Six Sigma Quiz PDF
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This quiz contains questions about Six Sigma, its methodology and key application areas. The questions test the understanding of quality improvement techniques to increase efficiency and effectiveness. It is likely a past paper or practice questions for a course on quality systems management or similar.
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1\. The correct progression of expertise is \_\_\_\_\_. A. black, white, green and yellow belt B. black, green, yellow and white belt C. yellow, white, black and green belt D. white, yellow, green and black belt 2\. The term Six Sigma refers to all of the following, except \_\_\_\_\_. A....
1\. The correct progression of expertise is \_\_\_\_\_. A. black, white, green and yellow belt B. black, green, yellow and white belt C. yellow, white, black and green belt D. white, yellow, green and black belt 2\. The term Six Sigma refers to all of the following, except \_\_\_\_\_. A. variation B. performance metric C. methodology D. philosophy 3\. DMAIC are the five phases of a Six Sigma project \_\_\_\_\_. A. for improving all the X factors that impact Y in Y=f(x) B. to determine and address the key X factors to improve Y in Y=f(x) C. to measure the Y in Y=f(x) D. for designing a new process, product or service 4\. The \_\_\_\_\_ approves the project charter. A. primary stakeholder B. project champion C. project leader D. CEO 5\. CTQs are the performance characteristics of a process, product or service that are critically important to \_\_\_\_\_. A. suppliers B. customers C. managers D. processors 6\. For a process whose distribution follows the Normal curve, \_\_\_\_\_. A. 99.9997% of the variation lies within 3 standard deviations of the mean B. 90% of the variation lies within 3 standard deviations of the mean C. 99.7% of the variation lies within 3 standard deviations of the mean D. 95% of the variation lies within 3 standard deviations of the mean 7\. How do you calculate Defects Per Million Opportunities or DPMO? A. Take the total number of defects, multiplied by one million. B. Take the total number of defects divided by the total number of opportunities, multiplied by one million. C. Count your total defects and divide by one million. 8\. A six sigma level of performance means there is no more than 3.4 defects per million opportunities. A. TRUE B. FALSE 9\. Projects should address a deficiency or improvement opportunity that is any of the following, except \_\_\_\_\_. A. recurring and chronic B. specific and measurable C. generic and widely applicable D. significant in operational and financial impact 10\. When selecting Six Sigma project team members, your primary goal should be to select \_\_\_\_\_. A. the best performers in the company B. the best people for that project C. people who have availability for that project D. people who volunteer for the project 11.Key elements of the project charter include all of the following, except \_\_\_\_\_. A. expected benefits B. problem statement C. strategic vision D. project scope 12\. The P in SIPOC stands for \_\_\_\_\_. A. process B. people C. problem D. project 13.Steps in the Define phase include all of the following, except \_\_\_\_\_. A. developing problem and goal statements B. developing solutions C. develop the SIPOC diagram D. developing the project charter 14\. The goal statement should not be \_\_\_\_\_. A. specific B. broad C. measurable D. time-bound 17.Steps in the Measure phase include all of the following, except \_\_\_\_\_. A. process mapping B. developing a data collection plan C. measuring the Y D. measuring the X 18\. When planning for data collection, you should start by \_\_\_\_\_ A. measuring performance B. developing a list of specific questions C. developing the process map D. developing a list of potential causes 19\. When mapping the process, you should \_\_\_\_\_. A. redesign the process B. Improve the process C. change the process D. document the process flow 20.T he measurement system should be \_\_\_\_\_. A. repeatable and redesigned B. repeatable and repetitive C. reworked and redone D. repeatable and reproducible 21.All of the following are graphs and charts for continuous data, except \_\_\_\_\_. histograms box plots dot plots Pareto charts 22\. The higher the process capability, the higher the sigma level. A. FALSE B. TRUE 23\. Hypothesis testing is used to \_\_\_\_\_. A. prove the key Xs B. propose theories on Y C. test the measurement system D. develop test solutions 24\. Right after brainstorming, the number of proven causes on a cause-effect diagram is/are \_\_\_\_\_. A. zero B. at least five C. one D. unlimited 25\. A pilot is a dry run or trial run on a small scale to make sure that improvements will work as planned. A. FALSE B. TRUE 26\. A tool for selecting solutions is \_\_\_\_\_. A. multi-voting B. criteria selection matrix C. creative thinking D. brainstorming 27\. Steps in the Improve phase include all of the following, except \_\_\_\_\_. A. prove the root causes B. select solutions C. evaluate solution alternatives D. generate potential solutions 28\. The levels of mistake-proofing are all of the following, except \_\_\_\_\_. A. detection B. facilitation C. prevention D. inspection 29.RPN or Risk Priority Number is the product of all three of the following scores, except \_\_\_\_\_. A. severity B. occurrence C. risk D. detection 30\. Steps in the Control phase include all of the following, except \_\_\_\_\_. A. monitor performance B. develop an improvement plan C. update procedures D. develop a control plan 31\. Control plans tell you all of the following, except \_\_\_\_\_. A. what to improve B. when to take action C. what to control D. what action to take 32\. SPC charts signal when to intervene and when to leave the process alone. A. FALSE B. TRUE 33\. What best-practice service management framework is ISO/IEC 20000 aligned with? A. COBIT B. ITIL C. itSMF D. PMBOK 34\. Which of the following BEST describes a Service Management System (SMS)? A. an application that tracks adherence to service level agreements B. representation of how an organization manages its services C. a database that captures service uptime D. a signed document between the service provider and customer regarding service performance 35\. Which of the following ISO/IEC 20000 clauses addresses the resources, competencies, awareness, communication documented information and knowledge necessary to support the SMS? A. terms and definitions B. IT Governance C. support of the SMS D. normative references 36\. Which of the following is the correct list of clauses addressed in the ISO/IEC 20000 standard? A. plan, do, check, act B. support of the SMS, operation of the SMS, perfomance evaluation, improvement C. context of the organization, leadership, planning, support of the SMS, operation of the SMS, performance evaluation, improvement D. concept, requirements, design, build, test, deploy, support 37\. Which clause addresses the organization and its context, interested parties, scope, and establishment of the SMS? A. delegation B. supply and demand C. improvement D. context of the organization 38\. Internal audit, management review and service reporting are part of which ISO/IEC 20000 clause? A. assurance B. performance evaluation C. planning D. leadership 39\. In the service assurance clause, which of the following is the correct list of appropriate sub-clauses? A. service availability management, service continuity management, information security management B. nonconformity and corrective action, continual improvement C. leadership & commitment, policy, roles, responsibilities and authorities D. risks and opportunities, objectives, plan the SMS 40\. Which of the following BEST describes the Service Portfolio? A. the ability to motivate groups of people towards a common goal B. plan, schedule, and control the build, test, and deployment of releases aimed to deliver new or updated functionality required by the business C. a complete listing of all of IT\'s products and services D. an unplanned interruption or reduction in the quality of a service 41\. What are the two types of customers identified in the Business Relationship Management clause? A. corporate, non-corporate B. internal, external C. contractor, auditor D. financial, non-financial 42\. Which of the following are the correct sub-clauses to the Service Design, Build, and Transition clause? A. context of the organization, leadership and planning B. change management policy, change management initiation, change management activities C. nonconformity and corrective action, continual improvement D. change management, service design and transition, release & deployment management 43\. Why would an organization choose to use the ISO/IEC 20000-2 publication? A. to determine specific security requirements for information B. to determine exactly how to implement incident management at the organization C. to understand the correct list of requirements in the standard D. to gain additional advice and suggestions on how to meet the requirements 44\. Who is accountable for fulfilling the standard when implementing an SMS? A. all contracted third parties associated with the implementation B. internal auditors C. customers of the services provided by the service provider D. the organization\'s service provider 45\. What types of information does the ISO/IEC 20000-2 publication provide? A. required activities, explanations, and other information B. specific roles and activities for each member of the service management organization C. requirements for the implementation of an SMS D. a list of potential risks that could affect the SMS 46\. In a presentation to senior management regarding the use of ISO/IEC 20000-2 in your SMS implementation, a VP asked you to explain the key benefits of using this publication. Which of the following would be an appropriate response? A. The descriptions offer real advice, from global experts and professionals who developed the standard, to help your organization create new ways to look at delivering services. B. The standard provides vague statements on how to create an information security program. C. This publication has no relevance to senior management. D. The standard identifies which services the service provider should provide as well as the suggested service level agreements associated with those services. 47\. Which of the following revolutions occurred in the 1980s with the large spread adoption of computers? A. First B. Second C. Fourth D. Third 48\. What is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for enabling value to customers in the form of services? A. Service management B. Service levels C. Service options D. Service companies 49\. What term best describes a person or a group of people that has its own functions with responsibilities, authorities, and relationships to achieve its objectives? A. Customer B. Consumer C. Service provider D. Organization 50\. A \_\_\_\_\_ is a means of value co-creation by facilitating outcomes that customers want to achieve, without the customer having to manage specific costs and risks. A. warranty B. outcome C. service offering D. service 51\. What term best describes a service that is \'fit for use\'? A. utility B. value C. warranty D. outcome 52\. The purpose of the \_\_\_\_\_ is to ensure that the organization continually co-creates value with all stakeholders through the use and management of products and services. A. Activities B. Service value chain C. Service value system D. Practices 53\. Which describes the nature of the guiding principles? A. Each guiding principle mandates specific actions and decisions. B. An organization will select one of the principles to adopt. C. A guiding principle can guide an organization in all circumstances. D. Guiding principles describe the processes that all organizations must adopt. 54\. Which of the following is NOT an activity within the service value chain? A. Plan B. Obtain/Build C. Engage D. Continual improvement 55\. Which service management dimension is focused on the communication systems and knowledge bases used by employees? A. Organizations and people B. Information and technology C. Partners and suppliers D. Value streams and processes 56\. A(n) \_\_\_\_\_ is any component that needs to be managed in order to deliver an IT service. A. outputs B. product C. asset D. configuration item 57\. \_\_\_\_\_ is/are defined as a recommendation that can guide an organization in all circumstances and will guide organizations when adopting service management. A. Guiding principles B. Focus on value C. Service value chain D. Governance 58\. How does customer engagement contribute to the \'service level management\' practice? 1\. It captures information that metrics can be based on. 2\. It ensures the organization meets defined service levels. 3\. It defines the workflows for service requests. 4\. It supports progress discussions. A. 3 and 4 B. 1 and 4 C. 2 and 3 D. 1 and 2 59\. Which two needs should 'change enablement' balance? 1\. The need to assess risks and expected benefits. 2\. The need to manage a change schedule. 3\. The need to make beneficial changes. 4\. The need to protect customers and users. A. 2 and 3 B. 1 and 4 C. 1 and 2 D. 3 and 4 60\. A service is a means of enabling value co-creation by facilitating \_\_\_\_\_ that customers want to achieve. A. outputs B. the utility C. outcomes D. the warranty 61\. Which is NOT a key focus of the 'information and technology' dimension? A. Workflow management and inventory systems B. Roles and responsibilities C. Communication systems and knowledge bases D. Security and compliance 62\. Which practices are typically involved in the implementation of a problem resolution? 1\. continual improvement 2\. service request management 3\. service level management 4\. change enablement A. 1 and 4 B. 1 and 2 C. 2 and 3 D. 3 and 4 63\. Which describes outcomes? A. tangible or intangible deliverables B. functionality offered by a product or service C. configuration of an organization's resources D. results for a stakeholder 64\. What is the definition of warranty? A. a possible event that could cause harm or loss, or make it more difficult to achieve objectives B. the functionality offered by a product or service to meet a particular need C. a tangible or intangible deliverable that is produced by carrying out an activity D. the assurance that a product or service will meet agreed requirements 65\. Organizations that provide IT services use ITIL v3 and 4 concepts and practices to achieve what? A. technical certifications B. service portfolios C. management reorganization D. key outcomes 66\. Organizations that provide IT services use ITIL v3 and 4 concepts and practices to achieve what? A. technical certifications B. service portfolios C. management reorganization D. key outcomes 67\. How do ITIL key principles, terminology, and models benefit so many organizations today? A. by providing one-size-fits-all practices B. by restructuring organizations\' financial incentives C. by requiring that only management learns ITIL concepts D. by being embedded in IT management tools 68\. Sandy is planning to provide ITIL training for her employees. How can ITIL compliance be used to benefit her organization? A. by prescribing best practices from unmodified example situations B. by embedding differing language concepts across the organization C. by providing employees a ready-made model to support IT governance initiatives D. by decreasing responsiveness to changing customer needs 69\. How are examples of best practices in ITIL meant to be viewed, used, and applied? A. They are vendor-specific, providing methodologies for one vendor that do not apply to others. B. They are descriptive, describing what to do and how it may work in your situation. C. They are prescriptive, prescribing 100 percent effective practices. D. They are dogmatic, focusing on the means instead of the end goals. 70.