EVS 3 PDF Past Paper

Module 3 Environmental Pollution & Waste Management & Public Health Aspects Objective type questions & answers: 1. Ground water characteristics must be monitored at least once in a till design span. a) Week b) Month c) Day...

Module 3 Environmental Pollution & Waste Management & Public Health Aspects Objective type questions & answers: 1. Ground water characteristics must be monitored at least once in a till design span. a) Week b) Month c) Day d) Quarter 2. Ground water samples should be collected at least up to a distance km. a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 3. If no open wells are available, action needs to be taken to provide at least monitoring wells. a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 4. How should the monitoring wells be arranged in the absence of bore wells? a) One on up gradient and other three on the down gradient b) One on up gradient and other two on the down gradient c) One on up gradient and other one on the down gradient d) One on up gradient and other four on the down gradient 5. The ground water flow direction has to be ascertained periodically and reported at least a) Once in a year b) Once in two years c) Once in three years d) Once in four years 6. The directions of the ground water flow have to be established with a) State Ground Water Board b) Water Control Board c) PCB d) SPCB 7. When did the Central Pollution Control Board established? a) 1970 b) 1972 c) 1974 d) 1976 8. Who appoints the chairman of the Central Pollution Control Board? a) Central Government b) State Government c) Governor of the State d) President of India 9. Which one of the following is the apex organization in the country in the field of pollutioncontrol? a) Water Pollution Control Board b) State Pollution Control Board c) Central Pollution Control Board d) Air pollution Control Board 10. How many officials can be nominated to the Central Pollution Control Board by the CentralGovernment? a) Five b) Ten c) Twenty d) Twenty Five 11. In State Pollution Control Boards, how many constitutions of committees can constitute? a) One b) Ten c) Not constitute any committees d) As many committees as necessary  12. Where is the head office of the Central Pollution Control Board? a) Mumbai b) Raipur c) Mysore d) New Delhi 13. Who decides the term of the Member Secretary in the Central Pollution Control Board? a) Chairman of the Central Pollution Control Board b) President of India c) Prime Minister of India d) Government of India 14. What is the full form of NAMP? a) National Air Quality Monitoring Program b) National Air Quality Measuring Program c) National Air Quantity Monitoring Program d) National Air Quality Monitoring Protocol 15. When did the Karnataka State Pollution Control Board for Prevention and Control of Water Pollution constituted? a) 1974 b) 1978 c) 1982 d) 1985 16. In how many tier programs the inland water quality monitoring network is operating? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four 17. When did the National Green Tribunal Act constituted? a) 2000 b) 2005 c) 2010 d) 2015 18. Which is the first country to pass the amendment in the parliament to safeguard theenvironment? a) Brazil b) Denmark c) China d) India 19. Groundwater containing bacteria and viruses can result in a) Cholera b) Methemoglobinemia c) Kidney problem d) Liver problem 20. is caused by drinking water high in nitrates. a) Cholera b) Methemoglobinemia c) Kidney problem d) Liver problem  21. contaminant causes kidney and liver problems if present in groundwater. a) Benzene b) Toluene c) Benzotoulene d) Lead 22. is caused due to groundwater contamination by septic tank. a) Cholera b) Methemoglobinemia c) Kidney problem d) Hepatitis 23. from leachate cause chest pain in humans in case of acute exposure. a) Lead b) Benzene c) Mercury d) Cadmium 24. from leachate can lead to coma in humans in case of acute exposure. a) Lead b) Benzene c) Phenol d) Cadmium 25. from leachate can lead to gum disease in humans in case of acute exposure. a) Nickel b) Benzene c) Phenol d) Cadmium 26. Leachate containing lead causes in humans in case of long term exposure. a) Anorexia b) Tremor c) Anaemia d) Renal failure 27. Leachate containing mercury causes in humans in case of long term exposure. a) Anorexia b) Tremor c) Anaemia d) Renal failure 28. regulates ground water that is shown to have a connection with surface water. a) CWA b) SDWA c) RCRA d) CERCLA 29. SDWA established drinking water source protection programs. a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 30. regulates treatment and storage of hazardous waste to prevent contamination. a) CWA b) SDWA c) RCRA d) CERCLA 31. act authorizes the government to clean up contamination from hazardoussubstances. a) CWA b) SDWA c) RCRA d) CERCLA 32. regulates pesticide use to prevent groundwater contamination. a) FIFRA b) SDWA c) RCRA d) CERCLA 33. The water which in a state of downward movement under gravity is a) Groundwater b) Vadose water c) Connate water d) Juvenile water 34. What is the process of movement downwards of vadose water called? a) Infiltration b) Filtration c) Deposition d) Down-flow 35. What is the upper surface of the zone saturation called? a) Aquifer` b) Aquiclude c) Water table d) Aquifuge 36. What is the water obtained from precipitation called? a) Meteoric water b) Connate water c) Juvenile water d) Secondary water 37. Water present in rocks from the time of their deposition is a) Meteoric water b) Connate water c) Juvenile water d) Secondary water  38. What is usually the nature of connate water? a) Sweet b) Odour c) Salty d) Odourless 39. Juvenile water is also called a) Meteoric water b) Connate water c) Magmatic water d) Secondary water 40. Some hot springs are derived from which water? a) Meteoric water b) Connate water c) Juvenile water d) Secondary water 41. The vadose water which is lost to the atmosphere by transpiration and evaporation is a) Soil water b) Intermediate water c) Phreatic water d) Water table 42. Which zone is a zone of non-saturation among vadose water? a) Soil water b) Intermediate water c) Phreatic water d) Water table 43. Which zones are together called zone of aeration? a) Soil water and intermediate zone b) Intermediate zone and zone of capillary water c) Zone of capillary water and phreatic water d) Soil water and phreatic water 44. The zone of water which occurs only in fine particle size is a) Soil water b) Intermediate water c) Phreatic water d) Zone of capillary water 45. Which vadose water zone is also called the zone of saturation? a) Soil water b) Intermediate water c) Phreatic water d) Zone of capillary water 46. Which of the following is not a negative effect of storm water? a) Volume b) Runoff c) Potential contaminants d) Evaporation 47. Pollutants entering surface waters during precipitation events is termed a) Runoff b) Polluted runoff c) Contaminated runoff d) Water flow 48. Water is recycled into the atmosphere by vegetation through the process called a) Evaporation b) Evapotranspiration c) Precipitation d) Runoff 49. Stream erosion can be caused by excess a) Precipitation b) Evapotranspiration c) Penetration d) Transpiration 50. Which of these is a single event? a) Monsoon rain b) Flash flood c) Flood d) Volcano eruption 51. What is the amount spent in the UK every year because of flooding? a) £250 b) £260 c) £270 d) £280 52. When was SWMM developed? a) 1970 b) 1980 c) 1990 d) 2000 53. Which year was the SWMM approved? a) 2000 b) 2002 c) 2005 d) 2008 54. In which of the months does the maximum sewage flow occur in India? a) March b) May c) July d) September 55. poisoning water in Japan is from fishes. a) Bismuth b) Arsenic c) Antimony d) Palladium 56.Fishes can store more quantity of in their bodies. a) Mercury b) Bismuth c) Palladium d) Chlorine  56. Waste water released from are not the sources of bacteria. a) Sanitaria b) Municipalities c) Tanning d) Industries 57. Bacteria and microorganisms present in the water will cause in human and animals. a) Indigestion b) Intestinal tract c) Brain tumour d) Cancer 58. Amoebic dysentery is caused by a) Viruses b) Bacteria c) Helminth d) Protozoa 59. Bacteria in water causes a) Malaria b) Typhoid c) Dengue d) Chicken guinea 60. Helminth in the water causes a) Hook worm b) Amoebic dysentery c) Cholera d) Typhoid 61. The is an important requirement of the aquatic life. a) Dissolved nitrogen b) Dissolved chlorine c) Dissolved oxygen d) Dissolved methane 62. The optimum value in natural water is a) 2-4ppm b) 4-7ppm c) 4-6ppm d) 2-7ppm 63. What is the full form of BOD? a) Biochemical oxygen demand b) Biological oxygen demand c) Biometric oxygen deep water d) Biological oxygen deep water 64. The disappearance of the plants and animals is due to the in water. a) Nitrogen depletion b) Chlorine depletion c) Oxygen depletion d) Ozone depletion  65. The decomposition of the matter produces into and in presence of a) Carbon dioxide and oxygen b) Oxygen and nitrogen c) Nitrogen and carbon dioxide d) Nitrogen and chlorine 66. In which temperature soil develops slowly? a) Summer b) Wind c) Rainy d) Cold 67. Under ideal climatic conditions how many cms of soil is developed? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four 68. What is called for the matured soils which are arranged in a series of zones? a) Soil zones b) Soil layers c) Soil horizons d) Soil benches 69. What is soil profile? a) A cross sectional view of the horizons in a soil b) A front view of the horizons in a soil c) A cross sectional view of the horizons in rocks d) A front view of the horizons in rocks 70. How many horizons are there in soils? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four 71. Which horizon helps to determine the pH of the soil? a) A b) B c) C d) O 72. What is called for the mixture of all the contents of soil? a) Erosion b) Sublimation c) Degradation d) Loams 73. What is called for the movement of surface litter and topsoil from one place to another? a) Soil submerge b) Soil degradation c) Soil erosion d) Soil pollution  74. Why continuous contour trenches are used? a) To decrease the infiltration of air b) To enhance the infiltration of air c) To decrease the infiltration of water d) To enhance the infiltration of water 75. What is used to convert wastelands into agricultural lands? a) Check dams b) Water purifier c) Rain harvesters d) Gradonies 76. Organic agriculture advocates avoiding the use of a) Organic manure b) Stored water c) Modern technologies in harvesting d) Chemical fertilizers 77. What is noise? a) Desirable sound b) Desirable and unwanted sound c) Undesirable and unwanted sound d) Undesirable and wanted sound 78. In which unit sound is measured? a) Kilometer b) Pascal c) Kilogram d) Decibel 79. Which pollution cause hearing loss in organisms? a) Air pollution b) Noise pollution c) Water pollution d) Soil pollution 80. What is the dB of a threshold of hearing? a) 0 b) 10 c) 50 d) 100 81. What is the dB of a threshold of pain? a) 100 b) 110 c) 120 d) 146 82. At what decibel instantaneous rupture of membrane happens? a) 100 b) 120 c) 146 d) 150 83. What is the ambient noise level in the residential one during night time? a) 40 dB b) 45 dB c) 50 dB d) 55 dB 84. What is called for a temporary hearing loss? a) Temporary ear pain b) Temporary hearing problem c) Temporary threshold shift d) Temporary hearing shift 85. At what level a sound becomes physical pain? a) Above 50 dB b) Above 70 dB c) Above 80 dB d) Above 100 dB 86. Which of the following sound is pleasant to our ears? a) Heavy machinery b) Transportation equipment c) Loud noise d) Music 87. Wildlife faces more problems than humans due to noise pollution, because animals dependent on a) Noise b) Sound c) Actions d) Behavior 88. When did the Noise Pollution Regulations and Control Rule established in India? a) 2000 b) 2004 c) 2005 d) 2007 89. What timings loud speakers shouldn’t use in public areas? a) 10:00 pm to 5:00 am b) 1:00 am to 7:00 am c) 11:00 pm to 6:00 am d) 10:00 pm to 6:00 am 90. When can a person complaint to the police regarding noise pollution level? a) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 10 dB b) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 20 dB c) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 30 dB d) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 50 dB 91. What is the meaning of silence zone for noise pollution? a) Area comprising more than 100 meters around hospitals and educational institutes b) Area comprising not less than 100 meters around hospitals and educational institutes c) Area comprising more than 100 meters around clubs and commercial streets d) Area comprising not less than 100 meters around clubs and commercial streets 92. When did the Factories Act constitute in India? a) 1930 b) 1947 c) 1948 d) 1956 93. Which Ministry published a draft of Noise Pollution Rules? a) Ministry of Foreign Affaires b) Ministry of Pollution Control c) Ministry of Industries d) Ministry of Environment and Forests 94. In which year the Motor Vehicles Act came into force? a) 1983 b) 1984 c) 1988 d) 1990 95. One of the efficient ways to control aircraft noise is a) Building aircrafts with old technologies b) Maximize the passengers to 100 c) Increase the amount of pressure it can withstand d) Constructing aerodromes far away from the residential areas 96. In which section, if a person violates the noise pollution regulations, is liable for penalty? a) Section 12 b) Section 15 c) Section 18 d) Section 19 97. What is the db level for heavy vehicles in India? a) 70 b) 75 c) 77 d) 80  98. What are the ambient air quality standards in industrial area during day time? a) 75 db b) 80 db c) 85 db d) 100 db 99. In which Act, noise is included as an environmental pollutant? a) 1974 b) 1981 c) 1988 d) 1994 100. What is the primary standard level for carbon monoxide for assuring air quality? a) 10ppm b) 90ppm c) 1ppm d) 9ppm 101. What is the primary function(s) of the alveoli? a) Transfer of oxygen to the blood b) Removal of carbon dioxide from the blood c) Transfer of toxic substances to the blood d) All of the mentioned 102. Particles of what size are filtered by the nasal passage? a) >10micrometre b) >500 micrometre c) >1 mm d) >5 micrometre Answer: a Explanation: The moist nasal passage can capture dust particles above 10 micrometre. 103. What is the effect of ozone on human respiratory system? a) It has higher affinity to bind with haemoglobin and does not allow binding of oxygen b) It causes the disfigurement of the alveoli reducing the surface area for gaseous transfer c) It damages lung tissues and aggravates asthma d) All of the mentioned 104. Which of the following pollutants is the major contributor to photochemical smog? a) Peroxynitrates b) Hydroperoxides c) Nitrogen dioxide d) Ozone 105. What are the effects of sulphur dioxide on the human body? a) It causes the malfunction of liver and kidney b) It breaks down body’s immunity towards particulate matter and bacteria c) It causes blood cells to dilate thereby affecting blood flow through the circulatory system d) All of the mentioned 106. How does increase in temperature affect air pollution? a) Higher temperatures reduce air pollution b) Higher temperatures increase air pollution c) Temperature does not affect the air pollution levels d) Humidity factor is also necessary to predict variance of air pollution with temperature 107. When did the air pollution on earth happened first time? a) When humans started using tools b) When humans started using firewood c) When humans started using clothes d) When humans started using wheels 108. Who made the first anti-pollution law? a) Martin Luther King b) Nelson Mandela c) Queen Elizabeth d) King Edward 109. Which was the first major disaster of air pollution? a) New York smog b) London smog c) Paris smog d) Delhi smog 110. What is the significance of black color moth in Europe during 19th century? a) Indication of evolution b) Indication of soil pollution c) Indication of mutation d) Indication of air pollution 111. What is the main cause of increase in air pollution in the 20th century? a) Development of the transport system b) Development of infrastructures c) Development of electricity d) Development of water resources 112. How many primary pollutants are there? a) Three b) Five c) Seven d) Nine  113. What are secondary pollutants? a) Pollutants due to fire b) Pollutants due to emission c) Pollutants due to a chemical reaction d) Pollutants due to oxidation 114. Which is the colorless, odorless and toxic gas which produced when organic materials incompletely burn? a) Sulphur oxide b) Carbon monoxide c) Oxygen d) Particulates 115. Which of the following cause soot in the environment? a) Hydrocarbons b) Nitrogen oxide c) Sulphur oxide d) Particulates 116. What is aerosol? a) General term for particles in air b) General term for particles in soil c) General term for particles in water d) General term for particles inside humans 117. What is smog? a) Mixture of smoke and particulates b) Mixture of smoke and oxygen c) Mixture of smoke and fog d) Mixture of soot and fog 118. Aerosol + solid particles + liquid particles results in a) Dust b) Mist c) Smog d) Smoke 119. Which of the following is used in ceramic industries? a) Electrostatic precipitator b) Dynamic precipitator c) Spray tower d) Wet cyclonic scrubber 120. Wet scrubbers are classified into types. a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 6 121. The centrifugal collectors are classified into how many types? a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 2 122. Which of the following air pollution control device has maximum efficiency? a) Electrostatic precipitator b) Dynamic precipitator c) Spray tower d) Wet cyclonic scrubber 123. Which of the following fluid is used in web scrubbers? a) Lime b) MgSO4 c) NaCl d) K2Cr2O7 124. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the fabric filter? a) They can remove very small particle b) They are liable to chemical attack c) They have low efficiency in comparison to venturi scrubber d) They can handle large volume of gas at relatively high speed 125. Which of the following removes both gaseous and particulate contaminants? a) Venturi scrubber b) Gravitational settling chamber c) Dynamic precipitator d) Wet scrubber 126. Identify the correct statement regarding the Electrostatic precipitator. a) Minimum particle size removal is