A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Questions and Answers V23.35.pdf

IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! Exam : 220-1101 Title : CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 Vendor : CompTIA Version : V23.35 1  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Eas...

IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! Exam : 220-1101 Title : CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 Vendor : CompTIA Version : V23.35 1  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! QUESTION NO: 1 When a user tries to print a document on a laser printer, vertical lines appear on the printout. Which of the following should the technician replace? A. Mirror B. Fuser C. Drum D. Toner Answer: C Explanation: Vertical lines on a laser printer printout are most commonly associated with issues in the drum unit. The drum is a crucial component in the laser printing process, where it receives an electrostatic image of the document to be printed and transfers toner to the paper. If there are defects or damage to the drum's surface, it can result in vertical lines appearing on the printed output as the drum fails to evenly distribute toner across the page. References: * CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Exam Objectives, Section 3.6 Hardware, particularly the part about laser printers and the significance of each component in the printing process, emphasizing the drum's role in image transfer. * Understanding of laser printer operation, specifically the function of the drum unit and common issues that can affect print quality. QUESTION NO: 2 A customer wants to archive a large number of photos and does not plan to retrieve them often. The customer wants a storage option that is the least expensive per gigabyte. Which of the following should the technician suggest? A. NVMe SSD B. SCSI RAID C. 15,000rpm SAS D. 5,400rpm HOD Answer: D Explanation: The correct answer is D. 5,400rpm HDD. A 5,400rpm HDD (Hard Disk Drive) is a type of storage device that uses spinning magnetic disks to store data. A 5,400rpm HDD is the least expensive per gigabyte among the options given, as it has a lower rotational speed and performance than other types of HDDs or SSDs (Solid State Drives). A 5,400rpm HDD is suitable for archiving a large number of photos that are not accessed frequently, as it can offer high capacity and reliability at a low cost. the average cost per gigabyte of a 5,400rpm HDD is around $0.02 to $0.0312, while the average cost per gigabyte of the other options are: * NVMe SSD: $0.10 to $0.1534 * SCSI RAID: $0.20 to $0.305 * 15,000rpm SAS: $0.30 to $0.40 Therefore, a 5,400rpm HDD is the cheapest option among the four. Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1: RAM & Storage Solutions Flashcards 2  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! QUESTION NO: 3 A user is printing a part with a thermoplastic polyurethane (TPU) filament on a 3-D printer. The first layer on every print job is not adhering properly. Which of the following should the user do to improve adherence on the first layer? A. Lower the print bed temperature. B. Adjust the RPM of the cooling fan. C. Increase the print speed. D. Raise the filament flow amount. Answer: D Explanation: The correct answer is D. Raise the filament flow amount. Filament flow amount, also known as extrusion multiplier or flow rate, is the setting that controls how much filament is extruded by the nozzle during 3D printing. It is usually expressed as a percentage of the default value, which is 100%. Increasing the filament flow amount means extruding more filament than usual, while decreasing it means extruding less1. The filament flow amount can affect the quality and adhesion of the first layer, which is crucial for a successful 3D print. If the filament flow amount is too low, the nozzle may not extrude enough filament to fill the gaps between the lines and create a smooth and solid first layer. This can result in poor adhesion, curling, warping, or detachment of the print from the bed12. To improve adherence on the first layer, the user should raise the filament flow amount slightly, such as 105% or 110%, to ensure that enough filament is extruded to create a strong bond with the bed. The user should also make sure that the nozzle height, bed leveling, and bed temperature are properly calibrated for optimal first layer adhesion12. The other options are less likely to improve adherence on the first layer, because: *Lowering the print bed temperature may reduce the adhesion of the TPU filament to the bed, as TPU usually requires a bed temperature between 20-60°C for the best results3. Lowering the bed temperature may also increase the risk of warping or curling of the print4. *Adjusting the RPM of the cooling fan may not have a significant effect on the first layer adhesion, as cooling fans are not required with TPU3. In fact, using a cooling fan with TPU may cause cracking or delamination of the print, as TPU needs to cool down slowly and evenly4. *Increasing the print speed may worsen the first layer adhesion, as TPU is a flexible and elastic filament that needs to be printed slowly and consistently. A recommended print speed for TPU is 15-30mm/s3. Increasing the print speed may cause clogging, stringing, blobs, or under-extrusion of the filament4. For more information and tips on how to 3D print TPU filament like a pro, you can visit these links: *How to 3D Print TPU Filament Like a Pro - Ultimate Guide & FAQ *The Complete TPU Filament 3D Printing Guide - 3DSourced *TPU Filament 3D Printing Material - The Complete Guide *TPU filament - learn everything about the TPU material for 3D printing QUESTION NO: 4 Which of the following is a method that can be used to securely connect a remote user's 3  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! laptop to a corporate server? A. WAN B. VPN C. SSL D. DHCP Answer: B Explanation: A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a secure method for connecting a remote user's laptop to a corporate server. VPNs use encryption to protect data transmitted over the internet. QUESTION NO: 5 Which of the following scenarios best illustrate a need for VDI? (Select two). A. An employee needs the ability to work remotely on a non-company-provided computer B. A company that needs to store 10PB worth of data C. An employee has latency-sensitive workflow requirements D. A bank that has security concerns regarding employee activity E. A payment processor that is planning on implementing virtual currency F. An application developer who needs to configure network settings for an application Answer: A D Explanation: VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure) allows users to access a desktop environment that is running on a server in the data center rather than on the local machine. This is particularly useful for employees who need to work remotely on various devices (A), as it provides a consistent and secure environment regardless of the endpoint device. For a bank with security concerns regarding employee activity (D), VDI offers a centralized management of desktops, enhancing security by keeping sensitive data and applications within the data center and not on the local devices, thus reducing the risk of data breaches. References: * CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives Section 4.2: Summarize aspects of client-side virtualization. QUESTION NO: 6 Which of the following is the best way to protect the data of a virtual machine in the event of hardware failure? A. Redundant hardware B. UPS C. Cloud-based backup D. RAID Answer: C Explanation: The best way to protect the data of a virtual machine in the event of hardware failure is to use a cloud-based backup solution. A cloud-based backup solution is a service that copies and stores the data of a virtual machine to a remote server or storage device over the internet. A cloud-based backup solution can offer several benefits, such as: 4  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! * High availability and reliability: A cloud-based backup solution can ensure that the data of a virtual machine is always accessible and recoverable, even if the hardware that hosts the virtual machine fails or is damaged. A cloud-based backup solution can also provide redundancy and fault tolerance, by replicating the data across multiple locations or regions. * Scalability and flexibility: A cloud-based backup solution can adapt to the changing needs and demands of the virtual machine, by allowing the user to adjust the backup frequency, retention period, and storage capacity. A cloud-based backup solution can also support different types of backup, such as full, incremental, or differential, depending on the user's preferences and requirements. * Cost-effectiveness and simplicity: A cloud-based backup solution can reduce the cost and complexity of maintaining a backup infrastructure, by eliminating the need to purchase, install, or manage hardware, software, or licenses. A cloud-based backup solution can also automate and streamline the backup process, by providing easy-to-use tools and interfaces, such as web portals, APIs, or scripts. Other options, such as redundant hardware, UPS, or RAID, may improve the performance or resilience of the hardware that hosts the virtual machine, but they do not provide a complete protection for the data of the virtual machine in the event of hardware failure. Redundant hardware is a technique that uses multiple components or devices to perform the same function, so that if one fails, another can take over. UPS (uninterruptible power supply) is a device that provides backup power to a system in case of a power outage or surge. RAID (redundant array of independent disks) is a technology that combines multiple disks into a logical unit, to improve the speed, capacity, or reliability of the storage. However, these options may not prevent data loss or corruption due to other causes, such as human error, malware, or natural disasters. Therefore, a cloud-based backup solution is the best way to protect the data of a virtual machine in the event of hardware failure. References: * What is Cloud Backup? | Microsoft Azure1 * Cloud Backup - What is it and how does it work? | Veeam2 * Cloud Backup vs. Local Backup: Which Option is Right for You?3 QUESTION NO: 7 A user attempts to connect a laptop to a projector but receives the following message from the projector: Out of Range. Which of the following needs to be addressed first? A. Change the resolution settings. B. Check the video cable and replace it if necessary. C. Set the computer's display settings to extend/duplicate. D. Verify that the laptop video card driver is the most up-to-date version. Answer: A Explanation: The most likely answer is A. Change the resolution settings. The error "Out of Range" normally means that the resolution being output by the computer is not compatible with the projector. The resolution is the number of pixels that are displayed on the screen. If the resolution is too high for the projector, it may not be able to display the image correctly or at all12. 5  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! To resolve this issue, you should try lowering the resolution settings on your laptop to match the native resolution of the projector or a lower one. You can do this by following these steps1: *Right-click on an empty area of your desktop and select Display settings. *Under Scale and layout, click on Display resolution and choose a lower option from the drop-down menu. *Click Apply and then Keep changes. *Reconnect your laptop to the projector and check if the image is displayed properly. If changing the resolution settings does not help, you may need to check other factors, such as the video cable, the display settings, or the video card driver. However, these are less likely to cause the "Out of Range" error than the resolution settings. QUESTION NO: 8 A user is unable to access the internet on a PC. A technician examines the PC and runs the following commands: Which of the following steps in the troubleshooting process does this series of commands represent? A. Establish a theory. B. Verify full system functionality. C. Establish a plan of action. D. Identify the problem. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 9 Which of the following concepts would be used by an online retailer to quickly add more web servers during peak sales times? A. Community cloud B. Rapid elasticity C. High availability D. Metered service Answer: B Explanation: Rapid elasticity would be used by an online retailer to quickly add more web servers during peak sales times. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Exam 220-1001, Page 405 QUESTION NO: 10 A technician is setting up a laptop with an encrypted hard drive. The laptop will securely store a PIN that the user will input at log-on. Which of the following must be installed to set up this configuration? 6  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! A. TPM B. HSM C. UEFI D. ARM Answer: A Explanation: TPM stands for Trusted Platform Module, and it is a special chip installed on a computer's motherboard that stores encryption keys, passwords, and digital certificates. It can also securely store a user's PIN, allowing them to access the laptop without having to enter the PIN every time they log on. TPM is a secure way to store and protect sensitive data, making it ideal for use in laptops that need to securely store a PIN. QUESTION NO: 11 A technician is preparing to set up a gaming computer with the following components: * Discrete, high-end graphics card * Video capture card * High-end processor * Multiple hard drives * USB 3.0 hub * Sound card Which of the following options is the most important for the technician to consider before building the gaming computer? A. Redundant power supply B. Modular power supply C. 20-pin vs. 24-pin power adapter D. Power supply wattage rating Answer: D Explanation: The correct answer is D. Power supply wattage rating. The power supply wattage rating is the most important factor to consider before building a gaming computer, as it determines how much power the system can draw from the wall and how much power the components can consume. A power supply with a low wattage rating may not be able to support the high-end graphics card, processor, and other devices, resulting in poor performance, instability, or damage12. To find the optimal power supply wattage rating for a gaming computer, the technician should calculate the total power consumption of all the components and add some headroom for future upgrades or overclocking. The technician can use online calculators such as Cooler Master Power Calculator or Seasonic Wattage Calculator to estimate the power requirements of the system3. QUESTION NO: 12 A technician is setting up network printers in a new office building. The company wants all of the printers to be configured the same way for consistency. Some of the printers do not have an RJ45 port to connect to the network. Which of the following does the technician need to enable so all of the printers can be connected to the network? 7  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! A. Wireless B. Authentication C. PostScript D. USB Answer: A Explanation: To connect printers without an RJ45 port to the network, the technician needs to enable wireless connectivity. By configuring the printers to connect to the network wirelessly, the company can achieve the desired consistency in printer configuration across the office. This approach allows printers without built-in wired network capabilities to be part of the network, facilitating shared access and remote printing functionalities. References: * CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Exam Objectives, Section 2.3 Networking, specifically the information on configuring and troubleshooting wireless connectivity for devices, which includes enabling and securing wireless connections on network printers. * General understanding of network printer configuration options, including the use of wireless connectivity to integrate printers into a network environment, particularly when wired connections are not feasible. QUESTION NO: 13 A technician wants to deploy a.msl package lo a corporate network. The technician needs to verily the application deployment will not affect other legacy applications on the end users' computers. Which of the following would the technician consider the MOST appropriate for this situation? A. Virtual network B. Application virtualization C. Cross-platform virtualization D. Virtual sandbox E. Virtual desktop Answer: B Explanation: The most appropriate solution for the technician to consider in this situation is Application virtualization. Application virtualization is a technology that allows applications to run in a virtual environment, which isolates them from the underlying operating system and other applications. This ensures that the application deployment will not affect other legacy applications on the end users' computers1. QUESTION NO: 14 Which of the following is considered a connectionless protocol? A. SSH B. TCP C. HTTPS 8  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! D. UDP Answer: D Explanation: The correct answer is D. UDP. UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is a connectionless protocol that does not establish a connection before sending or receiving data. UDP simply sends datagrams to the destination without checking if the receiver is ready or not. UDP does not guarantee reliable delivery, error correction, or in-order arrival of the data. UDP is faster and more efficient than connection-oriented protocols for applications that do not require reliability, such as streaming audio or video1 A: SSH (Secure Shell) is not a correct answer. SSH is a connection-oriented protocol that uses TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) as its transport layer. SSH establishes a secure and encrypted connection between two network endpoints before exchanging data. SSH provides authentication, confidentiality, and integrity for remote login and command execution2 B: TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is not a correct answer. TCP is a connection-oriented protocol that establishes a connection before sending or receiving data. TCP ensures reliable delivery, error correction, and in-order arrival of the data. TCP is slower and more complex than connectionless protocols, but it provides more reliability and quality of service for applications that require it, such as web browsing or email1 C: HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) is not a correct answer. HTTPS is a connection-oriented protocol that uses TCP as its transport layer and SSL/TLS as its security layer. HTTPS establishes a secure and encrypted connection between a web browser and a web server before exchanging data. HTTPS provides authentication, confidentiality, and integrity for web transactions, such as online banking or shopping1 QUESTION NO: 15 A university student was able to boot from a live Linux CD on a computer in a shared space on campus. Which of the following will BEST prevent this type of action from occurring in the future? A. Require TPM security features. B. Set a boot password. C. Disable all media options. D. Enable secure boot. Answer: D Explanation: Enabling secure boot will verify the digital signature of the bootloader and operating system, ensuring that the system only boots from trusted and authorised sources. This can prevent booting from an unauthorised live CD or other external media. The best way to prevent booting from a live Linux CD on a computer in a shared space on campus is to enable secure boot. Secure boot is a feature that ensures that the system only runs software that is signed by an authorized party. This means that the system will not boot from any unauthorized media, including live Linux CDs. Secure Boot is a feature that ensures that the system only runs software that is signed by an authorized party. This means that the system will not boot from any unauthorized media, including live Linux CDs. Secure Boot is an important security feature designed to prevent malicious software 9  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! from loading when your PC starts up (boots)1. Booting from a live Linux CD is a process that allows you to run a Linux operating system from a CD or DVD without installing it on your hard drive. This can be useful for testing or troubleshooting purposes. To boot from a live Linux CD, you need to insert the CD or DVD into your computer's CD/DVD drive and restart your computer. Most systems are set up to automatically boot from the CD/DVD drive, but if your system is not set up this way, you may need to change a system setting to boot from a Linux CD/DVD23. QUESTION NO: 16 A customer built a computer for gaming, sourcing individual components and then assembling the system. The OS starts up, but within a few minutes the machine locks up. The customer brought the computer to a technician to diagnose the issue. Answer: 10  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! Explanation: correct answer is "Overclocking" and "Reduce CPU Clock speed" CPU is at 4.5 Ghz when normal is 3.2 Ghz. Overclocking too much can cause freezes, and this is a gaming computer so the user probably took it too far. http://blog.logicalincrements.com/2018/12/4-troubleshooting-tips-overclocking-pc/ QUESTION NO: 17 A bank wants to leverage cloud computing but would like a cloud solution in which infrastructure is isolated from other businesses. Which of the following cloud models would BEST address the bank's need? A. Public B. Hybrid C. Private 11  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! D. Community Answer: C Explanation: A private cloud is a cloud computing model that provides services and resources to a specific organization or group over a private network. A private cloud can offer more security and control than other cloud models, as well as customized infrastructure that suits the organization's needs. A bank would most likely choose a private cloud model to leverage cloud computing while maintaining isolation from other businesses. A public cloud is a cloud computing model that provides services and resources to anyone over the internet. A hybrid cloud is a combination of public and private cloud services that share data and resources. QUESTION NO: 18 A company wants to save money by leveraging the cloud while still being able to customize the infrastructure. Which of the following cloud models would best address the company's needs? A. Private B. Public C. Hybrid D. Community Answer: C Explanation: A hybrid cloud model would best address the company's needs of saving money by leveraging the cloud while still being able to customize the infrastructure. A hybrid cloud model is a combination of public and private cloud services, connected by a secure network. A public cloud service is a cloud service that is offered by a third-party provider over the Internet, and is shared by multiple customers. A private cloud service is a cloud service that is dedicated to a single customer, and is hosted either on-premises or by a third-party provider. A hybrid cloud model allows the company to use the public cloud for cost-effective and scalable services, such as storage, backup, or analytics, and use the private cloud for more sensitive or customized services, such as security, compliance, or performance. A hybrid cloud model also enables the company to move workloads between the public and private cloud as needed, depending on the demand, availability, or cost. A hybrid cloud model can provide the company with the best of both worlds: the flexibility and efficiency of the cloud, and the control and customization of the infrastructure. References: * What is Hybrid Cloud? | IBM1 * Hybrid Cloud Computing | Microsoft Azure2 * Cloud Deployment Models: Explaining and Comparing the 5 Main Models...3 QUESTION NO: 19 After a heavily used color laser printer was serviced to remove excessive dust, the image quality decreased. Which of the following should a technician most likely check on the printer? A. Toner 12  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! B. Calibration C. Fuser D. Drum Answer: B Explanation: If a color laser printer's image quality decreases after being serviced for dust removal, it's likely that the servicing process affected the printer's calibration. Calibration ensures that color reproduction is accurate, and if disturbed, can lead to a decrease in image quality. It's important to check and recalibrate the printer to restore its ability to accurately reproduce colors and maintain high image quality. References: * CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Exam Objectives, particularly the sections dealing with printer maintenance, troubleshooting, and the importance of calibration in maintaining image quality in laser printers. * Knowledge of printer maintenance procedures and their impact on printer performance, with a focus on how calibration affects color accuracy and overall image quality. QUESTION NO: 20 A user wants to overclock a GPU but is concerned about potential overheating. Which of the following would best address the user's concern? A. Thicker thermal pads B. Liquid cooling C. Larger heat sink D. Fan upgrade Answer: B Explanation: Liquid cooling is an effective solution for managing the high heat output that can result from overclocking a GPU. It's more efficient than air cooling methods (like larger heat sinks or fan upgrades) and can better maintain lower temperatures under load, reducing the risk of overheating. References: * CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives Section 3.4: Given a scenario, install and configure motherboards, CPUs, and add-on cards. These answers align with the CompTIA A+ certification objectives and are derived from the official CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Exam Objectives documents. QUESTION NO: 21 A technician is building a budget PC with a dual-core CPU, onboard sound and graphics, and a single SSD. Which of the following power supply wattage levels is the most appropriate? A. 400W B. 850W C. 1,000W D. 2,000W 13  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! Answer: A QUESTION NO: 22 A technician is adding one more line at the demarcation point. Which of the following tools would be MOST useful to accomplish this task? A. Toner B. Punchdown C. Network tap D. Crimper Answer: B Explanation: Punchdown tools are used to connect wires to keystone jacks, patch panels and other communication hardware. When adding a new line at the demarcation point, a technician would use a punchdown tool to punch the wire into the keystone jack or patch panel, completing the connection. QUESTION NO: 23 A technician is replacing a computer with a connected point-of-sale system using a 9-pin serial adapter. The new computer does not have a 9-pin serial port. Which of the following ports can an adapter be installed on in order to connect to the point-of-sale system? A. HDMI B. Bluetooth C. USB D. Lightning Answer: C Explanation: A USB to 9-pin serial adapter can be used to connect the new computer to the point-of-sale system using a USB port. USB is a common and versatile port type found on most computers. If a technician is replacing a computer with a connected point-of-sale system using a 9-pin serial adapter and the new computer does not have a 9-pin serial port, an adapter can be installed on the USB port in order to connect to the point-of-sale system. A USB-to-serial adapter can be used to connect a serial device to a USB port on a computer. QUESTION NO: 24 A remote user reports connectivity issues with the local internet provider. Even after a technician reboots the modem supplied by the ISP, the issue persists. Which of the following would best establish the connection in minimal time? A. Radio frequency ISP B. Neighbor's Wi-Fi C. Mobile hotspot D. Fiber optic Answer: C Explanation: 14  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! Using a mobile hotspot can quickly establish an internet connection for the remote user. A mobile hotspot uses cellular data to create a Wi-Fi network that the user can connect to, bypassing the need for a physical connection to the ISP. This solution is practical and efficient, especially in situations where the primary internet connection is down, and immediate connectivity is required. Mobile hotspots are widely used for their convenience and the ability to provide internet access almost anywhere cellular service is available, as highlighted in the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Exam Objectives in sections related to networking and mobile devices. QUESTION NO: 25 A user reports a cell phone is getting hot. Which of the following are MOST likely to be possible causes? (Select THREE). A. Using the device as a Wi-Fi hotspot B. A cracked screen C. A failing battery D. Less than 15% free storage space on the phone E. Privileged control F. Recurring prompts to install OS updates G. Granting too many application camera permissions H. Too many open applications Answer: A C H Explanation: Using the device as a Wi-Fi hotspot, a failing battery, and too many open applications are the most likely causes of the cell phone getting hot. These actions require the phone to use more power and processing, causing it to heat up. QUESTION NO: 26 A technician is working on a desktop PC and wants to verify its NIC is functional. Which of the following should the technician use? A. Cable tester B. Loopback Plug C. Toner probe D. Network tap Answer: B Reference: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/a-core-1-220-1101-study-guide (page 76) QUESTION NO: 27 Which of the following commonly uses NFC? A. Contactless payments B. loT devices C. Inventory tracking D. Tethering Answer: A 15  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! Explanation: NFC (Near Field Communication) is a wireless communication technology that is commonly used for contactless payments, mobile payments, and other mobile transactions. It allows two devices to communicate with each other when they are placed in close proximity. Contactless payments commonly use NFC (Near Field Communication). NFC is a wireless communication technology that allows two devices to communicate with each other when they are in close proximity. Contactless payments use NFC to enable customers to make payments by simply tapping their contactless card or mobile device on a payment terminal. QUESTION NO: 28 An administrator is replacing 15,000rpm hard drives in a server. Which of the following is the interface type the drives most likely use? A. IDE B. SAS C. eSATA D. SATA Answer: B Explanation: SAS stands for Serial Attached SCSI, which is a bit serial interface successor to SCSI sponsored by ANSI and introduced in 20041. SAS is the most common interface for enterprise HDDs, especially those with high performance and high reliability requirements, such as 15,000rpm drives23. SAS offers faster data transfer speeds, lower power consumption, and better scalability than other interfaces1. QUESTION NO: 29 A user reports that a laser printer's toner does not stick to the paper. The user has tried multiple brands of paper and is unable to print legible documents. Which of the following should be replaced to ensure proper printouts? A. Fuser unit B. Toner distributionsensor C. Paper charge transformer D. Toner cartridge Answer: A Explanation: In laser printing, the fuser unit is responsible for bonding the toner to the paper using heat and pressure. If the toner is not sticking to the paper, resulting in illegible documents despite trying different brands of paper, it indicates a problem with the fuser unit. It might not be reaching the necessary temperature to melt the toner properly, necessitating its replacement to ensure proper printouts. References: * CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives Section 3.7: Given a scenario, install and replace printer consumables. QUESTION NO: 30 16  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! A user's Windows computer started running slowly after the installation of a CAD program. The computer has intermittent timeouts and often has to be rebooted to restore functionally. The computer seems to work correctly if the application is not running. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT to help troubleshoot the issue? (Select TWO). A. Replace the video card. B. Research the requirements of the application. C. Install a new case fun. D. Run chkdsk on the HDD. E. Check the Event Viewer logs. F. Reinstall the application. Answer: B E Explanation: The technician should research the requirements of the CAD program to see if the computer meets them or needs any upgrades or updates to run it properly. The technician should also check the Event Viewer logs to see if there are any errors or warnings related to the application or system performance that could indicate the cause of the problem or suggest a solution. Reference: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/a-core-1-220- 1101-study-guide (pages 43, 47) QUESTION NO: 31 An IT technician is working on a help desk ticket concerning a user's inability to create a virtual machine. The technician has already checked the RAM and HDD space in the user's machine. Which of the following settings should the technician check NEXT to help troubleshoot the issue? A. BitLocker B. MSConfig C. BIOS D. Secure Boot Answer: C Explanation: One of the possible settings that could prevent a user from creating a virtual machine is BIOS (Basic Input /Output System). BIOS is a firmware that controls how hardware components interact with each other and with software applications. Some BIOS settings may need to be changed or enabled to allow virtualization, such as VT-x (Intel Virtualization Technology) or AMD-V (AMD Virtualization). The other options are not related to virtualization settings. Verified References: [How To Enable Virtualization In BIOS Settings]. QUESTION NO: 32 A technician just finished building a new PC and needs to install a firmware update for the system board UEFI. The technician is experiencing issues while accessing the USB key. Which of the following features should the technician most likely disable in order to complete this task? A. TPM security 17  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! B. USB 3.0 support C. PXE boot capability D. Secure Boot Answer: D Explanation: When experiencing issues accessing a USB key for a firmware update, particularly in relation to system board UEFI updates, the Secure Boot feature should be considered. Secure Boot is a security standard designed to ensure that a computer boots using only software that is trusted by the PC manufacturer. If Secure Boot is enabled, it might prevent the system from recognizing or booting from the USB key if the firmware update or the USB drive is not recognized as a trusted source. Disabling Secure Boot temporarily can allow the firmware update to proceed. References: * CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Exam Objectives, specifically the sections on UEFI/BIOS settings and configurations, including the role and configuration of Secure Boot in system security. * Understanding of UEFI/BIOS security features and their impact on system boot processes, particularly the function of Secure Boot in validating firmware and software integrity during the boot process. QUESTION NO: 33 A technician is upgrading the power supply of a workstation that is running multiple GPUs in an SLI configuration. Which of the following cables is needed to ensure the power supply can support the workstation? A. 8-pin PCle B. 4-pin Molex C. 4+4-pin ATX12V D. 8-pin ATX12V Answer: A Explanation: The 8-pin PCle power cable is designed to supply power to a graphics card that requires more power than the PCle slot can provide. A workstation that is running multiple GPUs in an SLI configuration would need this cable to ensure adequate power delivery and stability. The other cables are not suitable for this purpose, as they are either meant for the motherboard (4+4-pin ATX12V and 8-pin ATX12V) or for older devices (4-pin Molex) https://superuser.com/questions/849265/is-there-a-difference-between-8-pin-eps12v-and-pci- e-connectors QUESTION NO: 34 Which of the following describes metered utilization of cloud resources? A. Resources provisioned instantly B. Payments made only for resources that are used C. Resources pooled to increase computing power D. Implementation of rapid elasticity 18  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! Answer: B Explanation: Metered utilization of cloud resources refers to payments made only for resources that are used. Cloud providers offer a pay-as-you-go model where customers are charged based on their usage of resources. Customers can easily scale up or down their usage of resources as per their needs and only pay for what they use. References: CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Tenth Edition by Mike Meyers (Page 642) QUESTION NO: 35 A customer is reporting that some of the keys at the bottom edge on a laptop are hard to press and the track pad buttons require significant force to click. The technician inspects the laptop and does not notice any cracks or other damage to the chassis or screen. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue? A. The customer dropped the laptop. B. The digitizer has failed. C. The battery is swollen. D. An open bottle of rubbing alcohol fell onto the keyboard. Answer: C Explanation: A swollen battery is the most likely cause of the issue that the customer is reporting. A swollen battery is a battery that has expanded in size due to a chemical reaction, gas buildup, or overheating. A swollen battery can cause pressure on the laptop's chassis, keyboard, track pad, and other components, making them hard to press or click. A swollen battery can also pose a fire hazard and damage the laptop's performance and lifespan. The other options are not as likely or relevant to the issue. Dropping the laptop may cause cracks or other visible damage to the chassis or screen, but the technician did not notice any. The digitizer is the part of the laptop that converts touch input into digital signals, and it has nothing to do with the keyboard or the track pad buttons. An open bottle of rubbing alcohol falling onto the keyboard may cause liquid damage, corrosion, or short circuits, but it would not affect the track pad buttons or the bottom edge of the keyboard. To troubleshoot and resolve the issue, the technician should remove the battery from the laptop and inspect it for signs of swelling, such as bulging, deformation, or leakage. The technician should also check the laptop's chassis, keyboard, and track pad for any signs of damage or warping caused by the battery. The technician should then replace the swollen battery with a new one that is compatible with the laptop's model and specifications. The technician should also dispose of the swollen battery properly and safely, following the local regulations and guidelines. References: * CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives1 * The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Student Guide (Exam 220-1101) eBook2 * How to Fix a Swollen Laptop Battery - Lifewire3 * How to Tell If Your Laptop Battery Is Swollen - Techwalla4 19  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! QUESTION NO: 36 A technician needs to configure a firewall to enable network printing. Which of the following network ports should be opened? (Select two). A. 3389 (RDP) B. 23 (Telnet) C. 25 (SMTP) D. 515 (LDP) E. 631 (IPP) F. LPT1 Answer: D E Explanation: For network printing, the required ports are typically those used by printing protocols. Port 515 is used by the Line Printer Daemon (LPD) protocol, and port 631 is used by the Internet Printing Protocol (IPP). These ports need to be opened in the firewall to allow print jobs to be sent to and from network printers. QUESTION NO: 37 An engineer is setting up two-factor authentication so users can access a company's human resources system. Which of the following should the engineer require users to do? A. Use a mobile authenticator application. B. Connect to the company's Wi-Fi. C. Connect through the VPN. D. Use a bastion server. Answer: A Explanation: Two-factor authentication (2FA) is a method of verifying a user's identity by requiring two pieces of evidence: something the user knows (such as a password) and something the user has (such as a device). A mobile authenticator application is a software program that runs on a smartphone or tablet and generates a one- time code or token that the user can enter along with their password to access a system. This adds an extra layer of security to prevent unauthorized access. References *The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Student Guide (Exam 220-1101), page 13-14 *CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives, page 9, objective 2.5 *What is Two-Factor Authentication? QUESTION NO: 38 A technician is upgrading a user's laptop from an HDD to an SSD. The user's laptop only has a single bay for a hard drive. Which of the following characteristics of the SSD is the most important in this scenario? A. Partition type B. Storage size C. Form factor 20  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! D. Transfer speed Answer: C Explanation: When upgrading a laptop's storage from an HDD to an SSD, especially in laptops with only a single bay for a hard drive, the most critical characteristic to consider is the form factor. The form factor must match the physical dimensions and interface of the original HDD to ensure that the SSD can fit into the bay and connect properly. Storage size (B) is important for capacity reasons, transfer speed (D) affects performance, and partition type (A) is a software configuration aspect, but the form factor (C) is crucial for the physical compatibility of the SSD with the laptop. References: * CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives Section 3.3: Given a scenario, select and install storage devices. QUESTION NO: 39 A technician is preparing to set up a gaming computer with the following components: * Discrete, high-end graphics card * Video capture card * High-end processor * Multiple hard drives * USB 3.0 hub * Sound card Which of the following options is the MOST important for the technician to consider before building the gaming computer? A. Redundant power supply B. Modular power supply C. 20-pin vs. 24-pin power adapter D. Power supply wattage rating Answer: D Explanation: This is because high-end graphics cards, processors, and multiple hard drives require a significant amount of power to operate. A power supply with insufficient wattage could cause stability issues or even damage the components. The CompTIA A+ Core1 certification guide emphasizes the importance of selecting an appropriate power supply for a computer build. In addition to wattage, other factors to consider when selecting a power supply include efficiency, modularity, and the number and type of connectors required to power the components. However, of the options listed, the wattage rating is the most critical consideration. Therefore, the technician should ensure that the power supply they select has a wattage rating that is sufficient to power all the components in the gaming computer. It is always a good practice to select a power supply with a wattage rating that exceeds the estimated power usage of t QUESTION NO: 40 A user who is facilitating a videoconference reports that the participants can be heard. 21  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! However, when the user attempts to speak, none of the participants can hear the user. Which of the following is the FIRST step the technician should take? A. Restart the Videoconference. B. Replace the laptop. C. Check the audio inputs. D. Try another microphone. Answer: C Explanation: The technician should check that the audio inputs are configured correctly for the videoconference software and that they are not muted or disabled.The technician should also make sure that the microphone is plugged in properly and that it is not faulty or damaged.If possible, the technician should test the microphone on another device or use another microphone on the same device to isolate the problem. Reference: https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/a-core-1-content-guide (page 11) QUESTION NO: 41 A technician is troubleshooting a network issue. Users report that the connection keeps dropping and reconnecting every few seconds. The technician: Verifies the network configuration settings are correct on the workstation Tests the network cable from the workstation to the switch and finds no issues Uses a known-good workstation on the existing network cable and replicates the reported issue Which of the following should the technician do next? A. Add new network hardware to reduce congestion. B. Assign a static IP to the impacted workstations. C. Validate the environment for external interference. D. Check the network logs for evidence of port flapping. Answer: C Explanation: Since the issue of the network connection dropping has been replicated on a known-good workstation using the same network cable, it suggests that the problem may not be with the individual workstations or the cable. The next logical step is to check for external interference, such as electrical or wireless interference that could be disrupting the network connection. * C. Validate the environment for external interference: External factors, such as nearby electronic devices or poor cabling, can cause intermittent network drops. Checking for interference would be a prudent next step. Why the other options are incorrect: * A. Add new network hardware to reduce congestion: There's no evidence that network congestion is the issue, and adding new hardware without identifying the cause is premature. * B. Assign a static IP to the impacted workstations: The issue appears to be related to the physical network connection or environment, not IP addressing. * D. Check the network logs for evidence of port flapping: Port flapping occurs when a network port rapidly switches between up and down states. While checking logs could provide information, external interference is a more likely culprit given the symptoms. 22  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! This issue is part of the Networking Troubleshooting domain in the CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam. QUESTION NO: 42 A company wants to use client-side visualization for application testing. Which of the following configurations would BEST support this goal? A. B. C. D. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 43 A salesperson is using a weather application on a mobile device. The application appears to be draining the device's battery very quickly. Which of the following is the BEST action for the salesperson to take in order to view weather forecasts while traveling? A. Enable the GPS service to ensure accurate location detection. B. Update the PRL when getting to a new location. C. Configure less location checks using cellular location services, D. use the offices' Wi-Fi IP addresses as the geolocation mechanism. Answer: C Explanation: The best action for the salesperson to take in order to view weather forecasts while traveling and minimize the battery drain on their mobile device is to configure fewer location checks using cellular location services. This can be done by adjusting the settings for the weather application to limit how often it checks for updates and uses location services. This will help to conserve the battery on the device and keep the application from consuming too much power. 23  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! QUESTION NO: 44 Which of the following differentiates PAN from LAN? A. PAN creates a wireless connection between smart devices. B. PAN creates a highly secure environment. C. PAN creates a faster connection. D. PAN needs regular maintenance to function properly. Answer: A Explanation: A Personal Area Network (PAN) is designed to connect devices in close proximity, typically within a few meters, often using wireless technologies like Bluetooth. This allows for the interconnection of smart devices such as smartphones, tablets, and wearables within an individual's personal space. Unlike a Local Area Network (LAN), which covers a larger geographical area such as a home or office building and can support wired and wireless connections, a PAN specifically facilitates wireless connections between personal devices. References: * CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives Section 2.7: Compare and contrast Internet connection types, network types, and their features. QUESTION NO: 45 A new HD webcam's image only updates one or two times per second. The specifications indicate the webcam is capable of updating 30 frames per second. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the issue? A. The USB 2.0 port has insufficient bandwidth. B. The Thunderbolt connector is not compatible. C. The VGA cable does not support a digital signal. D. The connection should - instead of STP. Answer: A Explanation: The USB 2.0 port has insufficient bandwidth to support a high-definition webcam that can update 30 frames per second. USB 2.0 has a maximum theoretical bandwidth of 480 Mbps, which may not be enough for HD video streaming. The user should try using a USB 3.0 port or a Thunderbolt connector, which have higher bandwidths and can support HD webcams. The Thunderbolt connector is compatible with USB devices, so it is not the cause of the issue. The VGA cable and the STP cable are not related to the webcam, as they are used for video output and network connection respectively. QUESTION NO: 46 A help desk technician plugged in a user's new computer to a network port After a few minutes the computer showed an APIPA address. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason this happened? A. The WLAN is disabling the NIC card. B. The network cable is not attached. C. The PC is unable to contact a DHCP server 24  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! D. The DHCP server is using addresses in the range of 169.254.254.1. Answer: C Explanation: The most likely reason for a computer showing an APIPA address after being plugged into a network port is that the PC is unable to contact a DHCP server1. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a DHCP fail- safe that protects a computer system from failure. It invokes a standby mechanism for local Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) networks supported by Microsoft Windows. With APIPA, DHCP clients can obtain IP addresses even when DHCP servers are not functional1. The other options are less likely to be the cause of the issue1. QUESTION NO: 47 A technician is setting up a home network with the following requirements: Automatic distribution of IP addresses. Internet access Which of the following should the technician configure? (Select two). A. DHCP B. APIPA C. VPN D. Public IP addresses E. Gateway F. Static IP addresses Answer: A E Explanation: DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is a protocol that allows a device to automatically obtain an IP address and other network settings from a DHCP server, such as a home router. This simplifies the network configuration and avoids IP address conflicts. DHCP is a common requirement for home networks that have multiple devices that need Internet access. A gateway is a device that connects two different networks, such as a home network and the Internet. A gateway usually performs routing functions, which means it determines the best path for packets to reach their destination. A gateway also often performs NAT (Network Address Translation), which allows multiple devices on a home network to share a single public IP address. A gateway is a necessary requirement for home networks that need Internet access. References Understanding DHCP on Home Networks Basic home gateway services: DHCP, DNS, NAT IP Addresses on Home Networks - A Beginner's Guide QUESTION NO: 48 A technician is working to replace a single DDR3 RAM module on a laptop that has two occupied slots_ When the technician tries to tum on the laptop, the computer starts beeping and does not pass POST The technician double-checks the newly installed RAM and notices a motherboard message indicating low voltage. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this Issue? 25  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! A. Faulty power adapter B. Incorrect BIOS settings C. Failing CMOS battery' D. Unsupported memory Answer: D Explanation: Memory modules are physical components that store data and instructions for the computer to access and process. Memory modules have different specifications and features, such as type, speed, capacity, voltage, and form factor. These specifications and features must be compatible with the motherboard and the processor of the computer, otherwise the memory modules may not work properly or cause errors. In this scenario, the technician is working to replace a single DDR3 RAM module on a laptop that has two occupied slots. DDR3 stands for Double Data Rate 3, and it is a type of memory technology that offers faster performance and lower power consumption than its predecessors. DDR3 RAM modules have different variants, such as DDR3L, DDR3U, or DDR3R, which have different voltage requirements. For example, DDR3L operates at 1.35V, DDR3U operates at 1.25V, and DDR3R operates at 1.5V. When the technician tries to turn on the laptop, the computer starts beeping and does not pass POST. POST stands for Power-On Self-Test, and it is a process that checks the hardware components and functionality of the computer before loading the operating system. If POST detects an error or a failure, it may produce a series of beeps or codes to indicate the problem. The number and pattern of beeps or codes may vary depending on the manufacturer or model of the computer. The technician double-checks the newly installed RAM and notices a motherboard message indicating low voltage. This means that the motherboard is not receiving enough power from the memory module to operate normally. This could indicate that the memory module is not compatible with the motherboard or the processor, or that it is defective or damaged. The most likely cause of this issue is that the technician installed an unsupported memory module that has a lower voltage than what the motherboard or the processor requires. To resolve this issue, the technician should remove the newly installed RAM module and replace it with a compatible one that has the same voltage as the existing ones. The technician should also check the specifications and features of the motherboard and the processor to ensure that they support the type, speed, capacity, and form factor of the memory modules. The technician should also follow proper safety precautions when handling memory modules, such as wearing an anti-static wrist strap, avoiding physical damage or static discharge, and aligning the notches correctly. QUESTION NO: 49 A user reports that a PC occasionally falls to boot. The user reboots the PC. but the performance is degrading. The technician hears a strange, repetitive, ticking noise coming from the PC. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST? A. Try to extract data. B. Reseat the RAM modules. C. Inspect the fan. 26  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! D. Check the CD tray. Answer: A Explanation: This is a safe and sensible option if you value your data more than anything else. You don't want to risk losing your data by trying other methods that may worsen the situation. You can use a software tool or a service provider to recover your data before attempting any repairs. QUESTION NO: 50 A technician is adding one more line at the demarcation point. Which of the following tools would be MOST useful to accomplish this task? A. Toner B. Punchdown C. Network tap D. Crimper Answer: B Explanation: Punchdown tools are used to make connections between wires in a 66/110 block at the demarcation point. The tool is used to insert the wire into the appropriate holes in the block, and it can be used to add additional lines to the demarcation point. The other options are not the correct tools for adding lines to the demarcation point. A toner is used to identify cable pairs, a network tap is used to monitor network traffic, and a crimper is used to terminate cables. QUESTION NO: 51 Which of the following virtualization technologies is best suited for running microservices? A. Containers B. VDI C. Type 2 hypervisors D. Type 1 hypervisors Answer: A Explanation: Containers are lightweight, isolated environments perfect for deploying and running microservices in a cloud or virtualized infrastructure. QUESTION NO: 52 Which of the following handles touch-screen operation on a mobile device? A. Stylus B. Liquid crystal display C. Processor D. Digitizer Answer: D Explanation: A digitizer is a component that handles touch-screen operation on a mobile device. It is a layer of material that detects and converts the touch of a finger or a stylus into an electrical 27  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! signal that can be processed by the device12. A digitizer works with a display screen to create a touch-screen interface that allows a user to interact with the device by touching pictures or words on the screen. QUESTION NO: 53 A user reports that a PC occasionally fails to start. The user restarts the PC, but the performance is degrading. The technician hears a strange repetitive ticking noise coming from the PC. Which of the following should the technician do first? A. Try to extract data B. Reseat the RAM modules C. Inspect the fan D. Check the CD tray Answer: A Explanation: The ticking noise likely indicates a failing hard drive. The technician should attempt to extract data before the drive fails completely. QUESTION NO: 54 A user is attempting to connect a streaming media device to a hotel's tree wireless internet However, the user is unable to pass through the captive portal. Which of the following would MOST likely allow the user to connect the device to the internet? A. Connecting to the hotspot on the user's device B. Disabling the Wi-Fi security on the device C. Asking the hotel to disable the captive portal on the Wi-Fi D. Adjusting the date and time stamps on the device to reflect another country Answer: A Explanation: A captive portal is a web page that requires users to agree to terms and conditions, enter credentials, or provide payment information before accessing a wireless network. Some devices, such as streaming media devices, may not have a web browser or a user interface to interact with the captive portal. One possible solution is to connect to the hotspot on the user's device, such as a smartphone or a tablet, and use it as a bridge to access the internet through the wireless network. The user's device can authenticate with the captive portal and share its internet connection with other devices via Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, or USB. Reference: https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/a-core-1-content-guide (page 12) QUESTION NO: 55 An engineer is troubleshooting a missing new drive in Windows 10 and discovers the drive was formatted before going offline. Which of the following steps should the engineer take to resolve the issue? A. Close any applications that are utilizing too many resources. B. Remove any excess cables connected to the motherboard. C. Check if the drive was formatted to ext4. 28  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! D. Enable low power mode on all the other connected devices. Answer: C Explanation: When a new drive is not recognized by Windows 10, and it's known that the drive was formatted before going offline, checking the file system format is crucial. Windows does not natively recognize the ext4 file system, commonly used in Linux environments. If the drive was inadvertently formatted to ext4, Windows would not display or allow access to it. The solution involves reformatting the drive to a file system that Windows recognizes, such as NTFS or FAT32, ensuring the drive becomes visible and accessible within Windows 10. QUESTION NO: 56 A user reports limited or no connectivity on a laptop. A technician runs ipconf ig /all with the following result: Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue? A. DHCP failure B. ARP cache C. DNS resolution D. Duplicate IP address Answer: A QUESTION NO: 57 A technician needs to configure a printer for network communications Which of the following must the technician configure? (Select THREE). A. PCL B. Dots per Inch C. Gateway D. Subnet mask E. MAC address F. IMEI G. IP address H. Drivers Answer: C D G Explanation: To configure a printer for network communications, the technician must configure its network settings, such as gateway, subnet mask, and IP address. The gateway is the IP address of the router or device that connects the printer to other networks or the internet. The subnet mask is a value that defines which part of the IP address identifies the network and which part identifies the host or device on that network. The IP address is a unique identifier that 29  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! allows the printer to communicate with other devices. QUESTION NO: 58 A user reports that all print jobs sent to a laser printer have random and incorrect characters throughout the pages. Which of the fallowing actions should the technician do to resolve this issue? A. Replace the fuser. B. Adjust the rollers. C. Update the driver. D. Shake the toner Answer: C Explanation: One of the possible causes of random and incorrect characters appearing on print jobs sent to a laser printer is an outdated or corrupted driver. The driver is a software component that communicates between the operating system and the printer, and converts data into a format that the printer can understand. If the driver is outdated or corrupted, it may send incorrect or garbled data to the printer, resulting in poor print quality or errors. The technician should update the driver to the latest version from the manufacturer's website, or uninstall and reinstall it if necessary. Reference: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/a-core-1-220- 1101-study-guide (page 47) QUESTION NO: 59 A user's smartphone loses its charge rapidly. The user also notices that the phone feels thicker than it was when it was new. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue? A. Bad battery B. Malware infection C. Damaged charge port D. Poor connectivity Answer: A Explanation: The user's smartphone is losing its charge rapidly and feels thicker than it was when new. Both of these symptoms point towards a bad battery. A bad battery loses its ability to hold a charge, leading to rapid draining. Additionally, a bad battery can physically swell, which explains why the phone feels thicker. Malware infection, damaged charge port, and poor connectivity are unlikely causes for both the rapid draining and the increased thickness. References CompTIA A+ Certification Core 1 220-1101 Study Guide, Chapter 2: Mobile Devices, Section 2.2 Mobile Device Batteries https://www.comptia.org/training/books/a-core-1-220-1101-study-guide QUESTION NO: 60 A user submitted a support ticket that states all of the printouts from a laser printer appear to have double images imposed on them. A review of past printer support tickets shows that 30  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! maintenance kit has not been installed in more than a year. Which of the following printer consumables is MOST likely causing the issue? A. Separation pad B. Transfer roller C. Ink cartridge D. Fuser Answer: D Explanation: https://www.vingle.net/posts/4651722 QUESTION NO: 61 Which of the following external monitor connections provides the highest possible resolution for a PC? A. Thunderbolt B. DVI C. VGA D. HDMI E. DisplayPort Answer: E Explanation: DisplayPort is a type of external monitor connection that provides the highest possible resolution for a PC. DisplayPort supports up to 8K resolution at 60 Hz, or 4K resolution at 120 Hz, with a maximum bandwidth of 32.4 Gbps. DisplayPort also supports audio, multiple monitors, and adaptive sync. DisplayPort is compatible with other types of connections, such as HDMI and DVI, with adapters. References: The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Student Guide (Exam 220-1101) eBook, page 3-9. QUESTION NO: 62 A customer brings a phone top a repair shop because it is experiencing extreme slowness and applications are crashing. A technician attempts to install a diagnostic application. but the installation fails. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST to troubleshoot the issue? A. Check the storage space. B. Inspect the screen for damage. C. Install the latest updates. D. Recalibrate the digitizer. Answer: A Explanation: One of the possible causes of extreme slowness and application crashes on a phone is low or insufficient storage space. This can affect the performance and functionality of the phone, as well as prevent new applications from being installed or updated. The technician should 31  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! check the storage space on the phone and see if there is enough free space available for the diagnostic application and other operations. The technician should also advise the customer to delete or move any unnecessary or unused files, apps, or data from the phone to free up some space. Reference: https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/a-core-1- content-guide (page 10) QUESTION NO: 63 An administrator is replacing 15.000rpm hard drives in a server. Which of the following is the interface type the drives most likely use? A. IDE B. SAS C. eSATA D. SATA Answer: B Explanation: SAS (Serial Attached SCSI) is an interface type that supports high-speed data transfer and high-performance hard drives, such as 15,000rpm drives. SAS drives are commonly used in servers that require fast access and reliability. IDE (Integrated Drive Electronics), eSATA (external SATA), and SATA (Serial ATA) are not suitable for 15,000rpm drives, as they have lower speed and performance. Reference: [CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Certification Study Guide], page 22. QUESTION NO: 64 A technician is troubleshooting a thermal receipt printer that will not print. Which of the following should the technician do first to restore functionality? A. Update the printer driver on the computer. B. Replace the thermal printhead. C. Make sure the thermal head is heating up. D. Flip the paper roll orientation. Answer: C Explanation: In the case of a thermal receipt printer that will not print, the first step in troubleshooting should be to ensure that the thermal head is heating up. Thermal printers operate by applying heat to a special thermally sensitive paper, creating marks on the paper to form text and images. If the thermal head is not heating up, it cannot create these marks, leading to no print output. Verifying that the thermal head is operational can help isolate the issue, whether it's a hardware malfunction of the thermal head itself or another problem in the printer. References: * CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Exam Objectives, specifically sections dealing with printer technologies and troubleshooting methods, which would include understanding the operational basics of different types of printers, including thermal receipt printers. * Fundamental knowledge of how thermal printers function, emphasizing the critical role of the thermal head in the printing process and the need to ensure it's operational when troubleshooting printing issues. 32  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! QUESTION NO: 65 A user's computer is not receiving a network connection. The technician confirms that the connection seems to be down and looks for the user's port on the patch panel. The port and patch panel are not labeled. Which of the following network tools should the technician use to identify the port? A. Network tap B. Punchdown tool C. Toner probe D. Crimper Answer: C Explanation: Toner Probe Many cable testers also incorporate the function of a toner probe, which is used to identify a cable from within a bundle. This may be necessary when the cables have not been labeled properly. The tone generator is connected to the cable using an RJ45 jack and applies a continuous audio signal on the cable. The probe is used to detect the signal and follow the cable over ceilings and through ducts or identify it from within the rest of the bundle. QUESTION NO: 66 A user connected a laptop to a projector. The image on the screen is very fuzzy, but the image's brightness is satisfactory. Which of the following projector settings should the user adjust first to correct the issue? A. Focus B. Aspect ratio C. Keystone D. Resolution Answer: A Explanation: When a user connects a laptop to a projector and the image displayed is very fuzzy (blurred) but the brightness level is satisfactory, the first setting to adjust on the projector is the focus. The focus control adjusts the clarity and sharpness of the projected image. Incorrect focus settings can lead to a fuzzy or blurred image even when the brightness is adequate. Adjusting the focus should help in making the image clear and sharp. References: * CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Exam Objectives, particularly sections related to configuring and troubleshooting display devices, including projectors and their common settings like focus, aspect ratio, keystone, and resolution. * Basic understanding of how projectors work and the common adjustments that can be made to improve image quality, with focus being a primary control for addressing issues of image clarity. QUESTION NO: 67 Multiple users contact the help desk to report issues with the network fileshares. Files are accessible, but performance is very slow. Which of the following should a technician perform 33  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! first? A. Defragment the files on the network share. B. Ask the users to perform a network speed test. C. Check the RAID drive status LEDs. D. Start the process of rebuilding the array. Answer: C Explanation: The correct answer is C. Check the RAID drive status LEDs. RAID stands for Redundant Array of Independent Disks, which is a technology that combines multiple physical disks into a logical unit that provides improved performance, reliability, or both1. RAID can be implemented using hardware or software, and there are different levels of RAID that use different methods of data distribution and redundancy1. One of the common issues with RAID is disk failure, which means that one or more of the disks in the array stop working properly. Disk failure can affect the performance and availability of the network fileshares, depending on the RAID level and the number of failed disks2. For example, RAID 0, which uses striping to split data across multiple disks, has no redundancy and will lose all data if any disk fails. RAID 1, which uses mirroring to duplicate data on two disks, can tolerate one disk failure and still function. RAID 5, which uses striping with parity to distribute data and error correction information across three or more disks, can also tolerate one disk failure and still function1. One of the ways to detect disk failure is to check the RAID drive status LEDs, which are lights that indicate the health and activity of each disk in the array. Different RAID controllers may have different LED patterns and colors, but generally, a green LED means that the disk is working normally, a red LED means that the disk has failed or is offline, an amber LED means that the disk is degraded or rebuilding, and a blinking LED means that the disk is active or busy34. The first step that a technician should perform when troubleshooting network fileshare issues is to check the RAID drive status LEDs to see if any disk has failed or is degraded. This can help identify the cause of the problem and determine the appropriate solution. For example, if a disk has failed in a RAID 1 or RAID 5 array, the technician can replace the failed disk and rebuild the array to restore performance and redundancy. If a disk has failed in a RAID 0 array, the technician will need to restore the data from a backup2. The other options are not the best steps to perform first. Defragmenting the files on the network share may improve performance by reducing fragmentation, but it will not solve the problem if there is a disk failure in the RAID array. Asking the users to perform a network speed test may help diagnose network issues, but it will not help identify disk issues in the RAID array. Starting the process of rebuilding the array may be necessary after replacing a failed disk, but it should not be done before checking the RAID drive status LEDs. QUESTION NO: 68 A company would like to take advantage of the cost savings of cloud computing by only paying for the resources used. Which of the following will BEST address this need? A. Shared resources B. Rapid elasticity 34  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! C. Metered utilization D. High availability Answer: C Explanation: Metered utilization is a cloud feature that allows cloud providers to charge customers based on their actual consumption of resources, such as CPU time, storage space, bandwidth, or transactions.This enables customers to pay only for the resources they use, rather than a fixed or flat rate, which can reduce costs and increase efficiency. Metered utilization can also provide more transparency and accountability for both cloud providers and customers, as they can track and monitor their resource usage and billing. Reference: https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/a-core-1-content-guide (page 97) QUESTION NO: 69 Which of the following translates a hostname to IP addresses? A. AAA B. DHCP C. DNS D. UTM Answer: C Explanation: DNS stands for Domain Name System, which is a network service that translates hostnames to IP addresses. Hostnames are human-readable names that identify devices or services on the Internet, such as www.google. com or mail.yahoo.com. IP addresses are numerical identifiers that specify the location of devices or services on the Internet, such as 172.217.14.206 or 98.137.11.163. DNS allows users to access websites or services by using hostnames instead of IP addresses, which are easier to remember and type. DNS also allows hostnames to change their IP addresses without affecting the users, which can improve performance and security. References: The following web search results provide more information about DNS and how it translates hostnames to IP addresses: What is DNS? | How DNS Works | Cloudflare: This article explains the concept of DNS, its components, its functions, and its benefits. Hostname vs. IP - address - Stack Overflow: This answer compares the differences betwee n hostnames and IP addresses, and how DNS resolves them. How DNS Works: Domain Name System(DNS): This article illustrates how DNS works with diagrams and examples. QUESTION NO: 70 Which of the following protocols provides the fastest bandwidth? A. 802.11a B. 802.11ac C. 802.11ax D. 802.11n 35  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! Answer: C Explanation: The 802.11ax protocol, also known as Wi-Fi 6, provides the fastest bandwidth among the options listed. It can achieve up to 10 Gbps of data transfer rate, using technologies such as OFDMA, MU-MIMO, and 1024- QAM. The 802.11ac protocol, or Wi-Fi 5, is the second fastest, with a maximum of 3.46 Gbps, followed by the 802.11n protocol, or Wi-Fi 4, with a maximum of 600 Mbps. The 802.11a protocol is the slowest, with a maximum of 54 Mbps https://www.lifewire.com/wireless-standards-802-11a-802-11b-g-n-and-802-11ac-816553 QUESTION NO: 71 Which of the following ports allows for secure communications? A. 20 B. 22 C. 23 D. 25 Answer: B Explanation: The correct answer is B. 22. Port 22 is the default port for SSH (Secure Shell), a protocol that allows secure and encrypted remote login and command execution over a network. SSH uses public key cryptography to authenticate the client and the server, and to encrypt the data exchanged between them. SSH can be accessed through different ports, depending on the configuration of the server and the client. The default port for SSH is 22, but it can be changed to any other port for security reasons1. Port 20 is the default port for FTP (File Transfer Protocol) data transfer, a protocol that allows file transfer between a client and a server over a network. FTP uses two ports: one for data transfer (port 20) and one for control commands (port 21). FTP does not provide encryption or authentication, and it is vulnerable to various attacks, such as packet sniffing, spoofing, or brute force. To secure FTP connections, protocols such as FTPS (FTP over SSL) or SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol) can be used2. Port 23 is the default port for Telnet, a protocol that allows remote login and command execution over a network. Telnet does not provide encryption or authentication, and it sends data in plain text, which can be easily intercepted or modified by attackers. Telnet is considered obsolete and insecure, and it should be replaced by SSH or other secure protocols3. Port 25 is the default port for SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol), a protocol that allows sending and receiving email messages over a network. SMTP does not provide encryption or authentication, and it can be exploited by spammers or hackers to send malicious or unwanted emails. To secure SMTP connections, protocols such as SMTPS (SMTP over SSL) or STARTTLS (Transport Layer Security) can be used. Therefore, port 22 is the only port that allows for secure communications by default, as it uses SSH protocol. For more information about ports and their security, you can refer to the following web search results: How to secure your TCP/IP ports, What is an SSL port? A technical guide for HTTPS, HTTPS Port: What It Is, How to Use It, and More (2023). 36  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! QUESTION NO: 72 A technician is upgrading memory on a laptop that is experiencing performance issues. Which of the following RAM types should most likely be specified for installation? A. ECCDIMMDDR5 B. High latency DDR5 C. Registered DIMM DDR5 D. SODIMM DDR5 Answer: D Explanation: For laptops, the most common type of RAM used is Small Outline Dual Inline Memory Module (SODIMM) due to its smaller size compared to DIMMs used in desktops. DDR5 is the latest generation of RAM, offering higher speed and efficiency. ECC (Error-Correcting Code) DIMM DDR5 and Registered DIMM DDR5 are typically used in servers and high-end workstations for error correction and stability, not in standard laptops. High latency DDR5 is not a desirable specification for RAM as lower latency is preferred for faster performance. References: * CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives Section 3.2: Given a scenario, install the appropriate RAM. QUESTION NO: 73 A Microsoft Windows user is preparing to work in another country and needs to comply with corporate policy for data protection when copying files to portable media. Which of the following solutions would MOST likely satisfy this requirement? A. A USB 3.1 flash drive with BitLocker to Go installed B. An SD memory card with NTFS C. An xD memory card with ext3 D. A portable hard drive with FAT32 Answer: A Explanation: Using a USB 3.1 flash drive with BitLocker to Go installed is the best option for complying with corporate policy for data protection when copying files to portable media. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Ninth Edition, Chapter 12 QUESTION NO: 74 A technician tries installing different toners to fix a printer that is printing blank pages, but the issue persists. Which of the following is most likely causing the issue? A. Printer drum B. Printer ink C. Environmental temperature D. Corrupted printer drivers Answer: A 37  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! Explanation: A printer drum is a component of a laser printer that transfers the toner to the paper. It is a cylindrical metal or plastic piece that is coated with a photosensitive material. The drum is charged by a laser beam, which creates an electrostatic image of the document to be printed. The toner then sticks to the charged areas of the drum, and the drum rolls over the paper, transferring the toner to the paper and creating the printout1. If the printer drum is damaged, worn out, or dirty, it may not be able to transfer the toner properly, resulting in blank pages. According to some web search results23, some signs that a printer drum needs to be replaced are: *Faint, light, faded, or blank printed pages *Streaks, spots, or lines on the printed pages *Error messages indicating a drum problem To fix this issue, the technician may need to clean or replace the printer drum. Some web search results12 provide instructions on how to perform a manual drum cleaning or replacement. Printer ink is not a likely cause of the issue, since the user has already tried installing different toners and the issue persists. Toner is the powder used by laser printers, while ink is the liquid used by inkjet printers. They are not interchangeable4. Environmental temperature is not a likely cause of the issue, since most printers can operate in a wide range of temperatures. However, extreme temperatures may affect the quality and performance of some printers. For example, high temperatures may cause ink to dry out or toner to clump, while low temperatures may cause ink to freeze or toner to become brittle. Corrupted printer drivers are not a likely cause of the issue, since they would affect the communication between the printer and the computer, not the printing process itself. Corrupted printer drivers may cause errors, delays, or incorrect outputs, but not blank pages. QUESTION NO: 75 A PC's boot drive is showing signs of imminent failure, and a technician needs to recover the data. Which of the following should the technician do first? A. Clone the drive to another one. B. Access the Device Manager. C. Download the drive manufacturer's diagnostic tool. D. Uninstall the drive in the Device Manager. E. Replace the drive with a new one. Answer: A Explanation: The first step to recover data from a failing drive is to clone the drive to another one, which means creating an exact copy of the drive's contents, including the operating system, applications, files, and settings, to a new drive. Cloning the drive can preserve the data and prevent further damage or data loss from the failing drive. Cloning the drive can also allow the technician to boot from the new drive and access the data normally, without needing to reinstall the operating system or the applications12. The other options are not as effective or relevant as cloning the drive. Accessing the Device Manager may not help with data recovery, as it is a tool that displays and manages the hardware devices and drivers on a PC. The Device Manager may show the status of the 38  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! failing drive, but it cannot copy or restore the data from it3. Downloading the drive manufacturer's diagnostic tool may help with identifying and repairing some errors or issues with the drive, but it may not be able to recover the data if the drive is physically damaged or corrupted. The diagnostic tool may also overwrite or erase some data during the repair process, which can make the data recovery more difficult or impossible4. Uninstalling the drive in the Device Manager may not help with data recovery, as it removes the drive from the system and its driver from the operating system. Uninstalling the drive may make the drive inaccessible or unrecognized by the PC, which can prevent the data recovery5. Replacing the drive with a new one may not help with data recovery, as it does not transfer the data from the old drive to the new one. Replacing the drive may also require reinstalling the operating system and the applications, which can take time and effort. Replacing the drive may also discard the old drive, which may still contain some recoverable data. References: * CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3: Hardware, Section 3.3: Storage Devices, Page 140 * CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Exam Cram, Chapter 3: Storage, Section 3.5: Disk Management, Page 107 * CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2: Operating Systems, Section 2.4: Device Manager, Page 84 * CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Exam Cram, Chapter 3: Storage, Section 3.6: Troubleshooting Storage Devices, Page 111 * CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2: Operating Systems, Section 2.4: Device Manager, Page 85 * CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Exam Cram, Chapter 3: Storage, Section 3.6: Troubleshooting Storage Devices, Page 112 QUESTION NO: 76 A technician is asked to purchase and install a line-of-sight wireless system that provides a stable network connection between two buildings. Which of the following needs to be considered prior to purchasing the system? A. IP address range B. SSID broadcast C. Firewall rules D. Regulatory power limits Answer: D Explanation: A line-of-sight wireless system is a type of wireless communication that requires a clear and unobstructed path between the transmitter and the receiver. This can be achieved by using directional antennas that focus the radio signals in a narrow beam. A line-of-sight wireless system can provide a stable network connection between two buildings that are within the 39  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! range and visibility of each other. However, before purchasing and installing a line-of-sight wireless system, one of the factors that needs to be considered is the regulatory power limits. The power limit is the maximum amount of radio frequency (RF) energy that a transmitter can emit. Different countries and regions have different regulations and standards for the allowable power levels of wireless devices. Exceeding the power limit can cause interference with other wireless services, such as aviation, radio, television, etc. It can also pose health and safety risks to humans and animals. Therefore, a technician should check the local laws and regulations for the power limits of the wireless system before buying and installing it. The technician should also use a proper tool to measure the actual power output of the transmitter and adjust it accordingly. The technician should also ensure that the transmitter and receiver are aligned properly and have a clear line of sight without any obstacles. The other options are not relevant to the line-of-sight wireless system. The IP address range is a set of numerical identifiers that are assigned to devices on a network. It does not affect the physical transmission of wireless signals. The SSID broadcast is a feature that allows a wireless network to announce its name and availability to nearby devices. It does not affect the stability of the network connection between two buildings. The firewall rules are a set of policies that control the incoming and outgoing traffic on a network. They do not affect the line-of-sight wireless system. References: * Wireless line-of-sight, non-line-of-sight, beyond-line-of-sight propagation * Point-to-point Wi-Fi bridging between buildings-the cheap and easy way * How Does Wireless Internet, or Line of Sight Internet Work? * Line-of-Sight Transmission - Engineering LibreTexts * What is Line of Sight (LoS)? - Definition from Techopedia QUESTION NO: 77 A user's Windows PC is unable to connect to the network at a new branch office that the user is visiting. A technician discovers the PC is unable to ping the local gateway. Which of the following commands should the technician use next? A. ipconfig B. cd config C. ifconfig D. show config Answer: A Explanation: ipconfig is a command-line tool that displays the current configuration of the network interfaces on a Windows PC. It can also be used to release and renew the IP address, flush the DNS cache, and display the routing table. If the PC is unable to ping the local gateway, the technician should use ipconfig to check the IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers of the PC. The technician can also use ipconfig /renew to request a new IP address from the DHCP server, or ipconfig /flushdns to clear the DNS cache. References 40  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! *[CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1001) Certification Study Guide], page 78 *How to use the ipconfig command on Windows 10 *How to Ping the Windows Network Router QUESTION NO: 78 A technician is configuring the BIOS of a new workstation. The machine will be used for data analytics, and the technician would like to maximize the performance of the CPU. Which of the following BIOS settings should the technician verify? A. Virtualization technology B. GPU settings C. BIOS update D. Hyperthreading Answer: D Explanation: Hyperthreading is a feature of some CPUs that allows them to execute two threads (sequences of instructions) simultaneously on each core. Hyperthreading can improve the performance of CPU-intensive tasks, such as data analytics, by increasing the utilization of CPU resources and reducing idle time. The technician should verify that hyperthreading is enabled in the BIOS settings of the workstation. QUESTION NO: 79 A technician was called in to look at a user's PC. The user reported the PC was very sluggish. The HDD light on the PC was constantly on without blinking. The PC itself was slow receiving input and took a very long time to load the OS. The technician also noticed updates had failed. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of these issues? A. The hard disk drivers have been corrupted B. The HDD cables need reseating. C. A RAID disk failed. D. The HDD has no free space. Answer: D Explanation: If a user's PC is very sluggish, the HDD light on the PC is constantly on without blinking, the PC itself is slow receiving input, and it takes a very long time to load the OS, the HDD has no free space is most likely the cause of these issues. When the hard disk drive (HDD) has no free space, the computer may become slow and unresponsive. The technician should check the amount of free space on the HDD and delete any unnecessary files to free up space. QUESTION NO: 80 A technician has been called into a conference room to help with a video call setup. The user is unable to get the laptop screen to mirror to the in-room television. The technician confirms that the appropriate HDMI cable is plugged into the user's computer and the TV has a blinking logo on the screen Which of the following is most likely causing the issue? A. The user's laptop does not support screen mirroring B. The television does not support screen mirroring 41  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! C. The wrong input is selected on the television. D. The user does not have Bluetooth enabled on the laptop. E. The television has a defective A/C adapter cable. Answer: C Explanation: When a laptop screen fails to mirror to a television despite being correctly connected via an HDMI cable, a common issue is that the television is set to the wrong input source. Modern televisions have multiple input options (e.g., HDMI 1, HDMI 2, AV, etc.), and selecting the correct input that corresponds to the port the HDMI cable is connected to is essential for displaying the laptop's screen. The blinking logo on the TV screen typically indicates that the TV is functioning but not receiving a signal from the selected input source. Changing the TV's input to the correct HDMI port should resolve the issue and allow the laptop screen to mirror onto the TV.References: Hardware 1101.docx, "Connecting External Displays" section. QUESTION NO: 81 Which of the following is used to define a range of IP addresses available to assign using DHCP? A. Scope B. Address C. Lease D. Reservation Answer: A Explanation: A scope is a term used to define a range of IP addresses available to assign using DHCP. DHCP stands for Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol, and it is a protocol that automatically assigns IP addresses and other network configuration parameters to devices on a network. A scope defines the start and end IP addresses, as well as other options, such as subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers. QUESTION NO: 82 A user that works is sales is reporting that the output on each page printed from a laser has duplicate images. Which of the following should be performed FIRST to eliminate the ghost images? A. Change the paper weight setting. B. Replace the printer's fuser. C. Upgrade the printer firmware. D. Clean the toner drums and rollers Answer: D Explanation: If a laser printer is producing output with duplicate images (also known as ghost images), it could be due to an issue with the toner drums and rollers. The first step to eliminate the ghost images would be to clean the toner drums and rollers to remove any excess toner that may be causing the issue. 42  IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! Ghost images are a common issue in laser printers where an image or text from a previous page appears faintly on subsequent pages. The cause of this issue is usually due to toner residue on the drum or rollers, which can be removed by cleaning the toner drums and rollers. References: Study Guide Section 4.6 - Printer technologies QUESTION NO: 83 A technician made several upgrades to a computer and then determined the power supplied by the PSU is insufficient. Which of the following would MOST likely cause the insufficiency? (Select TWO). A. Replacing the HDD with an SSD B. Upgrading the firmware C. Adding an optical drive D. Adding more RAM E. Adding a CMOS battery F. Upgrading the graphics card Answer: D F Explanation: If a technician made several upgrades to a computer and then determined the power supplied by the PSU is insufficient, the upgraded graphics card and adding more RAM would most likely cause the insufficiency. Upgrading the graphics card and adding more RAM can increase the power consumption of a computer, which can cause the power supplied by the PSU to be insufficient. Adding more RAM and upgrading the graphics card are the most likely causes of the insufficiency of power supplied by the PSU. These upgrades require more power to operate efficiently and can cause the PSU to become insufficient. QUESTION NO: 84 A technician is trying to fix a computer that fails to boot even when all the RAM is removed. Which of the following should the technician do next to troubleshoot the issue? A. Inspect the motherboard for swollen capacitors. B. Replace the CMOS battery_ C. Swap the power supply if it is inoperable. D. Check to see if the HDD power connectors are well seated Answer: C Explanation: The next step that the technician should do to troubleshoot the issue is C. Swap the power supply if it is inoperable. A power supply is a device that converts the alternating current (AC) from the wall outlet into direct current (DC) that the computer components can use. A power supply is essential for the computer to boot and function properly. A faulty or inadequate power supply can cause various issues, such as no power, no display, random shutdowns, or beeping sounds. In this scenario, the technician is trying to fix a computer that fails to boot even when all the RAM is removed. RAM stands for Random Access Memory, and it is a type of memory that stores data and instructions for the processor to access and process. RAM is also essential