6th Grade English Exam Paper PDF

A 52-year-old patient complains of intermittent lameness, impotence, periodic diarrhea followed by constipation, unformed stools contai ning *1 mucus and poorly digested food. Objectively: the patient is exhausted, the lower limbs are pale, pulsation in the right femoral artery is not...

A 52-year-old patient complains of intermittent lameness, impotence, periodic diarrhea followed by constipation, unformed stools contai ning *1 mucus and poorly digested food. Objectively: the patient is exhausted, the lower limbs are pale, pulsation in the right femoral artery is not detected. Your diagnosis: #1. SCAI and Leriche's syndromei 2. Chronic pancreatitis 3. Chronic ulcerative colitis 4. Larrey's syndrome 5. Chronic pylephlebitis *2 Factors of aggression that contribute to the development of peptic ulcer disease include all of the following, except: #1. mucini 2. of hydrochloric acid 3. Pepsin 4. violation of the evacuation function of the stomach 5. Helicobacter *3 Acute ulcerations of the stomach and duodenum develop after exposure to unfavorable factors during the next few years: #1. 72 hoursi 2. 24 hours 3. 36 hours 4. 4 days 5. 10 days *4 Drug-induced ulcerations are predominantly located: #1. in the antrumi 2. bottom of the stomach 3. body stomachs 4. duodenum 5. pyloric region *5 The severity of pain during a peptic ulcer is determined by the following factors, except: #1. Paulai 2. localization of the ulcerative process 3. Ages 4. development of complications 5. duration of processes *6 All of the following help reduce pain from peptic ulcers, except: #1. cold in the epigastriumi 2. frequent and small meals 3. bed rest 4. vomiting at the height of pain 5. conservative treatment  *7 The causes of acute stomach ulcers can be all of the following, except: #1. Smokingi 2. use of NSAIDs 3. Stress 4. burn disease 5. central nervous system diseases *8 The clinical picture of cardiospasm is not typical: #1. faintingi 2. Regurgitation 3. recurrent respiratory infections 4. chest pain 5. Regurgitation *9 Reason for the development of achalasia: #1. absence of Auerbach's plexusi 2. Stress 3. gastroesophageal reflux 4. Gastritis 5. duodenal-gastric reflux *10 The smallest amount of blood that causes melena is: #1. 60 mli 2. 25 ml 3. 100 ml 4. 250 ml 5. 300 ml *11 Erosive gastritis can be caused by the use of all drugs except: #1. reserpinei 2. steroid hormones 3. salicylates 4. cytostatics 5. heavy metal salts *12 Perforation of an acute gastric ulcer is characterized by all the symptoms except: #1. increased intestinal motilityi 2. stomach ache 3. tension of the anterior abdominal wall 4. epigastric pain 5. dagger pains *13 All of the following symptoms indicate penetration of an ulcer, except: #1. no paini 2. increased pain 3. radiating back pain 4. pain at night 5. girdle pain *14 Massive gastrointestinal bleeding is rarely a consequence of: #1. reflux esophagitisi 2. esophageal varicose veins 3. erosive gastritis 4. stomach ulcers 5. decaying stomach cancer *15 The development of Mallory-Weiss syndrome is promoted by: #1. Alcoholismi 2. peptic ulcer 3. hiatal hernia 4. stomach cancer 5. Duodenitis *16 Symptoms of hypovolemia appear when intestinal bleeding exceeds: #1. 500 mli 2. 300 ml 3. 100 ml 4. 750 ml 5. 150 ml *17 When a peptic ulcer is complicated by gastrointestinal bleeding, the pain: #1. Disappearsi 2. intensifies 3. radiates to the back 4. concentrated in the umbilical region 5. becomes dagger *18 Itching with jaundice is associated with: #1. with bile saltsi 2. with lecithin 3. with bilirubin 4. with phospholipids 5. with histamine *19 The most common clinical sign of liver cirrhosis: #1. Ascitesi 2. palpable liver 3. Jaundice 4. peripheral edema 5. Hepatitis  *20 The best method for diagnosing anastomotic ulcer is: #1. Endoscopyi 2. angiography 3. radiography 4. acidity test 5. colonoscopy *21 Night cough is not typical for which disease? #1. Pleurisyi 2. chronic sinusitis 3. bronchial asthma 4. Pneumonia 5. COPD *22 The most common causes of cough. (Indicate incorrect answer) #1. Cystic fibrosisi 2. bronchial asthma 3. chronic bronchitis 4. Sinusitis 5. acute bronchitis *23 When there is a paroxysmal cough with repetitions: 1. Chronical bronchitis 2. gastroesophageal reflux 3. BEB #4. Whooping coughi 5. Typhus *24 In case of OBDL, what is the nature of sputum: 1. mucous - purulent 2. mucous - viscous 3. Foamy #4. purulent to fetidi 5. pure transparent *25 What are the common causes of hemoptysis. (Indicate the wrong answer) 1. pulmonary embolism 2. lung cancer #3. Pneumoniai 4. pulmonary tuberculosis 5. destruction of lung tissue *26 Chest pain that is not relieved by nitroglycerin, accompanied by pallor, cold sweat, and arterial hypotension is characteristic of: #1. myocardial infarctioni 2. angina pectoris 3. pneumothorax NNZL and P 4. rib fracture 5. COPD *27 Chest pain when lying down, when bending forward, especially after eating, often interfering with sleep, is typical for: 1. stomach diseases 2. NNZL and P #3. Esophagospasmi 4. dissecting aortic aneurysm 5. Gastritis *28 Which pathogen often causes acute nonspecific surgical infection: #1. Staphylococcusi 2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa 3. pale spirochete 4. radiant fungus 5. Trichomonas *29 What disease should be excluded first when complaining of chest pain? 1. rib fracture 2. diseases of the lungs and pleura 3. Pneumonia #4. angina pectoris, myocardial infarctioni 5. sternum fracture *30 Pain in the left iliac region, aggravated by walking, fever, constipation, blood and pus in the stool are typical: 1. for dysentery 2. for intussusception 3. for renal colic #4. for diverticulitis of the coloni 5. Gastritis *31 Mild constant pain in the abdomen, a pulsating formation in the abdomen is typical: 1. for abdominal aortic tumor 2. for ovarian cyst 3. for the vagal kidney #4. for abdominal aortic aneurysmi 5. Leriche syndrome *32 Acutely occurring severe pain in the abdomen or back with shock in an elderly patient is typical: 1. for acute intestinal obstruction 2. for colon tumors 3. for coprostasis #4. for rupture of aortic aneurysmi 5. Pyelonephritis  *33 Cramping abdominal pain and diarrhea, possible fever, weakness, nausea, vomiting are typical for: #1. acute gastroenteritisi 2. exacerbation of peptic ulcer disease 3. colon cancer 4. SKhAI 5. Perforation *34 An acute ulcer occurs when taking medication: 1. Belladonna 2. Validol 3. vitamin C" #4. Aspirini 5. antibiotics *35 Determine the correspondence of the second degree of blood loss according to DHO and Ht: #1. DGO 30%, in Ht 25%i 2. DGO 20%, Ht 35% 3. DGO up to 30%, Ht 25-30% 4. DGO is more than 30%, Ht is below 25% 5. DGO 50%, Ht 40% *36 Tactics of the clinic doctor at the GDK: 1. prescribing conservative treatment under the supervision of a therapist #2. deliver the patient to the surgical hospital accompanied by a doctori 3. treatment of the patient on an outpatient basis under the supervision of a surgeon 4. send the patient to the hospital with a referral 5. outpatient observation *37 Contraindications to appendectomy in acute appendicitis are: 1. myocardial infarction 2. pregnancy 36-40 weeks 3. novocaine intolerance #4. appendicular infiltratei 5. Peritonitis *38 What corresponds to the concept of dumping syndrome? 1. extension of the adductor loop 2. Hypovolemia #3. Hypoglycemiai 4. hyperglycemia 5. shedding jejunum *39 Severe pain in a limb that is swollen, tense, shiny, pale and colder to the touch than a healthy one. Your diagnosis. #1. acute deep thrombophlebitisi 2. acute superficial thrombophlebitis 3. phlegmon of the limb 4. limb gangrene 5. post-injection abscess *40 Specify the causes of suprahepatic block in portal hypertension? 1. cirrhosis of the liver 2. hydatid cyst of the liver 3. portal vein thrombosis #4. Chiaria diseasei 5. Hodgkin *41 The length of the anal canal corresponds to #1. 3-4 mediai 2. 2-3 cm 3. 1-2 cm 4. 4-5 cm 5. 7-8cm *42 The occurrence of anal fissure is caused by 1. haemorrhoids #2. long-term constipationi 3. acute paraproctitis and proctitis 4. trauma to the rectum and anal canal 5. Diarrhea *43 Posterior dosed sphincterotomy is indicated in the treatment #1. hemorrhoids, with increased sphincter tone and anal fissurei 2. Coccydynia 3. chronic paraproctitis 4. hemorrhoids with prolapse of internal hemorrhoids 5. prolapse of the rectal mucosa *44 To confirm the diagnosis of anal fissure, it is enough 1. Colonoscopy 2. Anoscopy #3. digital rectal examinationi 4. Irrigoscopy 5. Sigmoidoscopy *45 Sharp pain in the anal area during defecation, accompanied by a slight discharge of scarlet blood, and “stool fear” are characteristic #1. for anal fissurei 2. for rectal polyp 3. for sphincteritis 4. for colorectal cancer 5. for UC  *46 The clinical picture of a rectal fistula is characterized by 1. bleeding during bowel movements #2. relapses of paraproctitis with discharge of pus from the fistulai 3. Fear of chairs 4. secretion of mucus during bowel movements 5. bleeding during bowel movements *47 For acute ischiorectal paraproctitis, indicated #1. opening of the abscess through the perineum with the intersection of the coccygeal-rectal ligamenti 2. opening of an abscess through the intestinal lumen 3. puncture of the abscess and administration of antibiotics 4. opening, drainage of the abscess, excision of the crypt in the anal canal 5. abscess excision *48 For the occurrence of acute paraproctitis, the obligatory etiological factors are #1. blockage of the excretory duct of the anal gland and its inflammationi 2. Diarrhea 3. tendency to constipation 4. defect of the rectal mucosa 5. Constipation After a macro- and microscopic examination of a specimen of the rectum removed for cancer, the diagnosis was formulated: “T2NxM0 rectal *49 cancer.” It means that 1. no distant metastases 2. regional lymph nodes are not affected 3. regional lymph nodes are affected #4. everything is correct except Vai 5. there are metastases *50 Ishiorectal paraproctitis in typical cases is characterized by all of the following, except 1. mucus discharge from the anus and swelling of the perineum with hyperemia 2. high temperature 3. no changes in the perineal skin #4. urinary disturbancei 5. Hemorrhoids *51 For purulent inflammation of the epithelial coccygeal duct, it is more appropriate #1. opening of an abscess with excision of the epithelial duct and open management of the woundi 2. opening the abscess and draining the purulent cavity 3. excision of the epithelial tract with suturing of the wound tightly 4. opening of the abscess with excision of the epithelial tract and suturing the edges of the wound along the bottom 5. antibiotic therapy without opening *52 For the diagnosis of extrasphincteric fistula of the rectum, 1. Colonoscopy #2. anoscopy and fistulographyi 3. Irrigoscopy 4. passage of barium through the intestines 5. Ultrasound *53 The most common complications of diverticulosis of the sigmoid colon are #1. Diverticulitisi 2. Bleeding 3. penetration of the diverticulum into the mesentery of the intestine 4. perforation of the sigmoid colon 5. Haemorrhoids *54 The most common complications of sigmoid colon cancer are 1. tumor perforation 2. tumor penetration into the mesentery 3. inflammation of the sigmoid colon #4. intestinal obstructioni 5. UC *55 Acquired diverticulosis of the colon is most often localized 1. in the transverse colon 2. in the right half of the colon 3. equally often in the right and left halves #4. in the left half of the coloni 5. in the hepatic angle *56 Congenital diverticulosis of the colon is most often localized #1. in the right half of the coloni 2. in the left half of the colon 3. equally often in the right and left halves 4. in the sigmoid colon 5. in the splenic angle *57 The blood supply to the rectum occurs due to 1. perineal arteries 2. superior mesenteric artery and internal iliac artery 3. internal pudendal artery #4. internal iliac artery and branches of the inferior mesenteric arteryi 5. inferior mesenteric artery *58 In the rectum they secrete #1. two sphinctersi 2. one sphincter 3. three sphincter 4. four sphincter 5. five sphincter  *59 Not used in the treatment of UC 1. hormonal drugs 2. Antibiotics 3. Vitamins #4. Laxativesi 5. immunomodulators *60 A complication of acute terminal ileitis cannot be #1. intestinal obstructioni 2. Perforation 3. Bleeding 4. abscess formation 5. Peritonitis *61 Conservative treatment of UC includes #1. all listedi 2. Diet 3. Vitamins 4. Sulfonamides 5. symptomatic treatment *62 Most common cause of small bowel mechanical obstruction 1. gallstones 2. foreign bodies #3. abdominal adhesionsi 4. benign tumors 5. Tumors *63 Not typical for Crohn's disease #1. damage only to the intestinal mucosai 2. development of external and intraorgan fistulas 3. long course of the disease 4. development of perirectal fistulas 5. dyspeptic symptoms *64 Carcinoid secretes 1. hydrochloric acid 2. Histamine 3. 5-hydroxytryptamine #4. none of these substancesi 5. Gastrin *65 The most reliable method for diagnosing colon polyps #1. Colonoscopyi 2. X-ray examination with oral barium administration 3. Irrigoscopy 4. stool examination for hidden mucus 5. Ultrasound *66 Meckel's diverticulum is a remnant of the duct 1. Wolf 2. Senzon #3. Omphalomesenterici 4. Muller 5. Melory *67 Has no diagnostic value for Hirschsprung's disease 1. biopsy according to Swenson 2. irrigoscopy 3. study of the passage of barium through the colon #4. ultrasound examinationi 5. Colonoscopy *68 The most rational method of treating colorectal cancer 1. symptomatic treatment 2. Chemotherapy #3. combination treatmenti 4. X-ray radiotherapy 5. operative method *69 Obligate precancers of the colon include #1. diffuse familial polyposisi 2. juvenile polyps 3. single colon polyp 4. regional enteritis 5. Pseudopolyps *70 Which colon polyps are more prone to malignancy? 1. multiple adenomatous 2. Hyperplastic 3. Adenomatous #4. Villi 5. Ulcerative *71 Uncharacteristic for perirectal fistula 1. Fistula 2. periodic exacerbations 3. purulent discharge #4. Bleedingi 5. mucus-like discharge  *72 Do not use for acute thrombosis of hemorrhoids #1. Sclerotherapyi 2. Analgesics 3. anticoagulants 4. presacral blockade 5. surgery *73 To confirm the diagnosis of anal fissure, it is used 1. measuring rectal pressure #2. Anoscopyi 3. Colonoscopy 4. Rectoscopy 5. irrigography *74 Excision of hemorrhoids is contraindicated in #1. portal hypertensioni 2. nodes falling out 3. combined hemorrhoids 4. ulceration of nodes 5. single nodes *75 In the treatment of chronic callous fissures, the most effective is 1. injection of novocaine with alcohol under the crack 2. presacral blockade with novocaine solution #3. excision of the fissure with dosed sphincterotomyi 4. digital sphincter stretch according to Recomye 5. conservative treatment *76 Meckel's diverticulum is an anatomical element #1. ileumi 2. jejunum 3. is a protrusion of the bile ducts 4. often occurs after appendectomy 5. colon *77 Meckel's diverticulum most often occurs 1. small bowel obstruction 2. bloody vomiting 3. bleeding from the rectum #4. Diverticulitisi 5. Polyposis *78 Which wall of the rectum protrudes into the vagina during rectocele? #1. Fronti 2. Rear 3. Lateral 4. back and side 5. all walls *79 How many degrees of rectocele are there? 1. 1st degree 2. 5 degrees 3. 4 degrees #4. 3 degreesi 5. 2 degrees *80 What are the main causes of Hirschsprung's disease? #1. abnormal development of the intramural nervous system of the coloni 2. autoimmune factor 3. psychogenic constipation 4. intoxication body 5. atresia anus *81 What changes are characteristic of the nervous system of the colon in Hirschsprung's disease? 1. increase in the number of ganglia of the intramural plexus #2. absence or hypoganglionism of the intramural plexusi 3. muscle wasting 4. nerve fibers are not changed 5. ischemia of nerve cells *82 In what area of the colon is the aganglionic zone most often identified in Hirschsprung's disease? #1. rectumi 2. rectosigmoid region 3. ileocecal angle 4. sigmoid colon 5. Duodenum *83 What diseases are used for differential diagnosis of Hirschsprung's disease? 1. Crohn's disease 2. amoebiasis of the colon #3. chronic colostasisi 4. nonspecific ulcerative colitis 5. Hemorrhoids *84 What is the leading symptom of Hirschsprung's disease? #1. absence of independent stool and flatulencei 2. discharge of pathological discharge from the anus 3. Diarrhea 4. Vomiting 5. Dysphagia  *85 What is characteristic of Hirschsprung's disease upon local examination of the abdomen? 1. “Shchetkin-Blumberg” symptom is positive 2. Large-wave peristalsis is visible, intestinal loops are distended. 3. “doughy belly” #4. “Frog belly” and abdominal asymmetryi 5. peritonitis *86 What is the diagnosis of Hirschsprung's disease based on? #1. anamnesis and x-ray examinationi 2. clinical and biochemical tests 3. CT scan 4. immunological tests 5. Ultrasound *87 What is the main method of surgical treatment for Hirschsprung's disease in adults? 1. Operation Hagenthorn 2. Soave operation 3. operation Swenson #4. Duhamelia's operationi 5. Oppel operation *88 What are the clinical signs of stage II anal sphincter insufficiency? #1. incontinence of gas and loose stoolsi 2. gas incontinence 3. fecal incontinence 4. incontinence of gases and formed stools 5. retention of feces and gases *89 Specify the treatment tactics for stage III anal sphincter insufficiency? 1. dosed sphincterotomy 2. Levatoroplasty 3. Proctoplasty #4. Sphincteroplastyi 5. rectal extirpation *90 The most common theories in the etiology of UC include: #1. All answers are correcti 2. Infectious 3. Neurogenic 4. Autoimmune 5. Hereditary *91 What influences the development and course of UC disease? 1. Stress #2. Changes in immunological reactivity and progressive dysbiosisi 3. Spasm of the muscle wall 4. Increased intraintestinal pressure 5. decreased intraintestinal pressure *92 What clinical forms of UC exist? 1. chronically continuously relapsing forms 2. chronic relapsing forms 3. acute fulminant forms #4. all answers are correcti 5. no correct answer *93 Which layer of the colon is primarily affected by UC? #1. Mucusi 2. Submucosal 3. Muscular 4. Serous 5. axillary *94 What is the main clinical sign of UC? 1. uncontrollable vomiting 2. increase in body temperature #3. diarrhea and discharge of pathological impuritiesi (blood, mucus, pus) 4. Constipation 5. Dysphagia *95 What are the most common radiological signs of UC? #1. ulcerative defects and tubular narrowingi 2. filling defect 3. Payer's syndrome 4. Megarectum 5. Minirectum *96 What diseases should be used for differential diagnosis of UC? 1. pseudo-obstructive syndrome 2. Colostasis 3. Hirschsprung's disease #4. Crohn's diseasei 5. Gastritis *97 What are the indications for surgical treatment of UC? 1. colon stricture 2. Perforation 3. Bleeding #4. all answers are correcti 5. total defeat  *98 The main method for diagnosing amoebiasis of the colon. 1. Immunological #2. serological and bacteriologicali 3. Angiography 4. Ultrasound 5. Virological *99 What are the main drugs used in the treatment of colon amoebiasis? #1. Metrogil, emetiniai 2. Salofalk 3. Salazopyridazine 4. Chemotherapy 5. Penicillin *100 What histological form of cancer is most common in the colon? 1. carcinoid 2. Sarcoma #3. Adenocarcinomai 4. Leiomyosarcoma 5. Lake *101 What is the main clinical symptom of cancer of the right half of the colon? #1. Anemiai 2. intestinal obstruction 3. Bleeding 4. Diarrhea 5. Leukocytosis *102 At an outpatient appointment, you suspected the patient had acute appendicitis. What is advisable to do? #1. Immediately hospitalize the patienti 2. Prescribe antispasmodics and re-examine the patient after 4-6 hours 3. Monitor the dynamics of body temperature within 12-24 hours 4. number of leukocytes in the blood 5. Prescribe anti-inflammatory therapy and examine the patient the next day *103 Operation “appendectomy” for acute appendicitis is contraindicated: #1. For appendicular and infiltratei 2. Myocarditis 3. Pregnancy 36-40 weeks 4. Novocaine intolerance 5. Bleeding disorders To differentiate acute appendicitis from right-sided renal colic, you will undertake: 1. Administration of antispasmodics 2. Administration of *104 narcotic painkillers 3. Urgent urine examination 4. Chromocystoscopy or excretory urography 5. Angiography of the renal arteries Select the correct combination of answers: 1. 1, 3, 5 2. 2, 3, 4 3. 3, 4, 5 #4. 1, 3, and 4i 5. All answers are correct What special methods should be used to differentiate acute appendicitis from a covered perforated duodenal ulcer? 1. Gastrodu odenoscopy 2. *105 General fluoroscopy of the abdominal cavity 3. Ultrasonography of the abdominal cavity 4. Laparoscopy 5. X-ray of the stomach with barium sulfate Select the correct combination of answers: 1. 1, 2, 3 2. 2, 3, 5 #3. 1, 2, and 4i 4. Only 2 4 5. Only 2 5 *106 Which symptom of acute appendicitis is rarely found in older people? 1. Minor pain in the right iliac fossa #2. High temperature and bodyi 3. Muscle tension in the right iliac fossa 4. Retention of stool 5. Moderate leukocytosis *107 Which of the following studies is the least informative in the diagnosis of acute appendicitis? 1. Laboratory test / especially – white blood cell count #2. Laparocentesisi 3. Rectal examined 4. Diagnostic laparoscopist 5. Clinical examination with determination of the area of pain during palpation and percussion of protective muscle tension. Clinical features of acute appendicitis in elderly patients are: 1. Possibility of developing a primary gangrenous form 2. Weak pain syndrome 3. *108 Indomitable vomiting 4. Hectic temperature 5. Weak symptoms of peritoneal irritation Select the correct combination of answers: 1. 1, 2, 4 2. 2, 3, 4 #3. 1, 2, and 5i 4. 1, 3, 5 5. All answers are wrong To distinguish acute appendicitis from ovarian apoplexy, the following clinical signs must be taken into account: 1. Kocher-Volkovich's symptom *109 2. Promptov's symptom 3. Dizziness or fainting 4. Bartomier-Michelson's symptom 5. Irradiation of pain to the sacrum and perineum 6. Kulenkampf's symptom Select the correct combination answers: 1. 1, 2, 4, 6 2. 2, 3, 6, 5 3. I.4 4. 3, 5, 6 #5. All indicated and signsi *110 The following symptoms are not typical for acute appendicitis: 1. Rovsing 2. Voskresensk #3. Murphyi 4. Samples 5. Bartomier-Michelson  *111 The symptom specific to acute appendicitis is: 1. Kocher-Volkovich 2. Rovzinga 3. Sitkovsky 4. All three symptoms #5. None of themi *112 Peritoneal symptoms in acute appendicitis include the following: 1. Voskresensky ("shirt" syndrome) 2. Shchetkin-Blumberg 3. Razdolsky #4. All named and symptomsi 5. None of them *113 Acute appendicitis should be differentiated from all of the following diseases, except: #1. Glomerulonephritisi 2. Acute pancreatitis 3. Acute adnexitis 4. Acute gastroenteritis 5. Right-sided renal colic *114 Clinically acute appendicitis can be taken: 1. For salpingitis 2. For acute cholecystitis 3. For Meckel's diverticulitis 4. For an ectopic pregnancy #5. For any of these types and pathologiesi *115 Acute appendicitis in children differs from that in adults in everything except: 1. Cramping pain, diarrhea, repeated vomiting 2. Rapid development of diffuse peritonitis 3. High temperature 4. Severe intoxication #5. Sharp muscle tension in the right iliacus and regioni *116 Decisive in the differential diagnosis of acute appendicitis with impaired ectopic pregnancy is: 1. Kocher-Wolkovich sign 2. Promptov's symptom 3. Dizziness, fainting 4. Bartomier-Michelson symptom #5. Puncture of the posterior fornix and vaginai *117 The following are not used to diagnose acute appendicitis: 1. Palpation of the abdominal wall 2. Clinical blood test 3. Digital rectal examination #4. Irrigoscopyi 5. Vaginal examination *118 Methods used to diagnose acute appendicitis: 1. Laparoscopy 2. Clinical blood test 3. Rectal examination 4. Thermography #5. All of the above is truei *119 For differential diagnosis between lower lobe right-sided pneumonia and acute appendicitis, all must be taken into account except: 1. Respiratory auscultation data 2. Laparoscopy data 3. Chest X-ray data #4. Leukocyte and blood countsi 5. Abdominal thermography data *120 The late stage of peritonitis of appendicular origin is characterized by everything except: 1. Bloating 2. Dehydration 3. Disappearance of bowel sounds 4. Hypoproteinemia #5. Enhanced peristalsisi Meckel's diverticulum occurs: 1 On the jejunum 2 On the ileum 3 On the ascending colon 4 As a consequence of appendectomy 5 D ue to a *121 patent vitelline duct Correct would be: 1. A. 1.5 2. B. 2, 4 #3. CB and 5i 4. D. 3, 4 5. E.3.5 *122 Which research method is the most informative in the differential diagnosis of acute appendicitis and impaired ectopic pregnancy? 1. Study of leukocytosis in peripheral blood 2. Skin thermometry 3. Plain radiography of the abdominal organs 4. Rectal and vaginal examination #5. Puncture of the posterior fornix and vaginai When examining a 76-year-old patient at home, the GP suspected acute appendicitis, but there was no complete certainty about the diagnosis. *123 Only six hours have passed since the onset of the disease. What to do? 1. Recommend pain therapy 2. Urgently send the patient to the clinic for additional laboratory examination 3. Considering the patient’s age and the short time since the onset of the disease, conservative treatment is recommended. Rest, local cold, antibiotics 4. Carry out dynamic observation of the patient on an outpatient basis #5. Urgently hospitalize the patient in a surgical or hospitali  As is known, the Kocher-Volkovich symptom is one of the most informative symptoms in the diagnosis of acute appendicitis. Indicate in which *124 disease a similar movement of pain may be observed: 1. Acute pyelonephritis 2. Crohn's disease 3. Acute right-sided adnexitis #4. Perforated ulcer of the stomach or duodenum and intestinesi 5. Hepatic colic Indicate the signs that are not characteristic of the clinical picture of acute appendicitis in elderly and senile patients: 1 Abdominal pain is not *125 intense and is often non-localized 2 Muscle protection and symptoms of peritoneal irritation are pronounced 3 The disease often occurs against the background of stool retention 4 As a rule, it is noted high leukocytosis and hyperthermia 5 Appendicular infiltrate often develops Select the correct combination of answers: #1. 2, and 4i 2. 1.2 3. 4, 5 4. 3, 4 5. 3, 4, 5 *126 The Kocher-Wolkovich symptom is: 1. Increased pain in the right iliac region when pushing in the left iliac region 2. Increased pain in the right iliac region with tension in the right iliopsoas muscle 3. Increased pain in the right iliac region with the patient lying on the left side 4. Increased pain in the right iliac region when the patient turns to the left side #5. Movement of pain from the epigastric region or the upper half of the abdomen to the iliac and regioni In a 23-year-old patient who was in the surgical department for 18 hours, acute appendicitis cannot be completely excluded during dynamic *127 observation. What is your treatment strategy? 1. The patient needs to be operated on 2. Continue monitoring the patient 3. Perform abdominal ultrasonography 4. Together with the gynecologist, induce an artificial termination of pregnancy, and then perform an appendectomy #5. Perform laparoscopy and, if the diagnosis is confirmed, then operatei *128 The main symptom that allows diagnosing the pelvic location of acute appendicitis is: 1. Shchetkin-Blumberg symptom 2. Rovsing's symptom #3. Pain in the anterior wall of the rectum during rectal examinationi 4. Muscle tension in the right iliac fossa 5. Kocher-Volkovich sign The diagnostic program for acute appendicitis includes: 1 Careful collection of anamnestic data 2 Somatic diseases that can simulate acute *129 pathology in the abdomen are excluded 3 Rectal examination in men and additional vaginal examination in women 4 Laboratory tests 5 Ultrasound Select the correct combination of answers: 1. 1. A. 1,2, 3,4 B.1,2,3 2. 3, 4, 5 3. 3.D. 1.3, 4, 5 #4. all answers are correcti 5. For the differential diagnosis of acute appendicitis and acute calculous cholecystitis, you should use: 1 Clinical blood test 2 Plain X-ray of the *130 abdominal cavity 3 Ultrasound examination method 4 Oral cholecystography 5 Laparoscopy Select the correct combination of answers: 1. 1,3,4 2. 2, 3, 4 #3. 3, and 5i 4. 4, 5 5. All answers are correct *131 Inguinal-scrotal hernia is differentiated from everything except: 1. Varicocele 2. Tumors of the spermatic cord 3. Testicular tumors 4. Hydrocele #5. Aneurysms v. And Saphenamagnai *132 Larrey's hernia is diagnosed when: 1. Plain fluoroscopy of the abdominal cavity 2. Plain X-ray of the chest cavity #3. X-ray contrast examination of the stomachi 4. Ultrasound 5. EGDFS *133 The presence of a testicle in the hernial sac is characteristic of a hernia: 1. Sliding 2. Disadvantaged 3. Femoral #4. Congenitali 5. Oblique inguinal *134 Unreducible hernia is a consequence of: #1. Adhesions between the organs that have entered the hernial sac and the wall of the saci 2. Adhesions between intestinal loops that have entered the hernial sac 3. Scar process between the hernial sac and surrounding tissues 4. Inconsistencies between the organs emerging into the hernial sac and the size of the hernial orifice 5. All of the above *135 A method that facilitates the differentiation of inguinal-scrotal hernia and testicular hydrocele is: 1. Puncture 2. Auscultation 3. Emergency surgery #4. Transilluminationsi 5. Palpation *136 Femoral hernia is differentiated from all diseases except: 1. Cold leak 2. Inguinal hernia 3. Lipomas #4. Bartholin's cysts and glandsi 5. Varicose veins of the thigh  *137 It is possible to differentiate a femoral hernia from a varicose node of the fossa ovale: 1. Ascending functional venography #2. Auscultation (blowing noise when coughing) and palpation determination of the back wave of blood when coughing i 3. Node puncture 4. Thermography 5. Radiography *138 You can distinguish an inguinal-scrotal hernia from hydrocele of the testicular membranes: 1. Looking around #2. Diaphanoscopyi 3. X-ray 4. Palpation 5. Percussion *139 What to recommend to an 80-year-old patient without severe somatic pathology with frequent strangulation of the inguinal-scrotal hernia? 1. Conservative treatment aimed at regulating bowel movements 2. Emergency surgery - hernia repair #3. Planned surgery after outpatient and examinationi 4. Hospitalization, observation in the surgical department 5. Wearing a jockstrap Which of the following factors contribute to the occurrence of abdominal hernias? 1 Smoking 2 Sudden weight loss 3 Features of the anatomical *140 structure of the anterior abdominal wall 4 Diseases that increase intra-abdominal pressure 5 Heavy physical work Specify the correct combinations: 1. 1,2,3 2. 2,4,5 #3. 2,3,4,and 5i 4. 1,4,5 5. 1.2 A 70-year-old patient has a left-sided oblique inguinal hernia with a tendency to strangulation. There is a prostate adenoma with urination *141 problems. What are your recommendations? 1. Wearing a bandage all the time 2. Emergency surgery for another injury 3. Surgical treatment for rapidly increasing hernia size #4. Planned surgery, after examination by a urologist and correction of urination disordersi 5. Simultaneous hernia repair and adenoma removal *142 A 40-year-old patient, a year after surgery for a right-sided inguinal hernia, again developed a hernial protrusion. Your actions? 1. Observation, surgery for strangulated hernia 2. Operate for progressive enlargement of the hernia 3. Observation, surgery if there is an inguinal-scrotal hernia #4. Planned surgery before complications develop or the hernia enlargesi 5. Wearing a bandage *143 Shock and collapse in acute pancreatitis are caused by: 1. frequent vomiting 2. Compression of the distal common bile duct by cholemia #3. Enzyme and toxemiai 4. Biliary hypertension 5. Dynamic intestinal obstruction *144 The best and safest method for diagnosing asymptomatic choledocholithiasis and cicatricial stenosis of the major duodenal papilla is: 1. Oral cholecystography 2. Intravenous cholecystocholangiography 3. Laparoscopic cholecystocholangiography #4. Endoscopic retrograde and cholangiopancreatographyi 5. Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography *145 When choosing the type of surgical treatment for a perforated gastric ulcer, they are usually guided by, except: 1. for a period from the moment of perforation #2. gender and patienti 3. size and location of the perforation hole 4. surgeon qualification 5. age of the patient *146 To clarify the diagnosis of a bleeding stomach ulcer, you first need to do the following: 1. stool occult blood test 2. contrast fluoroscopy of the stomach 3. analysis of gastric juice for occult blood #4. Fibrogastroscopy and othersi 5. determination of hemoglobin and hematocrit *147 The main stimulator of secretin release is: #1. hydrochloric and acidi 2. protein breakdown products 3. Fats 4. Carbohydrates 5. all of the above factors. *148 The most characteristic of an acute duodenal ulcer is: 1. old age of the patient #2. history of taking aspirin or corticosteroidsi 3. severe, paroxysmal seasonal epigastric pain 4. vomiting food for relief 5. sound of splashing in the stomach *149 Individuals at increased risk of stomach cancer should undergo annual: 1. X-ray examination of the stomach 2. gastric secretion test #3. endoscopic examination of the stomachi 4. study of the morphological composition of blood 5. stool occult blood test  *150 Contraindications to surgical treatment of a strangulated hernia are: 1. giant hernia size 2. pregnancy in the second half 3. phlegmon of the hernial sac 4. recent myocardial infarction #5. none of the abovei *151 Precancerous diseases of the stomach include: 1. chronic atrophic gastritis 2. chronic callous gastric ulcer 3. polyposis of the stomach 4. none of the above #5. all and listedi *152 A hiatal hernia can cause: 1. dysphagic phenomena 2. heart rhythm disorder 3. pseudoanginal phenomena 4. Hiccups #5. all and listedi *153 Overstretching of the intestinal wall in acute intestinal obstruction is facilitated by: 1. digestive juices 2. food masses 3. Gases 4. transudate #5. all and listedi *154 In acute intestinal obstruction, the following pathophysiological disorders occur: 1. disruption of blood supply to the intestinal wall 2. decrease in circulating blood volume 3. development of tissue hypoxia 4. disruption of the cardiovascular system #5. all and abovei *155 The common bile duct should be examined in all patients: 1. obstructive jaundice 2. Pancreatitis 3. with dilatation of the common bile duct 4. with the choledocholithiasis clinic #5. in all of the above situationsi *156 Complications caused by choledocholithiasis include: 1. liver failure 2. acute pancreatitis 3. Jaundice 4. Cholangitis #5. all and abovei *157 Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography is a method that allows you to diagnose: 1. liver abscess 2. intrahepatic vascular block 3. biliary cirrhosis of the liver #4. obstruction of the bile ducts with mechanical and jaundicei 5. chronic hepatitis *158 Pain in acute intestinal obstruction is characterized by all of the following except: 1. usually occurs suddenly, regardless of food intake, at any time of the day, without warning 2. often has a cramping character #3. has an increasing character throughout the entire period and diseasei 4. there is no clear localization in any part of the abdominal cavity 5. can be constant, not completely disappearing outside the attack period An increase in intraintestinal pressure and overstretching of the intestinal wall during acute intestinal obstruction leads to all of the following *159 changes, except: 1. deterioration of pulmonary ventilation 2. additional fluid loss 3. additional loss of red blood cell proteins #4. occurrence of mesenteric and thrombosisi 5. development of functional intestinal obstruction *160 A boil is usually caused by: 1. Streptococcus #2. Staphylococcomi 3. Gonococcus 4. Pseudomonas aeruginosa 5. Proteus *161 The most severe forms of purulent arthritis are caused by: 1. Staphylococcus 2. Pneumococcus 3. Proteus 4. Pseudomonas aeruginosa #5. hemolytic and streptococcusi *162 In acute purulent paraproctitis, all of the following are indicated, except: 1. liquid diet 2. Analgesics 3. Antibiotic therapy #4. topical application of salicylic acid and crystalsi 5. opening an abscess  *163 The most dangerous complications of deep neck phlegmon are all of the following, except: 1. purulent mediastinitis 2. purulent meningitis #3. compression of the respiratory tracti 4. rupture of pus into the esophagus 5. Sepsis *164 Active drainage of a purulent wound is: 1. A. outflow of pus through the drainage tube by gravity 2. B. outflow of pus through capillary drainage 3. C. prolonged rinsing of the wound through a drainage tube 4. D. long-term wound drainage with constant vacuum aspiration #5. E. correct C. and DI. *165 All of the following are used in the treatment of tetanus, except: 1. antitetanus serum 2. tetanus toxoid #3. muscle and relaxantsi 4. chloral hydrate 5. antipsychotics *166 Characteristic laboratory changes in hematogenous osteomyelitis are: 1. A. leukocytosis 2. B. lymphocytosis 3. C.neutrophilia 4. D.monocytosis #5. E. A. and C are correcti. *167 Measures to prevent gastrointestinal disorders in severe burn shock include: 1. adequate pain relief 2. adequate infusion-transfusion therapy 3. use of antacids and anacid drugs 4. insertion of a feeding tube into the stomach #5. all of the above and listedi *168 Symptom of “drumsticks” and “watch glasses”: 1. is characteristic only of bronchiectasis #2. can be observed in chronic suppurative diseases of the lungs and pleurai 3. more typical for heart defects 4. characteristic of actinomycosis 5. characteristic of pulmonary tuberculosis *169 Most often bronchiectasis affects: 1. upper lobes of both lungs 2. basal segments of the lower lobes #3. basal segments of the lower lobes in combination with lingular segments of the upper lobe of the left lung or the middle lobe of the right and lungi 4. middle share 5. separate segments of both lungs *170 The most characteristic symptom for suppurative lung diseases is: 1. chest pain, weakness, sweating and other symptoms of intoxication #2. cough with a lot of purulent and sputumi 3. heat 4. Hemoptysis 5. "drumstick" symptom *171 A reliable sign of pulmonary hemorrhage is: 1. bleeding from the mouth 2. cough producing scarlet foamy blood 3. presence of darkening in the lung 4. presence of exudate in the pleural cavity #5. presence of blood in the bronchi during bronchoscopyi A 30-year-old patient complains of severe shortness of breath that appeared 3 months ago and general weakness. Temperature is normal, n o *172 cough. Peripheral lymph nodes are not enlarged. Vesicular breathing. On radiographs of the lungs on both sides there are multiple small f ocal shadows, creating a reticular pattern of the lungs. Conclusion: disseminated process in the lungs of unknown etiology. On bronchoscopy, the bronchial tree is not changed. The most reliable diagnostic method would be: 1. bronchoscopy and puncture biopsy of bifurcation lymph nodes 2. core biopsy 3. Mediastinoscopy #4. thoracoscopy and biopsy of the lungi 5. wide thoracotomy and lung biopsy Infectious-toxic shock can develop: 1) with peritonitis; 2) with pneumonia; 3) with destructive pancreatitis; 4) with meningitis; 5) wit h infective *173 endocarditis; B. sepsis #1. all of the above is truei 2. everything is correct except 1.2 3. everything is correct except 3.4 4. all are correct except 5,6 5. true 5.6 *174 When treating chronic callous fissures, the most effective are: 1. presacral blockade with novocaine solution 2. administration of novocaine with alcohol 3. digital sphincter stretch according to Recomye 4. excision of a crack #5. excision of the fissure with dosed and sphincterotomyi *175 In case of thermal burns of III A degree, the following must be damaged: 1. A. the entire reticular layer of skin 2. B. partially epithelial skin organelles 3. C. papillary layer 4. D. partially subcutaneous fat #5. correct B. and CI.  *176 For a carbuncle of the upper lip, a characteristic complication is: 1. Sepsis 2. skin necrosis #3. thrombosis of cavernous and vesselsi 4. osteomyelitis of the upper jaw 5. carotid artery thrombosis *177 Of the listed indicators, the most informative for burn shock are: 1. arterial pressure 2. central venous pressure 3. circulating blood volume 4. Leukocytosis #5. correct B. and CI. If a gram-negative infection is detected in wounds, the following should be used: 1) boric ointment; 2) furacilin ointment; 3) levomikol; 4) *178 betadine 1. all are correct except 4 2. all are correct except 3 #3. All are correct except 2 and 3i 4. all are correct except 1 5. all answers are correct *179 In case of third degree stenosis of the pyloric part of the stomach, it is necessary: 1. immediate laparotomy and gastrectomy in all cases #2. surgery after intensive parenteral therapy, correction of volemic and disordersi 3. contrast and endoscopic examination of the stomach, repeated gastric lavage with hydrochloric acid solution, if malignancy is suspected, surgery 4. immediate laparotomy, blood transfusion and plasma replacement solutions, use of antibiotics 5. conservative therapy, surgical treatment is not indicated *180 In acute pancreatitis, all of the following complications are possible, except: 1. pancreatic abscess 2. phlegmon of retroperitoneal tissue 3. enzymatic peritonitis 4. acute heart failure #5. obstructive intestinal and obstructioni *181 In acute pancreatitis, the largest amount of activated pancreatic enzymes is contained: 1. in arterial blood 2. in venous blood #3. in abdominal and cavity exudatei 4. in the lymph 5. in urine *182 Minor water-electrolyte and protein disturbances occur: 1. with adhesive intestinal obstruction 2. with obstructive intestinal obstruction 3. with strangulation intestinal obstruction 4. with paralytic form of dynamic intestinal obstruction #5. with spastic form of dynamic intestinal obstructioni *183 Ascites in pancreatic cancer can be caused by all of the following reasons, except: 1. peritoneal carcinomatosis 2. portal circulation disorders due to liver cancer metastases 3. compression of the portal vein by a tumor 4. portal vein thrombosis #5. Splenomegalyi *184 Some forms of acute intestinal obstruction are characterized by the Obukhov Hospital symptom, manifested by: 1. a clearly demarcated distended intestinal loop determined by palpation of the abdomen 2. “splashing noise”, detected in a limited area or throughout the entire abdomen #3. gaping anal sphincter and empty ampoulei 4. the sound of a falling drop 5. "empty" ileocecal area *185 To identify stones in the gallbladder, all of the following methods are indicated, except: 1. plain radiography of the abdominal cavity 2. retrograde cholangiography 3. ultrasound scan of the abdominal cavity 4. intravenous cholecystocholangiography #5. angiography of gallbladder vesselsi *186 Bleeding time is prolonged due to trauma and bleeding 1. for muscle crush injuries 2. during hemolytic crises #3. with severe and thrombocytopeniai 4. with asphyxia 5. for burn injury *187 Exudative pleurisy, as a rule, is a secondary disease that occurs as a complication of: 1. bronchiectasis 2. Abscess 3. pneumothorax #4. acute and pneumoniai 5. echinococcosis *188 Fibroesophagoscopy may be accompanied by: 1. mucosal injury 2. pharyngeal injury 3. esophageal injury 4. perforation of the esophagus #5. all and abovei  *189 Frequency of malignancy of polyps in familial diffuse polyposis of the colon: 1. malignancy in 100% of cases 2. malignancy does not occur 3. optional precancer 4. this pattern has not been studied #5. depends on the nature of the polypsi (adenomatous and hamartomatous) *190 The most pronounced changes in the esophagus during chemical trauma occur: 1. throughout the esophagus 2. in the throat area 3. in the area of the cardia #4. in places of physiological and narrowingi 5. in the abdominal segment of the esophagus *191 Acute deep vein thrombosis of the extremities is characterized by all of the following, except: 1. sharp bursting pain 2. increase in body temperature 3. swelling of the extremities 4. Cyanosis #5. hyperemia of the skin along the great and veinsi For conservative treatment of acute thrombophlebitis of the superficial veins of the lower extremities, all of the following are recommended, *192 except: 1. bed rest 2. Butadion 3. compresses with Vishnevskog ointment #4. Walkingi 5. elevated limb position *193 The most common cause of trophic ulcers is: 1. lymph circulation disorder 2. arterial circulatory disorder #3. venous and circulatory disordersi 4. traumatic injuries 5. water-electrolyte imbalance *194 The diagnosis of secondary varicose veins of the extremities is made on the basis of all of the following, except: 1. history of deep vein thrombophlebitis 2. pronounced trophic disorders of the skin, persistent edema 3. asymmetry affected 4. data phlebograph #5. data and arteriographyi *195 The greatest cosmetic effect in the treatment of varicose veins of the saphenous veins of the lower extremities is achieved 1. Operation Babcock 2. Operation Troyanova-Trendelenburg #3. Sclerotherapyi 4. Operation Clapp 5. Operation Madelung *196 Milligan-Morgan hemorrhoidectomy involves: 1. circular excision of the anal canal mucosa 2. excision of hemorrhoids at 2,5,8 o'clock on the dial #3. excision of hemorrhoids at 3, 7, 11 o'clock on the diali 4. excision of prolapsed hemorrhoids 5. excision of hemorrhoids at 2,5,8 o'clock on the dial in restoration of the anal canal mucosa *197 The causes of pneumonia in burned patients are: 1. Autoinfection 2. violation of the drainage function of the bronchi 3. pulmonary ventilation impairment 4. disturbance of hemodynamics of the pulmonary circulation #5. all and listedi *198 The primary focus of sepsis is characterized by the presence of the following symptoms: 1. A. “juicy” granulations and marginal epithelization 2. B. copious purulent discharge 3. C. severe swelling of the wound edges 4. D. flaccid granulations #5. E. correct C. and Di. *199 Metronidazole is combined with: 1. with penecillins 2. with cephalosporins 3. with aminoglycosides 4. with tetracyclines #5. with all and listedi A patient with AV (IV) needs a blood transfusion for health reasons. There is neither time nor opportunity to determine the Rh factor. He should *200 receive a blood transfusion: 1. AB (IV) Rh+ #2. AB (IV) rhesusi 3. B (III) Rh + 4. A (II) rhesus – 5. O (I) rhesus – *201 Contraindications to blood transfusion are: 1. major surgery 2. surgical infection 3. Shock #4. severe liver dysfunctioni 5. decrease in blood pressure  A 52-year-old patient complains of intermittent lameness, impotence, periodic diarrhea followed by constipation, unformed stools contai ning *202 mucus and poorly digested food. Objectively: the patient is exhausted, the lower limbs are pale, pulsation in the right femor al artery is not detected. Your diagnosis: #1. SCAI and syndrome and Lerichei 2. Chronic pancreatitis 3. Chronic ulcerative colitis 4. Larrey's syndrome 5. Chronic pylephlebitis *203 Factors of aggression that contribute to the development of peptic ulcer disease include all of the following, except: #1. mucini 2. hydrochloric acid 3. Pepsin 4. violation of the evacuation function of the stomach 5. Helicobacter *204 Acute ulcerations of the stomach and duodenum develop after exposure to unfavorable factors during the next few years: #1. 72 and 70 hoursi 2. 24 hours 3. 36 hours 4. 4 days 5. 10 days *205 Drug-induced ulcerations are predominantly located: #1. in the antrum and departmenti 2. in the fundus of the stomach 3. body of the stomach 4. duodenum 5. in the pyloric region *206 The severity of pain during a peptic ulcer is determined by the following factors, except: #1. Paulai 2. localization of the ulcerative process 3. Age 4. development of complications 5. duration of the process *207 All of the following help reduce pain from peptic ulcers, except: #1. cold in and epigastriumi 2. frequent and small meals 3. bed rest 4. vomiting at the height of pain 5. conservative treatment *208 The causes of acute stomach ulcers can be all of the following, except: #1. Smokingi 2. use of NSAIDs 3. Stress 4. burn disease 5. central nervous system diseases *209 The clinical picture of cardiospasm is not typical: #1. fainting and conditioni 2. Regurgitation 3. recurrent respiratory infections 4. chest pain 5. Regurgitation *210 Reason for the development of achalasia: #1. absence of Auerbachian and plexusi 2. Stress 3. gastroesophageal reflux 4. Gastritis 5. duodenal-gastric reflux *211 The smallest amount of blood that causes melena is: #1. 60 and 55 mli 2. 25 ml 3. 100 ml 4. 250 ml 5. 300 ml *212 Erosive gastritis can be caused by the use of all drugs except: #1. Reserpinai 2. steroid hormones 3. Salicylates 4. Cytostatics 5. heavy metal salts *213 Perforation of an acute gastric ulcer is characterized by all the symptoms except: #1. increased peristalsis and intestinesi 2. stomach ache 3. tension of the anterior abdominal wall 4. epigastric pain 5. dagger pains *214 All of the following symptoms indicate penetration of an ulcer, except: #1. absence and painii 2. increased pain 3. radiating back pain 4. pain at night 5. girdle pain  *215 Massive gastrointestinal bleeding is rarely a consequence of: #1. Reflux and esophagitisi 2. varicose veins of the esophagus 3. erosive gastritis 4. stomach ulcers 5. decaying stomach cancer *216 The development of Mallory-Weiss syndrome is promoted by: #1. Alcoholism and psychosisi 2. peptic ulcer 3. hiatal hernia 4. stomach cancer 5. Duodenitis *217 Symptoms of hypovolemia appear when intestinal bleeding exceeds: #1. 500 and 300 mli 2. 300 ml 3. 100 ml 4. 750 ml 5. 150 ml *218 When a peptic ulcer is complicated by gastrointestinal bleeding, the pain: #1. Disappears and intensifiesi 2. intensifies 3. radiates to the back 4. concentrated in the umbilical region 5. becomes dagger *219 Itching with jaundice is associated with: #1. with salts and bilei 2. with lecithin 3. with bilirubin 4. with phospholipids 5. with histamine *220 The most common clinical sign of liver cirrhosis: #1. Ascitesi 2. palpable liver 3. Jaundice 4. peripheral edema 5. Hepatitis *221 The best method for diagnosing anastomotic ulcer is: #1. Endoscopyi 2. Angiography 3. Radiography 4. acidity test 5. Colonoscopy *222 Night cough is not typical for which disease? #1. Pleurisyi 2. chronic sinusitis 3. bronchial asthma 4. Pneumonia 5. COPD *223 The most common causes of cough. (Indicate incorrect answer) #1. Cystic fibrosisi 2. bronchial asthma 3. chronic bronchitis 4. Sinusitis 5. acute bronchitis *224 When there is a paroxysmal cough with repetitions: 1. Chronical bronchitis 2. gastroesophageal reflux 3. BEB #4. Whooping coughii 5. Typhus *225 In case of OBDL, what is the nature of sputum: 1. mucous - purulent 2. mucous - viscous 3. Foamy #4. purulent and fetidi 5. pure transparent *226 What are the common causes of hemoptysis. (Indicate the wrong answer) 1. pulmonary embolism 2. lungs' cancer #3. Pneumoniai 4. pulmonary tuberculosis 5. destruction of lung tissue *227 Chest pain that is not relieved by nitroglycerin, accompanied by pallor, cold sweat, and arterial hypotension is characteristic of: #1. infarction and myocardiumi 2. Angina pectoris 3. pneumothorax NLD 4. rib fracture 5. COPD  *228 Chest pain when lying down, when bending forward, especially after eating, often interfering with sleep, is typical for: 1. stomach diseases 2. NNZL #3. Esophagospasmi 4. dissecting aortic aneurysm 5. Gastritis *229 Which pathogen often causes acute nonspecific surgical infection: #1. Staphylococcusi 2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa 3. pale spirochete 4. radiant fungus 5. Trichomonas *230 What disease should be excluded first when complaining of chest pain? 1. rib fracture 2. pleural lung diseases 3. Pneumonia #4. angina pectoris, heart attack and myocardiumi 5. sternum fracture *231 Pain in the left iliac region, aggravated by walking, fever, constipation, blood and pus in the stool are typical: 1. for dysentery 2. for intussusception 3. for renal colic #4. for colonic diverticulitisi 5. Gastritis *232 Mild constant pain in the abdomen, a pulsating formation in the abdomen is typical: 1. for abdominal aortic tumor 2. for ovarian cyst 3. for the vagal kidney #4. for aneurysm and abdominal aortai 5. Leriche syndrome *233 Acutely occurring severe pain in the abdomen or back with shock in an elderly patient is typical: 1. for acute intestinal obstruction 2. for colon tumor 3. for coprostasis #4. for rupture of aneurysm and aortai 5. Pyelonephritis *234 Cramping abdominal pain and diarrhea, possible fever, weakness, nausea, vomiting are typical for: #1. acute and gastroenteritisi 2. exacerbation of peptic ulcer disease 3. colon cancer 4. SKhAI 5. Perforations *235 An acute ulcer occurs when taking medication: 1. Belladonna 2. Validol 3. vitamin C" #4. Aspirini 5. Antibiotics *236 Determine the correspondence of the second degree of blood loss according to DHO and Ht: #1. DGO 30%, Ht and 25%i 2. DGO 20%, Ht 35% 3. DGO up to 30%, Ht 25-30% 4. DGO is more than 30%, Ht is below 25% 5. DGO 50%, Ht 40% *237 Tactics of the clinic doctor at the GDK: 1. prescribing conservative treatment under the supervision of a primary care physician #2. deliver the patient to the surgical hospital accompanied by a doctori 3. treatment of the patient on an outpatient basis under the supervision of a surgeon 4. send the patient to the hospital with a referral 5. outpatient observation *238 Contraindications to appendectomy in acute appendicitis are: 1. myocardial infarction 2. pregnancy 36-40 weeks 3. novocaine intolerance #4. appendicular and infiltratei 5. Peritonitis *239 What corresponds to the concept of dumping syndrome? 1. adductor loop extension 2. Hypovolemia #3. Hypoglycemiai 4. Hyperglycemia 5. shedding jejunum *240 Severe pain in a limb that is swollen, tense, shiny, pale and colder to the touch than a healthy one. Your diagnosis. #1. acute deep and thrombophlebitisi 2. acute superficial thrombophlebitis 3. phlegmon of the limb 4. limb gangrene 5. post-injection abscess  *241 Specify the causes of suprahepatic block in portal hypertension? 1. cirrhosis of the liver 2. hydatid cyst of the liver 3. portal vein thrombosis #4. disease and Chiari 5. Hodgkin *242 The length of the anal canal corresponds to #1. 3 and 4 cmi 2. 2-3 cm 3. 1-2 cm 4. 4-5 cm 5. 7-8cm *243 The occurrence of anal fissure is caused by 1. Haemorrhoids #2. prolonged and constipationi 3. acute paraproctitis proctitis 4. trauma to the rectum and anal canal 5. Diarrhea *244 Posterior dosed sphincterotomy is indicated in the treatment #1. hemorrhoids, with increased sphincter and anal tone and fissuresi 2. Coccydynia 3. chronic paraproctitis 4. hemorrhoids with prolapse of internal hemorrhoids 5. prolapse of the rectal mucosa *245 To confirm the diagnosis of anal fissure, it is enough 1. Colonoscopy 2. Anoscopy #3. digital examination of the rectum and intestinei 4. Irrigoscopy 5. Sigmoidoscopy *246 Sharp pain in the anal area during defecation, accompanied by a slight discharge of scarlet blood, and “stool fear” are characteristic #1. for anal fissure and canali 2. for rectal polyp 3. for sphincteritis 4. for colorectal cancer 5. for UC *247 The clinical picture of a rectal fistula is characterized by 1. bleeding during bowel movements #2. relapses of paraproctitis with discharge of pus from the fistulai 3. Fear of chairs 4. secretion of mucus during bowel movements 5. bleeding during bowel movements *248 For acute ischiorectal paraproctitis, indicated #1. opening of the abscess through the perineum with the intersection of the coccygeal-rectal and ligamenti 2. opening of an abscess through the intestinal lumen 3. puncture of the abscess and administration of antibiotics 4. opening, drainage of the abscess, excision of the crypt in the anal canal 5. abscess excision *249 For the occurrence of acute paraproctitis, the obligatory etiological factors are #1. blockage of the anal gland excretory duct and inflammationi 2. Diarrhea 3. tendency to constipation 4. defect of the rectal mucosa 5. Constipation After a macro- and microscopic examination of a specimen of the rectum removed for cancer, the diagnosis was formulated: “T2NxM0 rectal *250 cancer.” It means that 1. no distant metastases 2. regional lymph nodes are not affected 3. regional lymph nodes are affected #4. everything is correct except and Bi 5. there are metastases *251 Ishiorectal paraproctitis in typical cases is characterized by all of the following, except 1. mucus discharge from the anus and swelling of the perineum with hyperemia 2. high temperature 3. no changes in the perineal skin #4. disturbance and urinationi 5. Hemorrhoids *252 For purulent inflammation of the epithelial coccygeal duct, it is more appropriate #1. opening of an abscess with excision of the epithelial passage and open management of the woundi 2. opening the abscess and draining the purulent cavity 3. excision of the epithelial tract with suturing of the wound tightly 4. opening of the abscess with excision of the epithelial tract and suturing the edges of the wound along the bottom 5. antibiotic therapy without opening *253 For the diagnosis of extrasphincteric fistula of the rectum, 1. Colonoscopy #2. anoscopy and fistulographyi 3. Irrigoscopy 4. passage of barium through the intestines 5. Ultrasound  *254 The most common complications of diverticulosis of the sigmoid colon are #1. Diverticulitisi 2. Bleeding 3. penetration of the diverticulum into the intestinal mesentery 4. perforation of the sigmoid colon 5. Haemorrhoids *255 The most common complications of sigmoid colon cancer are 1. tumor perforation 2. tumor penetration into the mesentery 3. inflammation of the sigmoid colon #4. intestinal and obstructioni 5. UC *256 Acquired diverticulosis of the colon is most often localized 1. in the transverse colon 2. in the right half of the colon 3. equally often in the right and left halves #4. in the left half of the colon and intestinesi 5. in the hepatic angle *257 Congenital diverticulosis of the colon is most often localized #1. in the right half of the colon and intestinesi 2. in the left half of the colon 3. equally often in the right and left halves 4. in the sigmoid colon 5. in the splenic angle *258 The blood supply to the rectum occurs due to 1. perineal arteries 2. superior mesenteric artery and internal iliac artery 3. internal pudendal artery #4. internal iliac artery and branches of the inferior mesenteric and arteryi 5. inferior mesenteric artery *259 In the rectum they secrete #1. two and sphincteri 2. one sphincter 3. three sphincters 4. four sphincters 5. five sphincter *260 Not used in the treatment of UC 1. hormonal drugs 2. Antibiotics 3. Vitamins #4. Laxativei 5. immunomodulators *261 A complication of acute terminal ileitis cannot be #1. intestinal and obstructioni 2. perforation 3. bleeding 4. abscess formation 5. Peritonitis *262 Conservative treatment of UC includes #1. all and abovei 2. Diet 3. Vitamins 4. Sulfonamides 5. symptomatic treatment *263 Most common cause of small bowel mechanical obstruction 1. gallstones 2. foreign bodies #3. abdominal and cavity adhesionsi 4. benign tumors 5. Tumors *264 Not typical for Crohn's disease #1. damage only the mucous membrane and intestinesi 2. development of external and intraorgan fistulas 3. long course of the disease 4. development of perirectal fistulas 5. dyspeptic symptoms *265 Carcinoid secretes 1. hydrochloric acid 2. Histamine 3. 5-hydroxytryptamine #4. none of these and substancesi 5. gastrin *266 The most reliable method for diagnosing colon polyps #1. Colonoscopyi 2. X-ray examination with oral barium administration 3. Irrigoscopy 4. stool examination for hidden mucus 5. Ultrasound  *267 Meckel's diverticulum is a remnant of the duct 1. Wolf 2. Senzon #3. Omphalomesenterici 4. Muller 5. Melory *268 Has no diagnostic value for Hirschsprung's disease 1. biopsy according to Swenson 2. Irrigoscopy 3. study of the passage of barium through the colon #4. ultrasound and researchi 5. Colonoscopy *269 The most rational method of treating colorectal cancer 1. symptomatic treatment 2. Chemotherapy #3. combined and treatmenti 4. X-ray radiotherapy 5. operative method *270 Obligate precancers of the colon include #1. diffuse familial and polyposisi 2. juvenile polyps 3. single colon polyp 4. regional enteritis 5. pseudopolyps *271 Which colon polyps are more prone to malignancy? 1. multiple adenomatous 2. hyperplastic 3. adenomatous #4. Villousi 5. Ulcerative *272 Uncharacteristic for perirectal fistula 1. Fistulous 2. periodic aggravated 3. purulent discharge #4. Bleedingi 5. mucus-like discharge *273 Do not use for acute thrombosis of hemorrhoids #1. Sclerotherapyi 2. Analgesic 3. Anticoagulant 4. presacral blockade 5. surgical interventions *274 To confirm the diagnosis of anal fissure, it is used 1. measuring pressure in the rectum #2. Anoscopyi 3. Colonoscopy 4. Rectoscopy 5. Irrigography *275 Excision of hemorrhoids is contraindicated in #1. portal and hypertensioni 2. nodes falling out 3. combined hemorrhoids 4. ulceration of nodes 5. single nodes *276 In the treatment of chronic callous fissures, the most effective is 1. injection of novocaine with alcohol under the crack 2. presacral blockade with novocaine solution #3. excision of the fissure with dosed and sphincterotomyi 4. digital sphincter stretch according to Recomye 5. conservative treatment *277 Meckel's diverticulum is an anatomical element #1. ileum and intestinesi 2. jejunum 3. is a protrusion of the bile ducts 4. often occurs after appendectomy 5. colon *278 Meckel's diverticulum most often occurs 1. small bowel obstruction 2. bloody vomiting 3. bleeding from the rectum #4. Diverticulitis and ulcersi 5. polyposis *279 Which wall of the rectum protrudes into the vagina during rectocele? #1. Fronti 2. Rear 3. Lateral 4. back and side 5. All  *280 How many degrees of rectocele are there? 1. 1 degree 2. 5 degrees 3. 4 degrees #4. 3rd and 4th degreesi 5. 2 degrees *281 What are the main causes of Hirschsprung's disease? #1. abnormal development of the intramural nervous system of the colon and intestinei 2. autoimmune factor 3. psychogenic constipation 4. intoxication of the body 5. anal atresia *282 What changes are characteristic of the nervous system of the colon in Hirschsprung's disease? 1. increase in the number of ganglia of the intramural plexus #2. absence or hypogangliosis of the intramural and plexusi 3. muscle wasting 4. nerve fibers are not changed 5. ischemia of nerve cells *283 In what area of the colon is the aganglionic zone most often identified in Hirschsprung's disease? #1. rectum and intestinei 2. rectosigmoid region 3. ileocecal angle 4. sigmoid colon 5. Duodenum *284 What diseases are used for differential diagnosis of Hirschsprung's disease? 1. Crohn's disease 2. amoebiasis of the colon #3. chronic and colostasisi 4. nonspecific ulcerative colitis 5. Hemorrhoids *285 What is the leading symptom of Hirschsprung's disease? #1. lack of independent stool and flatulencei 2. discharge of pathological discharge from the anus 3. Diarrhea 4. Vomit 5. Dysphagia *286 What is characteristic of Hirschsprung's disease upon local examination of the abdomen? 1. “Shchetkin-Blumberg” symptom is positive 2. Large-wave peristalsis is visible, intestinal loops are distended. 3. “doughy belly” #4. “frog belly” and asymmetry of the abdomeni 5. Peritonitis *287 What is the diagnosis of Hirschsprung's disease based on? #1. anamnesis and x-ray and examinationi 2. clinical and biochemical tests 3. CT scan 4. immunological tests 5. Ultrasound *288 What is the main method of surgical treatment for Hirschsprung's disease in adults? 1. Hagenthorn's operation 2. Operation Soava 3. Swenson's operation #4. Duhamel operationi 5. Oppel operation *289 What are the clinical signs of stage II anal sphincter insufficiency? #1. incontinence of gases and liquid and stooli 2. gas incontinence 3. incontinence of formed feces 4. incontinence of gases and formed stools 5. fecal retention. gases *290 Specify the treatment tactics for stage III anal sphincter insufficiency? 1. dosed sphincterotomy 2. Levatoroplasty 3. Proctoplasty #4. Sphincteroplastyi 5. extirpation of the rectum *291 The most common theories in the etiology of UC include: #1. All answers are correcti 2. Infectious 3. Neurogenic 4. Autoimmune 5. Hereditary *292 What influences the development and course of UC disease? 1. Stress #2. Changes in immunological reactivity and progressive and dysbacteriosisi 3. Spasm of the muscle wall 4. Increased intraintestinal pressure 5. decreased intraintestinal pressure  *293 What clinical forms of UC exist? 1. chronically continuously relapsing form 2. chronic relapsing form 3. acute lightning form #4. all answers are correcti 5. there is no right answer *294 Which layer of the colon is primarily affected by UC? #1. Mucousi 2. Submucosal 3. Muscular 4. Serous 5. Axillary *295 What is the main clinical sign of UC? 1. uncontrollable vomiting 2. increased body temperature #3. diarrhea and discharge of pathological impuritiesi (blood, mucus, and pus) 4. Constipation 5. Dysphagia *296 What are the most common radiological signs of UC? #1. ulcerative defects and tubular and narrowingi 2. filling defect 3. Payer's syndrome 4. megarectum 5. minirectum *297 What diseases should be used for differential diagnosis of UC? 1. pseudo-obstructive syndrome 2. Colostasis 3. Hirschsprung's disease #4. Disease and Crohn'si 5. Gastritis *298 What are the indications for surgical treatment of UC? 1. colon stricture 2. Perforation 3. bleeding #4. all answers are correcti 5. total defeat *299 The main method for diagnosing amoebiasis of the colon. 1. immunological #2. serological and bacteriologicali 3. angiography 4. Ultrasound 5. Virological *300 What are the main drugs used in the treatment of colon amoebiasis? #1. metrogyl, and emetinei 2. Salofalk 3. Salazopyridazine 4. Chemotherapy 5. Penicillin *301 What histological form of cancer is most common in the colon? 1. Carcinoid 2. Sarcoma #3. Adenocarcinomai 4. Leiomyosarcoma 5. Lake *302 What is the main clinical symptom of cancer of the right half of the colon? #1. Anemiai 2. intestinal obstruction 3. Bleeding 4. Diarrhea 5. Leukocytosis *303 What surgical method is indicated for a tumor of the sigmoid colon complicated by intestinal obstruction? #1. Hartmann's operationi 2. Operation Soave 3. operation Swenson 4. Duhamel operation 5. Operation Oppel *304 In how many positions can it be recommended to perform a digital examination of the rectum? 1. in one 2. at four 3. in three #4. at five and teni 5. at ten *305 Which research method is the most informative for cancer of the lower ampullary part of the rectum? #1. digital examination of the rectum and intestinei 2. X-ray examination 3. Ultrasound 4. Tomography 5. ERCP  *306 What is colonic diverticulosis? #1. Hernia-like protrusion of the mucous membrane and membranei 2. Megarectum. 3. Total expansion of the colon. 4. Congenital stricture of the colon 5. anal atresia *307 Which part of the colon is most often affected by diverticulosis? 1. Transverse colon. 2. Descending part of the colon. 3. Cecum. #4. Sigmoid and coloni 5. hepatic angle *308 For colon diverticulosis, the most informative diagnostic method is #1. Irrigography and CTi 2. Balonography. 3. Rectoscopy. 4. CT scan. 5. Ultrasound *309 The cause of the development of acquired diverticulosis of the colon. 1. Decrease in intestinal pressure 2. Spastic colitis. #3. Increased intraintestinal and pressurei 4. Abdominal injury. 5. paralytic colitis *310 What is Crohn's disease #1. Inflammatory and ulcerative disease of the gastrointestinal tract, granulomatous and colitisi 2. infectious disease of the colon. 3. Congenital pathology of the colon. 4. Anomaly of the esophagus. 5. anal atresia *311 Specify the most informative research methods for Crohn's disease of the colon. 1. Rectoscopy 2. stool culture tank 3. Ultrasound #4. Irrigography and colonoscopyi 5. ECG *312 Crohn's disease is characterized by: #1. Segmental and sectioni 2. only the colon. 3. only the rectum. 4. only the jejunum. 5. Total *313 In what year was Crohn's disease first described? 1. 1956 #2. 1932 ani 3. 1960 4. 1856 5. 1980 *314 Which of the following complications are typical for Crohn's disease? #1. formation of interintestinal and fistulasi 2. polyp formation 3. formation of stercoral ulcers 4. Intussusception 5. Strangulations *315 Specify the characteristic signs of Crohn's disease. 1. Megarectum 2. “filling defect” #3. “cobblestone and pavement”i 4. Dolichosigma 5. dolichorectosigmoiditis *316 The main clinical symptoms of Crohn's disease (exclude unnecessary ones): #1. Profuse and bleedingi 2. discharge of blood and pus in stool 3. Stomach ache. 4. Low-grade fever 5. dyspeptic symptoms *317 Which of the following complications is not characteristic of Crohn's disease? #1. Megarectum and othersi 2. rectal fistulas 3. Pseudopolyposis 4. Bleeding 5. Perforation *318 Which of the following is not a symptom of Crohn's disease 1. Stomach ache. 2. Discharge of blood in feces. #3. Constant and constipationi 4. Diarrhea 5. Haemorrhoids  *319 Which of the following factors is the leading factor in the etiology of Crohn's disease? #1. Neuropsychic and immunologicali 2. Infectious. 3. Traumatic 4. Hereditary 5. Viral *320 Microscopic picture of Crohn's disease, indicate the correct answer. 1. Presence of lymphocytes 2. Presence of streptococcusC. 3. Presence of neutrophils 4. there is no right answer #5. Presence and granulomasi *321 In the diagnosis of rectovaginal fistulas it is important: #1. digital rectal examination and rectoscopyi 2. balloonography 3. Irrigography 4. general blood and urine analysis 5. Colonoscopy *322 Damage to the hollow organs of the abdominal cavity is characterized by: 1. abdominal pain. 2. bloating and intestinal paresis. 3. an increasing symptom of peritoneal irritation. 4. On fluoroscopy there is free gas under the dome of the diaphragm. #5. all the answers are correcti *323 The causative agent of erysipelas: 1. Gonococcus #2. Streptococcusi 3. Diplococcus 4. Enterococcus 5. gram neg microf *324 Erysipelas is most often localized: #1. on the lower and limbsi 2. on the upper limbs 3. on the scalp 4. on small joints 5. in all parts of the body The main stimulators of acid secretion in the stomach are: A. acetylcholine; B. histamine; C. gastrin; D. adrenaline; E. prostaglandins. Choose *325 the correct combination of answers: #1. a, b, and i 2. c, d, d 3. b, c, d 4. b, c, d 5. a, c, d A 62-year-old patient was admitted to the department 12 hours after the onset of the disease with complaints of cramping abdominal pain, *326 nausea, and vomiting. History of appendectomy. The pain appeared after eating plant foods. The patient's condition is moderat e. Pulse 92 beats/min. The abdomen is moderately distended, and there is retraction of the right iliac region. In the projection of the ascending colon, an oval-shaped soft-elastic tumor-like formation is palpated. Peristalsis is enhanced, with a resonant tint. A rectal examination revealed bloody 1. toxic dilatation discharge fromof the the colon Irrigoscopy was performed and the “divide” symptom was determined. Please indicate the correct clinical diagnosis: rectum. #2. ileocecal form and intussusceptionsi 3. abscess of the right iliac region 4. cecal tumor, obstructive intestinal obstruction 5. compression of the colon by an ovarian cyst with the development of obstructive intestinal obstruction Conservative treatment of obstructive intestinal obstruction is as follows: A. gastric decompression; B. siphon enema; C. correction of water and *327 electrolyte disorders; D. administration of promedol; E. administration of drugs that enhance intestinal motility Select the correct combination of answers: 1. a, c, d #2. a, b, and i 3. a, b, d 4. b, c, d 5. b, c, d *328 Contraindications to surgical treatment for strangulated hernia? #1. agonal and statei 2. second half of pregnancy 3. gigantic hernia size 4. recent myocardial infarction 5. Angina pectoris *329 What operation is considered inadequate for an indirect inguinal hernia except? 1. according to the Postemsky method 2. according to the Sapezhko method #3. according to the Girrard-and Spasokukotsky methodi 4. according to the Bassini method 5. strengthening the posterior wall of the inguinal canal *330 What pain is not typical for an irreducible umbilical hernia, except? #1. sudden severe paini 2. constant pain 3. periodically increasing pain 4. no pain 5. It's a dull pain *331 The occurrence of abdominal hernias is facilitated by, except: 1. diseases that increase intra-abdominal pressure #2. prolonged bed resti 3. elderly age 4. progressive weight loss 5. structural features of the anterior abdominal wall where hernias occur  *332 What is the principle of surgery for an indirect inguinal hernia, except: 1. strengthening the anterior wall #2. strengthening the back and walli 3. restoration of the spermatic cord elements and strengthening of the anterior wall 4. Isolation of the hernial sac 5. Removal of the hernial sac *333 Which abdominal organ is not found in a large umbilical hernia? #1. Liver and hearti 2. big oil seal 3. small intestine 4. transverse colon 5. uterine appendages *334 All of the following are considered hospital-acquired infections except: 1. infection acquired in a hospital setting #2. infection spreading by hematogenous and lymphogenous routesi 3. infection acquired during examination 4. infection acquired during surgery 5. Injection caught during injection *335 Complications of sepsis include all of the following, except 1. septic bleeding 2. thromboembolism of the arteries of the extremities or internal organs #3. ascites and anasarcai 4. septic endocarditis 5. Pneumonia *336 The clinical classification of sepsis includes all of the following forms except #1. Postoperative and ni 2. Recurrent 3. Chronic 4. Acute 5. lightning fast *337 Measures recommended for sepsis include all of the following, except 1. opening a purulent focus #2. limited administration and fluidsi 3. intramuscular administration of antibiotics 4. blood transfusion 5. administration of vitamins *338 Conditions favorable to the development of purulent microflora upon its penetration into the body include all of the following, except #1. the presence of integrity of the skin epidermis or epithelium and mucous membranesi 2. penetration of several types of synergistic microbes 3. defects of the skin or mucous membranes 4. the presence of crushed tissue in the injury area 5. penetration of microbes of increased virulence *339 The penetration of purulent microflora causes a reaction from the tissues, expressed by all of the following, except 1. arterial hyperemia 2. venous stasis 3. appearance of pain 4. local temperature rise #5. loss and sensitivityi *340 Specify the important symptoms of anaerobic infection (wrong answer): 1. wound pain 2. feeling of fullness in the limbs 3. feeling of tightness of the bandage #4. twitching in and woundi 5. Swelling *341 With a carbuncle of the neck, all of the following are indicated, except #1. opening the abscess along linear and incisional linesi 2. antibiotics intramuscularly 3. sulfonamide drugs by mouth 4. Vitamin therapy 5. ultraviolet irradiation *342 Indications for primary surgical treatment of a wound include: 1. no more than 6 hours have passed since the injury 2. the wound is clean 3. edges are smooth 4. the wound is gaping #5. wound with purulent and dischargei *343 Which of the following is not typical for the inflammation phase of a wound process? 1. violation of the permeability of the vascular wall. 2. development of inflammatory edema. #3. development of granulation and shafti 4. leukocyte infiltration of tissues. 5. development of tissue acidosis. *344 What manipulation is not included in the primary surgical treatment of a wound? 1. excision of the edges of the wound. 2. stop bleeding. 3. removal of foreign bodies from the wound. #4. washing the wound and antibioticsi 5. suturing tightly or draining.  *345 The initial period of formation of appendiceal infiltrate is not typical: 1. subsidence of pain in the right iliac region that existed in the first days of the disease; 2. improving the well-being and general condition of patients; 3. reduction of muscle tension and other symptoms of peritoneal irritation; #4. an increase in leukocytosis and a shift in the leukocyte formula to the lefti 5. the appearance in the right iliac region of a dense, inactive, slightly painful tumor-like formation. *346 Everything indicates abscess formation of the appendicular infiltrate except: 1. high temperature; 2. resumption or intensification of pain; #3. a clear tendency to reduce infiltration during the process and treatmenti 4. the appearance of symptoms of peritoneal irritation; 5. increase in leukocytosis and acceleration of ESR. *347 The patient had an appendicular infiltrate. Your action except: #1. emergency and surgeryi 2. conservative therapy 3. dynamic monitoring of the patient’s general status 4. Ultrasound surveillance 5. Only when there is suppuration is surgery indicated *348 Acute appendicitis, and not right-sided renal colic, is characterized by: 1. the presence of fresh red blood cells in the urine; 2. sharp pain in the right lumbar or iliac region; 3. irradiation of pain to the right thigh, perineum; #4. muscle tension in the right iliacus regioni 5. dysuric disorders. *349 There is no blood supply to the appendix with arterial blood, except for: 1. A. epigastrica inferior 2. A. testicularis #3. A. and appendicularisi 4. A. femoralis 5. A. thoracica interna *350 Acute appendicitis, rather than pancreatitis, is characterized by: 1. Kerthe's sign #2. Bartomier - and Michelsoni 3. Mayo-Robson sign 4. Gray-Turner sign 5. Mondor's sign *351 Acute appendicitis, and not cholecystitis, is characterized by: 1. Ker's sign 2. frenicus symptom 3. Ortner's sign 4. Murphy's sign #5. symptom and Rovzingai *352 Where does pain begin in acute appendicitis? Show the wrong answer. 1. in the right iliac region 2. on the right side of the abdomen 3. in the epigastric region 4. all over my stomach #5. in the right lumbar and areai *353 For periappendicular abscess, no access is made, except for: #1. extraperitoneal according to and Pirogovskyi 2. according to Dyakonov Volkovich 3. transperitoneal according to Pirogovsky 4. lower midline laparotomy 5. Pfeinstiel incision *354 Specify treatment methods for bleeding from GEA ulcers (except): #1. Probe and Blackmore guidancei 2. gastric lavage with cold water 3. introduction of vasoconstrictors into the stomach 4. endoscopic electrocoagulation 5. blood transfusion *355 Name the symptom of gastroduodenal bleeding of ulcerative etiology (except): #1. vomiting with bilei 2. vomiting coffee grounds 3. tarry stool 4. signs of anemia 5. symptoms of collapse *356 What are the points of therapeutic tactics for gastroduodenal bleeding (except): #1. outpatient and observationi 2. hospitalization in a surgical hospital for emergency reasons 3. emergency surgery for repeated and profuse bleeding 4. endoscopic coagulation 5. Blood transfusion *357 Mandatory stages of preparing a patient with bleeding for therapeutic and diagnostic endoscopy are all of the following, except: 1. central vein catheterization 2. determination of blood group and Rh factor 3. gastric lavage, perfusion with ice water 4. premedication and local anesthesia of the pharynx #5. fluoroscopy and stomachi  *358 The endoscopic method of stopping bleeding is advisable to use in all of the listed cases of bleeding (except) 1. relapse of bleeding from a chronic gastric or duodenal ulcer 2. ulcer bleeding in patients at high risk of surgery 3. bleeding from acute ulcers and erosions 4. bleeding from benign or malignant tumors in the acute period #5. bleeding from varicose veins of the esophagus - in the acute and periodi *359 Indications for surgery for acute intestinal obstruction, except: 1. presence of peritonitis #2. presence of stool and passage of gases after siphon and enemai 3. presence of volvulus, intestinal nodule formation 4. intussusception 5. lack of effect from conservative therapy *360 Which of the following research methods are decisive when making a diagnosis of acute intestinal obstruction except: #1. biochemical tests and bloodi 2. plain radiography of the abdominal cavity 3. study of the passage of barium through the gastrointestinal tract (“barium swallow”) 4. plain fluoroscopy of the abdominal cavity 5. Abdominal ultrasound *361 Colon obstruction is characterized by all of the following signs, except: 1. bloating #2. fast and dehydrationi 3. appearance of Kloiber's "bowls" 4. stool retention 5. gradually increasing intoxication *362 What are the signs of intestinal viability except? 1. shiny serous cover 2. gut color #3. reduction in diameter and intestinei 4. intestinal peristalsis 5. pulsation of mesenteric vessels *363 With high small intestinal obstruction, water and electrolyte disturbances develop, except for: #1. Overhydration and rehydrationi 2. Hypokalemia 3. Dehydration 4. Hyponatremia 5. Hypochloremia *364 In order to correct homeostasis, a patient with high small intestinal obstruction must be prescribed all of the following, except: #1. 2O% solution and mannitoli 2. Stabizol 3. polyionic solution 4. Reopoliglyukin 5. plasma expanders *365 The cause of the development of paralytic intestinal obstruction cannot be: 1. peritonitis 2. lead poisoning #3. acute and gastritisi 4. retroperitoneal hematoma 5. adhesive disease *366 The following symptoms are characteristic of sigmoid colon volvulus, except: 1. "splash noise" 2. Tsege von Manteuffel's symptom 3. abdominal asymmetry #4. Diarrhea and constipationi 5. cramping pain *367 The de Quervain triad for perforated ulcers includes, except: 1. "board-shaped" belly; 2. "dagger" pain; #3. ulcerative and medical historyi 4. dullness in the lateral canal; 5. disappearance of liver dullness *368 For a perforated gastric ulcer in the first 6 hours, the following are typical, except: 1. pneumoperitoneum 2. plank belly 3. "dagger" pain in the abdomen #4. repeated and vomitingi 5. Anxiety *369 The nature of surgical intervention for a perforated gastric ulcer determines, except: 1. patient's age #2. localization of perforation and openingi 3. severity of peritonitis 4. period from the moment of perforation 5. severity of peritonitis *370 Which of the following diseases is most often necessary to differentiate between covered perforation of a duodenal ulcer, except? 1. acute pancreatitis 2. acute cholecystitis 3. acute appendicitis #4. ectopic and pregnancyi 5. acute gastritis  *371 Closed liver injury is characterized by all of the following symptoms except 1. post-traumatic shock phenomena 2. positive Frenicus symptom 3. severe symptoms of peritoneal irritation 4. pain and weakly positive Shchetkin-Blumberg sign in the right hypochondrium #5. free gas in the abdomen and cavityi *372 Bile-stained fluid in the abdominal cavity is observed in all cases except: 1. gallbladder perforation 2. rupture of a suppurating hydatid cyst of the liver #3. long-term mechanical and jaundicei 4. perforation of duodenal ulcer 5. closed damage to the gallbladder and bile ductsC. *373 Ovarian apoplexy is characterized by everything except: 1. sharp pain in the lower abdomen. 2. mid-menstrual cycle. #3. history of delay and menstruationi 4. fainting, dizziness. 5. pain in the lower abdomen, more on the side of the injury. *374 All of the following symptoms are characteristic of a closed injury to the hollow organs of the abdomen except: 1. sharp pain in the abdomen. 2. bloating. 3. positive symptom of peritoneal irritation. #4. positive Vanka-and Vstanka symptomi 5. Fluoroscopy shows free gas in the abdominal cavity. *375 For a non-penetrating wound of the abdominal cavity, all of the following are typical except: 1. absence of free gas in the abdomen without fluoroscopy. #2. loss of a strand of the greater omentum from the wound and canali 3. Ultrasound shows no fluid in the abdominal cavity. 4. negative symptom of peritoneal irritation. 5. *376 The formation of a subcapsular hematoma due to liver injury is characterized by everything except: #1. positive symptom of Shchetkin and Blumbergi 2. pain in the right hypochondrium. 3. Ultrasound shows the presence of a subcapsular hematoma. 4. history of injury from a car accident. 5. decreased A/D, increased heart rate. *377 It is not typical for trauma with a penetrating stab wound to the abdomen. 1. X-ray shows free gas in the abdominal cavity. 2. Ultrasound shows the presence of fluid in the abdominal cavity. 3. positive symptom of Shchetkin Blumberg. 4. loss of a strand of omentum from the wound. #5. with PST, the wound channel ends bluntly in the muscles of the anterior abdominal walli *378 Which is not typical when a foreign body enters the respiratory tract. 1. severe choking, sore throat 2. the patient is suffocating. 3. the patient becomes cyanotic. #4. indomitable and vomitingi 5. Suffocation *379 In case of closed damage to the gallbladder with a rupture, the following is not typical: 1. pain in the right hypochondrium. 2. an increasing positive symptom of peritoneal irritation. 3. palpation reveals an enlarged, painful gallbladder, #4. positive with Ortner, and Murphyi 5. Peritonitis *380 Bladder injury is characterized by all of the following except: 1. pain in the lower abdomen. #2. General urinalysis without any changesi 3. positive Zeldovich test. 4. determination of muscle tension mainly in the lower abdomen. 5. Ultrasound shows the presence of fluid in the abdominal cavity. *381 The source of diagnostic error in acute appendicitis is all except? #1. overestimation of the significance of the Shchetkin-and Blumberg symptomi 2. insufficient knowledge of the clinic and diagnosis of acute appendicitis 3. hasty and superficially collected anamnesis 4. non-use of additional research methods 5. non-use of ultrasound *382 The most common causes of jaundice, all except: 1. viral hepatitis 2. ZhKB 3. pancreatic head cancer 4. cirrhosis of the liver #5. chronic acalculous and cholecystitisi Methods for determining the presence of free gas in the abdomen:1) by percussion - the presence of dullness in the lateral sections2) by *383 percussion - the disappearance of hepatic dullness (Spizharsky's symptom)3) x-ray - the presence of a crescent-shaped clearing under the dome of the diaphragm4) auscultation - absence of peristalsis5) auscultation - increased peristalsis 1. b, d 2. aBC #3. b, and i 4. a, d 5. aBC  Mandatory methods of clinical examination of patients with peptic ulcer are: 1) X-ray; 2) EGDFS; 3) study of gastric secretion; 4) test for *384 Helicobacter pylori. 5) Ultrasound; 6) CT; 7) spirometry; Choose the correct combination of answers: #1. b, c, and i 2. d, f, g 3. c, d, d 4. aBC 5. a, b, g *385 A patient came to the clinic with postpartum right-sided mastitis in the stage of serous inflammation. What treatment is inappropriate? #1. massage and breastsi 2. expressing milk; 3. lubricating nipples with disinfectant solutions; 4. elevated chest position; 5. UV therapy. *386 The following cannot be classified as primary chronic osteomyelitis: 1. Brody's abscess; 2. Garre's osteomyelitis; 3. Ollier osteomyelitis; #4. post-traumatic and osteomyelitisi 5. *387 At what time do signs of osteoporosis appear on radiographs in patients with acute hematogenous osteomyelitis? 1. at 1 week of illness; 2. at 2 weeks of illness; #3. at 3-4 weeks and illnessi 4. at 5-6 weeks of illness. 5. *388 At what time do linear clearings appear on radiographs in patients with hematogenous osteomyelitis? #1. by the end of 1 and 2 weeksi 2. by the end of 2 weeks; 3. by the end of 3 weeks; 4. by the end of 4 weeks. 5. *389 First of all, you should look for the primary focus of inflammation in acute hematogenous osteomyelitis: 1. in the diaphysis of the bone; 2. in the epiphysis of the bone; #3. in the metaphysis and bonei 4. doesn't matter. 5. *390 The following cannot be considered characteristic of the initial period of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis: 1. leukocytosis; 2. pain in the limb; 3. limb dysfunction; 4. hyperthermia; #5. Anemia and leukocytosisi *391 Administration of a prophylactic dose of antitetanus serum is not indicated: 1. for a 2nd degree thermal burn; 2. with a bruised head wound; 3. with a puncture wound of the foot; #4. with a closed fracture of the phalanxi 5. with an open fracture of the phalanx. *392 Not typical for the picture of the acute phase of tetanus: 1. muscle spasms in the limbs of the body; 2. hyperthermia; 3. tachycardia; 4. “sardonic” smile; #5. collapse, and anemiai *393 Early symptoms of tetanus infection should not include: #1. Cramps or noti 2. increased pain in the wound; 3. irritability; 4. headache; 5. sweating *394 Local signs of tuberculous lesions of the hip joint should not include: #1. hyperemia and skini 2. soft tissue atrophy; 3. joint deformation; 4. dysfunction of the joint; 5. joint pain. *395 Secondary wound healing is observed when healing through: 1. suppuration; 2. scab; 3. granulation; #4. all and specifiedi 5. none of the above. *396 When is late surgical treatment of an infected wound performed? #1. 18-24 hoursi 2. 24 hours; 3. -48 hours; 4. 48-72 hours; 5. more than 72 hours.  *397 When is delayed surgic