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CutePreRaphaelites

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2019

SRMJEEE

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physics exam questions physics srjee multiple choice questions

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This is a collection of physics exam questions from the SRM, JEE Engineering Entrance Exam. The questions cover various physics concepts, and topics like mechanics, optics etc..

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SRMJEEE – 2019 Q1 : Which of the following is both unitless and dimensionless? A angle B solid angle C mechanical equivalent of heat D refractive index Correct Ans : D Q2 : How many astronomical units are there in 1 metre A 6.68 1012 Au B 6.68 1...

SRMJEEE – 2019 Q1 : Which of the following is both unitless and dimensionless? A angle B solid angle C mechanical equivalent of heat D refractive index Correct Ans : D Q2 : How many astronomical units are there in 1 metre A 6.68 1012 Au B 6.68 10-10 Au C 6.68 1010 Au D 6.68 10-12 Au Correct Ans : D Q3 : A lift is moving up with an acceleration equal to 1/5 of that due to gravity. The apparent weight of a 60 kg man standing in lift is: A 60 kg wt B 72 kg wt C 48 kg wt D zero Correct Ans : B Q4 : The friction of air causes a vertical resistance of 10% in acceleration due to gravity. The maximum height will be decreased by A 11% B 10% C 9% D 8% Correct Ans : C Q5 : A projectile can have the same range R for two angles of projection. If t1 and t2 can be the times of flight in the two cases then what is the product of the two times of flight? A t1 t 2 R2 B t1 t 2 R C t1 t 2 1/R D t1 t 2 1/R2 Correct Ans : B Q6 : A body is moving with a constant speed 'V' in a circle of radius r. Its angular acceleration is __________ A vr SRMJEEE – 2019 B zero C v/r D v/r2 Correct Ans : B Q7 : If total energy of an earth's satellite is zero, it means that A The satellite is bound to earth B The satellite may no longer be bound to earth's field C The satellite moves away from the orbit along a parabolic path D The satellite escapes in a hyperbolic path Correct Ans : C Q8 : A spring balance is graduated on sea level. If a body is weighed with this balance at consecutively increasing heights from earth's surface, the weight indicated by the balance A will go on increasing continuously B will go on decreasing continuously C will remain same D will first increase and then decrease Correct Ans : B Q9 : A steel ring of radius r and cross sectional area 'A' is fitted on to a wooden disc of radius R (R > r). If the Young's modulus be Y, then what is the force with which steel ring is expanded? A B C D Correct Ans : D Q10 A tuning fork arrangement produces 4 beats/second with one fork of frequency 288 Hz. A little : wax is applied on the unknown fork and it then produces 2 beats/s. The frequency of the unknown fork is......Hz. A 286 B 292 C 294 D 288 Correct Ans : B SRMJEEE – 2019 Q11 What is the phase difference between velocity and acceleration of a particle executing SHM? : A 0 B C /2 D /4 Correct Ans : C Q12 A stone is dropped into a lake by a person from a 500m high tower. He would hear the sound : after approximately A 10 sec B 11.5 sec C 14 sec D 21 sec Correct Ans : B Q13 If the values of R=2/5 Cv for a gas, then the atomicity of the gas will be : A mono atomic B diatomic C polyatomic D triatomic Correct Ans : B Q14 A domestic refrigerator is loaded with food and the door closed. During a certain period the : machine consumes 1 KWh of energy and the internal energy of the system drops by 5000KJ. Find the net heat transfer for the system. A -8.6 MJ B 86MJ C -86MJ D -8.6KJ Correct Ans : D Q15 If the rate at which the radiation is conuited by a black body at 0oC is 2 watt, the rate of : emission at 273oC will be A 4 watt B 8 watt C 16 watt D 20 watt Correct Ans : C SRMJEEE – 2019 Q16 If the door of a refrigerator in a room is kept open, the temperature of room will be : A increase B decrease C remain constant D uncertain Correct Ans : A Q17 The resolution limit of eye is 60 s. At a distance of X km from the eye two persons stand with : lateral separation of 3 m. For the two persons to be just resolved by eye, X should be A 10 km B 15 km C 20 km D 30 km Correct Ans : A Q18 Convex lens always gives a real image if the object is situated beyond ______________ : A Optic centre B Focus C Radius of curvature D Centre of curvature Correct Ans : B Q19 How many orders will be visible if the wavelength of the incident radiation is 5000 and the : number of lines on the grating is 2620 in one inch? A 20 B 19 C 18 D 15 Correct Ans : B Q20 Huygen's principle of secondary waves is used to : A obtain the wave front geometrically B explain polarisation C obtain focal length of thick lenses D explain dispersion of light Correct Ans : A Q21 What determines the charge that flows through a circuit due to the induced emf? : SRMJEEE – 2019 A The total change of magnetic flux B The rate of change in magnetic flux and resistance C The initial magnetic flux D The final magnetic flux Correct Ans : B Q22 A pair of coil has a mutual inductance of 2 H, if the current in the primary changes from 10 A to : zero in 0.1 S, the induced emf in the secondary will be A 100 V B 200 V C 300 V D 400 V Correct Ans : B Q23 The unit of relative permittivity is : A C2N-1m-2 B Nm2C-2 C unitless D NC-2m-2 Correct Ans : C Q24 The frequency of the charged particle circular at right angles to a uniform magnetic field does : not depend upon the A speed of the particle B mass of the particle C charge of the particle D magnetic field Correct Ans : A Q25 The ratio of the radii of the nuclei 13Al 27 and 52Te 125 is approximately : A 6:10 B 13:52 C 40:17 D 14:73 Correct Ans : A Q26 If ionising energy of H atom is 13.6eV, then the second ionising energy of He should be : A 13.6eV B 27.2eV SRMJEEE – 2019 C 54.4eV D cannot be predicted. Correct Ans : C Q27 Radiation of two photons having energies twice and five times the work function of a metal are : incident successively on the metal surface. Find out the ratio of maximum velocity of photo electrons emitted in the two cases. A v1/v2=1/3 B v1/v2=1/4 C v1/v2=1 D v1/v2=1/2 Correct Ans : D Q28 An electron in Bohr's hydrogen atom has an energy of -3.4 eV. The angular momentum of the : electron is: A h/ B h/2 C nh / 2 (n is an integer) D 2h / Correct Ans : A Q29 Weak nuclear forces act on : A both hadrons and leptons B hadrons only C All particles D leptons only Correct Ans : C Q30 : When boron is bombarded by neutron, alpha particles are emitted. The resulting nucleus has the mass number. A 11 B 7 C 6 D 15 Correct Ans : B Q31 A piece of an ancient wooden boat shows an activity of C14 of 3.9 disintegrations per minute per : gm of carbon. Estimate the age of the boat, if the half life of C14 is 5.568 years. Assume that the activity of fresh carbon -14 is 15.6 dpm.gm A 11.136 years B 8.121 years SRMJEEE – 2019 C 6.312 years D 12.631 years Correct Ans : A Q32 Which of the following transitions in hydrogen atoms emit photons of highest frequency? : A n = 1 to n = 2 B n = 6 to n = 2 C n = 2 to n = 6 D n = 2 to n = 1 Correct Ans : D Q33 The most widely used rectifier is : A Half-wave rectifier B Centre-tap full-wave rectifier C Bridge full-wave rectifier D Quarter-wave rectifier Correct Ans : C Q34 Connecting a lead from the negative to the positive of a battery will produce : A a high resistance circuit B a short circuit C a low current path D an open circuit Correct Ans : B Q35 What is the net charge if a certain semiconductor losses 4 valence electrons? : A +4 B -4 C +8 D -8 Correct Ans : A Q36 X-rays of wave-length 1.14 A in the first order reflection from a crystal, were reflected at an : angle of 30o. The inter planar distance in the crystal is (Sin 30o is 0.5) A 3.8Ao B 1.14Ao C 0.342Ao SRMJEEE – 2019 D 2.28Ao Correct Ans : B Q37 In a flask of 'V' litres, 0.2 moles of O2, 0.4 moles of N2, 0.1 moles of NH3 and 0.3 moles of He : gases are present at 27oC. If total pressure exerted by these non-reaching gases is 1 atm, the partial pressure exerted by N2 gas is A 0.4 atm B 0.3 atm C 0.2 atm D 0.1 atm Correct Ans : A Q38 The density of O2 is 16 at NTP. At what temperature its density will be 14? consider that the : pressure remain the constant at A 50oC B 39oC C 57oC D 43oC Correct Ans : B Q39 The correct sequence which shows decreasing order of the ionic radii of the elements is : A Al3+ > Mg2+ > Na+ > F- > O2- B Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ > O2- > F- C Na+ > F- > Mg2+ > O2 > Al3+ D O2- > F- > Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ Correct Ans : D Q40 IUPAC name of element having atomic number 108 is : A Unniloctium B Ununoctium C Nilniloctinium D Ununoctinium Correct Ans : A Q41 The hybridization of NH3 and NO2- : A sp3 and dsp2 B sp and sp3 C sp3 and sp2 D spd2 and sp2 SRMJEEE – 2019 Correct Ans : C Q42 The nature of positive rays depends on : A The nature of discharge tube B The nature of electrode C The nature of the gas in the discharge tube D Pressure of the gas in the discharge tube Correct Ans : C Q43 One mole of oxygen gas at STP is equal to : A 16 g of oxygen B 6.022 1023 atoms of oxygen C 36 g of oxygen D 12 g of oxygen Correct Ans : B Q44 Mean distance between atoms in the range of : A 25 nm B 2.5 nm C 0.25 nm D 0.025 nm Correct Ans : C Q45 What is the mass of 0.5 mole of ozone molecule? : A 14 g B 24 g C 12 g D 18 g Correct Ans : B Q46 The hybridization of sulphur in sulphur dioxide is: : A sp B sp3 C sp2 D dsp2 Correct Ans : C SRMJEEE – 2019 Q47 Hydrogen bonding is maximum in : A Ethanol B Diethyl ether C Ethyl Chloride D Triethyl amine Correct Ans : A Q48 The 3s orbital has : A no node B 1 node C 2 nodes D 3 nodes Correct Ans : C Q49 Which parameter always increases during spontaneous change? : A G B S total C H D n(g) Correct Ans : B Q50 If an endothermic reaction is non-spontaneous at freezing point of water and becomes feasible : at its boiling point, then A H is -ve, S is +ve B H and S both are +ve C H and S both are -ve D H is + ve, S is -ve Correct Ans : B Q51 At constant T and P, which one of the following statements is correct for the : reaction A H= E B H< E C H> E SRMJEEE – 2019 D H is independent of the physical state of the reactants Correct Ans : B Q52 The binary mixtures having the same composition in liquid and vapour phase and boil at a : constant temperature are called A Solid solutions B Azeotropes C Ideal solution D Zwitter ions Correct Ans : B Q53 Molarity of 4.9g of H2SO4 in 250 cm3 solution is : A 0.1 M B 0.2 M C 0.05 M D 0.5 M Correct Ans : B Q54 The degree of dissociation of 0.1 M HCN solution is 0.01%. Its ionization constant would be : A 10-9 B 10-3 C 10-7 D 10-11 Correct Ans : A Q55 The pH of 0.1 M solution of the following salts increases in the order : A NaCl< NH4 Cl < NaCN < HCl B HCl < NH4 Cl < NaCl < NaCN C NaCN< NH4Cl < NaCl < HCl D HCl < NaCl < NaCN < NH4Cl Correct Ans : B Q56 On the electrolysis of aqueous solution of Na2SO4, on cathode we get : A Na B H2 C SO2 D SO3 Correct Ans : B SRMJEEE – 2019 Q57 Wooden artifacts and freshly cut tree having 7.6 and 15.2 counts min-1 g-1 : of carbon (t1/2 = 5700 years) respectively. Calculate the age of artifact. A 5700 years B 6000 years C 6500 years D 5900 years Correct Ans : A Q58 In the phenomenon, in which a substance formed in the course of a reaction itself act as a : catalyst is called A catalytic poison B autocatalysis C negative catalysis D induced catalysis Correct Ans : B Q59 The green flame of organic compound in Beilstein's test indicates presence of : A Nitrogen B Sulphur C Oxygen D Halogens Correct Ans : D Q60 0.207 gram of organic compound gave 0.282 gram of silver bromide when heated with excess : of nitric acid and silver nitrate. The percentage of bromine in the organic compound is A 71.57% B 52.28% C 57.97% D 35.45% Correct Ans : C Q61 Carbocation intermediate is involved in reactions, : A SN2 reactions B SN1 reactions C E2 Eliminiation D Electrocyclic reaction Correct Ans : B SRMJEEE – 2019 Q62 The mechanism involved in the preparation of glycol from 1,2-dihaloethane using aqueous : Na2CO3 is A SN1 attack by OH- B SN2 attack by Br- C SN2 attack by OH- D SN1 attack by Br- Correct Ans : C Q63 : The product formed in the reaction A B C D Correct Ans : B Q64 Presence of nitro group in a benzene ring : A deactivates the ring towards electrophilic substitution B activates the ring towards electrophilic substitution C renders the ring basic D deactivates the ring towards nucleophilic substitution. Correct Ans : A Q65 Hydrolysis of diazonium salt produces : A benzene B phenol C aniline D azobenzene Correct Ans : B SRMJEEE – 2019 Q66 : In the Williamsons synthesis for preparation of the compounds used are A B CH3 - CH2 I + C2H5ONa C D Correct Ans : C Q67 Which product is formed, when acetonitrile is hydrolysed partially with cold concentrated HCl : A Methyl cyanide B Acetic anhydrides C Acetic acid D Acetamide Correct Ans : D Q68 Which among the following cannot react with nitrous acid? : A CH3 CONH2 B (CH3)3 C-NO2 C (CH3 CH2)2 NH D CH3 CH2 NH2 Correct Ans : B Q69 Which of the following statements about addition polymers is correct? : A They are soluble in water. B They have the same general formula. C They are formed from monomers with unsaturated C-C bonds. D They are strong and rigid. Correct Ans : C SRMJEEE – 2019 Q70 Each unit of DNA has : A number of purine nucleotides = number of pyrimidine nucleotides B purine nucleotides > pyrimidine nucleotides C pyrimidine nucleotides > purine nucleotides D varies with person to person Correct Ans : A Q71 : The values of is A 1 B 2 C 1 1/8 D 2 1/8 Correct Ans : B Q72 : If two sides of a triangle are the roots of the equation and the included angle is 600, then the third side is A B C D Correct Ans : B Q73 : The inverse of the function is given by A B C SRMJEEE – 2019 D Correct Ans : C Q74 : If then f[f(x)] is A B C D Correct Ans : A Q75 The points representing the complex numbers Z for which |Z + 4|2 - |Z - 4|2 = 8 lie on : A A straight line paralle to x - axis B A straight line parallel to y - axis C A circle with centre as origin D A circle with centre other than the origin Correct Ans : B Q76 : If is equal to A B C SRMJEEE – 2019 D Correct Ans : C Q77 Number of integral values of x satisfying x2 - 4x - 21 > 0 and x2 - 9x + 8 < 0 is : A one B two C many D nil Correct Ans : D Q78 If A is a non-singular matrix such that AAT = ATA and B = A-1AT, then matrix B is : A scalar B orthogonal C idempotent D diagonal Correct Ans : B Q79 : If then A + 4B is A B C D Correct Ans : D Q80 : If I is the unit matrix of order n, where is a constant, then adj(KI) = A Kn (adj I) B K (adj I) C K2 (adj I) D Kn-1 (adj I) Correct Ans : D SRMJEEE – 2019 Q81 : If is equal to A B C D Correct Ans : C Q82 : is equal to A B C D Correct Ans : D Q83 How many positive integers n can be formed using the digits 3,4,4,5,5,6,7, if n has to exceed : 50,00,000? A 360 B 180 C 320 D 720 Correct Ans : D Q84 : Let f:R R be defined by. If f(x) has a local minimum at x=- 1, then a possible value of k is SRMJEEE – 2019 A 0 B -1/2 C -1 D 1 Correct Ans : C Q85 : is A e4 B e2 C e3 D 1 Correct Ans : A Q86 : Find A B C D Correct Ans : A Q87 A missile fired from ground level rises x metres vertically upwards in 't' seconds and x = t( 100- : 12.5t). Then the maximum height reached by the missile is A 100 m B 150 m C 250 m D 200 m Correct Ans : D Q88 : If , then A B SRMJEEE – 2019 C D Correct Ans : B Q89 : is equal to A B C D Correct Ans : D Q90 : is A B C D Correct Ans : A Q91 : The value of the integral is A 3/2 B 2 C 1 D 1/2 Correct Ans : A Q92 The line 4x+6y+9=0 touches y2=4x at the point : A (-3,9/4) SRMJEEE – 2019 B (-3,-9/4) C (9/4,-3) D (-9/4,-3) Correct Ans : C Q93 The circles x2 + y2 - 4x - 6y - 12 = 0 and x2 + y2 + 6x - 8y + 21 = 0 : A intersect at two points B touches each other externally C touches each other internally D neither touches nor intersects Correct Ans : A Q94 ABCD is a square A = (1,2), B = (3,-4). If line CD passes through (3,8) then midpoint of CD is : A (2,6) B (6,2) C (2,5) D (24/5, 1/5) Correct Ans : D Q95 The eccentricity of a circle e is : A 0 B 1 C D less than 1 Correct Ans : A Q96 : The equation of the second degree represents a pair of straight lines, the distance between them is A 4 B C 2 D Correct Ans : C Q97 If the circles x2 + y2 + 2x + 2ky + 6 = 0, x2 + y2 + 2ky + k = 0 intersect orthogonally, then k : is SRMJEEE – 2019 A B C D Correct Ans : A Q98 Consider points A,B,C and D with position : vectors respectively, then ABCD is a A square B rhombus C rectangle D parallelogram Correct Ans : B Q99 : The centre and radius of the sphere are __________ A B C D Correct Ans : B Q100 The coefficient of skewnes of a distribution is 0.32. If its standard deviation is 6.5 and mean is : 29.6, then the mode of the distribution is given by A 28.48 B 27.52 C 30.46 D 32.14 Correct Ans : B SRMJEEE – 2019 Q101 A box contains 5 red and 4 white balls. Two balls are drawn successively from the box without : replacement and it is noted that the second one is white. Then the probability that the first one is white is A 1/6 B 5/6 C 1/2 D 1/9 Correct Ans : A Q102 If a,b,c are in AP, then a3+c3-8b3 is equal to : A 2abc B 4abc C 6abc D 8abc Correct Ans : C Q103 In a G.P if the (m+n)th term is p and (m-n)th term is q then its mth term is : A -1 B pq C D Correct Ans : C Q104 Find the 4th term in the expansion of (-3a - b)5 : A 9a2b3 B 30a2b3 C -90a2b3 D 90a2b3 Correct Ans : D Q105 If the pth, qth, rth terms of an A.P are in G.P, then the common ratio of the G.P is : A

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