 41. What can be done to eliminate or minimize the 30. A transducer in a fuel pressure system serves what microbial growth problem in an aircraft jet fuel tank? function? a. Use anti-icing and antibacterial additives. a. Transmits an electrical signal to the transmitter for b. Add CO(2) as a purgative. fluid pressure. c. Keep the fuel tank topped off. b. Transmits electrical signal proportional to the fluid 42. What is the primary purpose of the crossfeed system? pressure. a. To allow the feeding of engine from any tank. c. Converts fluid pressure directly through a b. To allow the feeding of fuel from one tank for transmitter to the indicator. defueling. 31. Why are integral fuel tanks used in many large c. To provide automatic refueling of a tank to any aircraft? desired level. a. To reduce fire hazards. 43. Fuel-boost pumps are operated: b. To facilitate servicing. a. To provide a positive flow of fuel to the engine. c. To reduce weight. b. Primarily for fuel transfer. 32. A capacitance-type fuel quantity indicating system c. Automatically from fuel pressure. measures fuel in: 44. One advantage of electrical and electronic fuel quantity a. Pounds indicating systems is that: b. Pounds per hour a. The indicators are calibrated in gallons; therefore, no c. Gallons conversion is necessary. 33. If a bladder-type fuel tank is to be left empty for an b. Only one transmitter and one indicator are needed extended period of time, the inside of the tank should regardless of the number of tanks. be coated with a film of: c. Several fuel tank levels can be read on one a. Engine oil indicator. b. Linseed oil 45. A probe or a series of probes is used in what kind of c. Ethylene glycol fuel quantity indicating system? 34. How many vents, arranged so that they are not likely to a. Selsyn become plugged at the same time, must be used in b. Capacitor multiengine fuel systems? c. Synchro a. Two 46. A fuel jettison system is required under certain b. Four conditions if the maximum takeoff weight exceeds the c. Six maximum landing weight. What regulations cover the 35. A fuel pressure warning switch contacts close and requirements of fuel jettisoning? warning light is turned on when: a. Federal Aviation Regulation Part 43 and 91. a. A measured quantity of fuel has passed through it. b. Federal Aviation Regulation Part 23, 25, and b. The fuel flow stops. CAM 4b. c. The fuel pressure drops below specified limits. c. Federal Aviation Regulation Part 21, 43 and CAM 8. 36. Which of the following is necessary to effectively troubleshoot a fuel pressure warning system? 47. In an electronic-type fuel quantity indicating system, a. The manufacturer’s maintenance manuals. the tank sensing unit is a: b. AC 43.13-1B, Acceptable methods, techniques, and a. Capacitor practices—Aircraft inspection and Repair. b. Variable resistor c. A set of Federal Aviation Regulations. c. Variable resistor 37. When routing a fuel line between two rigidly mounted 48. What should be used to remove flux from an aluminum fittings the line should: tank after welded repairs? a. Have at least one bend between such fittings. a. Soft brush and warm water. b. Be straight length of tubing and clamped to the b. 5 percent solution of nitric or sulfuric acid. aircraft structure. c. Mild solution of soap and warm water. c. Have a flexible line added between two metal lines 49. What is the purpose of a float-operated transmitter to allow for ease of installation. installed in a fuel tank? 38. When inspecting a fuel system, you should check all a. It sends an electric signal to the fuel quantity valves located downstream of boost pumps with the indicator. pumps: b. It senses the total amount of fuel density. a. At idle c. It senses the dielectric qualities of fuel and air in the b. Dormant tank. c. Operating 50. Fuel jettisoning past the limits prescribed by Federal 39. An electrical-type fuel quantity indicating system Aviation Regulations is usually prevented by: consists of an indicator in the cockpit and a: a. Closely monitoring the fuel quantity and turning off a. Float-operated transmitter installed in the tank. the fuel dump switch/es. b. Float resting on the surface of the tank. b. Dump limit valves or a low-level circuit. c. Float-operated receiver installed in the tank. c. Standpipes in the fuel tanks. 40. The vapor pressure of aviation gasoline is: 51. The type of fuel-boost pump that separates air and a. Lower than the vapor pressure of automotive vapor from the fuel before it enters the line to the gasoline. carburetor is the:  a. Gear-type pump. 62. Which gas is used for purging an aircraft fuel tank? b. Centrifugal-type pump. a. Helium or argon. c. Sliding vane-type pump. b. Carbon dioxide. 52. (1) If aviation gasoline vaporizes too readily, fuel lines c. Carbon monoxide. may become filled with vapor and cause increased fuel 63. What must each fuel quantity indicator be calibrated to flow. read during level flight when the quantity of fuel (2) A measure of a gasoline’s tendency to vapor lock is remaining is equal to the unusable fuel supply? obtained from the Reid vapor pressure test. a. The total unusable fuel quantity. Regarding the above statements, b. Both the total unusable fuel quantity and the a. Only no. 2 is true unusable fuel quantity in each tank. b. Both no. 1 and no.2 are true c. Zero. c. Neither no. 1 nor no.2 is true 64. What is the maximum vapor pressure allowable for an 53. (1) On a large aircraft pressure refueling system, a aircraft fuel? pressure refueling receptacle and control panel will a. 7 PSI permit one person to fuel or defuel any or all fuel tanks b. 5 PSI of an aircraft. c. 3 PSI (2) Because of the fuel tank area, there are more 65. When inspecting a removable rigid fuel tank for leaks advantages to a pressure fueling system in light what procedure should be followed? aircraft. a. Pressurize the tank with air and brush with Regarding the above statements, soapy water. a. Only no.1 is true b. Fill the tank with water and pressurize with air and b. Only no.2 is true brush with soapy water. c. Both no.1 and no.2 are true c. Pressurize the tank with air and submerge in water to 54. The presence of fuel stains around a fuel nozzle would locate leaks. indicate: 66. Pressure fueling or aircraft is usually accomplished a. Too much fuel pressure. through: b. Excessive airflow across the venturi. a. Pressure connections on individual fuel tanks. c. Clogged fuel nozzle. b. At least one single point connection. 55. (1) A fuel heater can use engine bleed air as a source of c. Individual fuel tank overwing and/or fuselage access heat. points. (2) A fuel heater can use engine lubricating oil as a 67. How many engine drive fuel pumps per engine are source of heat. required for engines requiring fuel pump? Regarding the above statements, a. Two engines can share one fuel pump a. Only no.1 is true. b. One fuel pump for each engine. b. Both no.1 and no.2 are true. c. Two fuel pumps for each engine. c. Neither no.1 nor no.2 is true. 68. According to Part 23, what minimum required 56. How does temperature affect fuel weight? markings must be placed at or near each appropriate a. Cold fuel is heavier per gallon. fuel filler cove for reciprocating engine-powered b. Warm fuel is heavier per gallon. airplanes? c. Temperature has no effect. a. The word ‘Avgas’ and the minimum fuel grade. 57. Which of the following may be used for the repair of b. The word ‘Fuel’ and usable fuel capacity. fuel leaks on most integral fuel tanks? c. The word ‘Avgas’ and the total fuel capacity. a. Welding and resealing. 69. The purpose of the baffle plate in a fuel tank is to: b. Brazing and resealing. a. Provide an expansion space for the fuel. c. Riveting and resealing. b. Resist fuel surging within the fuel tank. 58. Why are centrifugal-type boost pumps used in fuel c. Provide internal structural integrity. systems of aircraft operating at high altitude? 70. The probe of a capacitance-type fuel level gauge is a. Because they are positive displacement pumps. essentially a: b. To supply fuel under pressure to engine-driven a. Float-actuated variable capacitor. pumps. b. Capacitor with fuel and air acting as one plate. c. To permit cooling air to circulate around the motor. c. Capacitor with fuel and air acting as a dielectric. 59. An aircraft’s integral fuel tank is: 71. What method is used on turbine-powered aircraft to a. Usually located in the bottom of the fuselage. determine when the condition of the fuel is b. A part of the aircraft structure. approaching the danger of forming ice crystals? c. A self-sealing tank. a. Fuel pressure warning. 60. One advantage of electrical and electronic fuel b. Fuel pressure gauge. quantity indicating systems is that the indicator: c. Fuel temperature indicator. a. Can be located an distance from the tank/s. 72. What unit would be adjusted to change the fuel b. Has no movable devices. pressure warning limits? c. Always measures volume instead of mass. a. Fuel flowmeter bypass valve. 61. When fuel quantity is measured in pounds instead of b. Pressure-sensitive mechanism. gallons, the measurement will be more accurate c. Fuel pressure relief valve. because fuel volume: 73. (1) The fuel jettison valve must be designed to allow a. Varies with temperature change. flight personnel to close the valve during any part of b. Increases when temperature decreases. the jettisoning operation. c. Varies with changes in atmospheric pressure.  (2) During the fuel jettisoning operation, the fuel must 83. Aircraft pressure fueling systems instructional discharge clear of any part of the airplane. procedures are normally placarded on the: Regarding the above statements, a. Fuel control panel access door. a. Both no.1 and no.2 are true. b. Lower wing surface adjacent to the access door. b. Only no.2 is true. c. Aircraft ground connection point. c. Neither no.1 nor no.2 is true. 84. What is one disadvantage of using aromatic aviation 74. Why is the main fuel strainer located at the lowest fuels? point in the fuel system? a. A fuel intercooler is required. a. It traps any small amount of water that may be b. Deteriorates rubber parts. present in the fuel system. c. Results in low fuel volatility. b. It provides a drain for residual fuel. 85. Which aircraft fuel quantity indicating system c. It filters and traps all micro-organisms that may be incorporates a signal amplifier? present in the fuel system. a. Electronic 75. Why is it necessary to vent all aircraft fuel tanks? b. Sight glass a. To ensure a positive head pressure for a submerged c. Electrical boost pump. 86. Why are jet fuels more susceptible to water b. To exhaust fuel vapors. contamination than aviation gasoline? c. To limit pressure differential between the tank a. Jet fuel has a higher viscosity than gasoline. and atmosphere. b. Jet fuel is lighter than gasoline; therefore, water is 76. Which of the following precautions is most important more easily suspended. during refueling operations? c. Condensation is greater because of the higher a. All outside electrical sources must be disconnected volatility of jet fuels. from the aircraft. 87. What is the minimum distance allowed between a fuel b. Fuel to be used must be appropriately identified. tank and the fire wall separating the engine? c. All electrical switches must be in OFF position. a. One-half inch 77. A transmitter in a fuel pressure warning system serves b. One inch what function? c. Two inches a. Transmits an electrical signal to fluid pressure. 88. Fuel baffles are installed in tanks to prevent _________ b. Converts fluid pressure to an electrical signal. caused by changes in the attitude of the aircraft. c. Transmits fluid pressure directly to the indicator. a. Vapors. 78. What should be used to inert an integral fuel tank b. Surging. before attempting repairs? c. Starvation. a. Carbon dioxide 89. Normal fuel crossfeed system operation in multiengine b. Water aircraft c. Steam a. Calls for jettisoning of fuel overboard to correct 79. A typical large transport aircraft fuel manifold system lateral instability. allows how many of the following? b. Reduces contamination and/or fire hazards during 1. All tanks can be serviced through a single fueling or defueling operations. connection. c. Provides a means to maintain a balanced fuel 2. Any engine can be fed from any tank load condition. 3. All engines can be fed from all tanks 90. The primary purpose of a fuel tank sump is to provide simultaneously. a: 4. A damaged tank can be isolated from the rest of the a. Positive system of maintaining the design minimum fuel system. fuel supply for safe operation. a. 1 and 2. b. Place where water and dirt accumulations in the b. 1, 2, and 3.