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3rd Class Power Engineering Portage College, Lac La Biche Steam Turbine Principles and Design Assignment Module 1 S4M01 Master List (72) 5-Oct-06 Edited 19-Sep-07 1. Turbine nozzles convert heat energy into: a. Potential energy. b. Enth...

3rd Class Power Engineering Portage College, Lac La Biche Steam Turbine Principles and Design Assignment Module 1 S4M01 Master List (72) 5-Oct-06 Edited 19-Sep-07 1. Turbine nozzles convert heat energy into: a. Potential energy. b. Enthalpy. c. Eddy-currents. d. Kinetic energy. e. Pressure. 2. Labyrinth seals are: 1. Made of cast iron. 2. A positive leak-proof seal arrangement. 3. Design to have large clearances between the shaft and casing. 4. Made of brass or stainless steel. 5. Used on larger diameter turbine shafts. a. 1, 2. b. 2, 4, 5. c. 3, 4, 5. d. 4, 5. e. 1, 2, 3. 3. Flange warming on a steam turbine decreases: a. Creep. b. Start up time. c. Movement. d. Radiation losses. e. Noises. 4. In pressure compound steam turbines: 1. The expansion of steam from boiler pressure to exhaust pressure is carried out in a number of steps or stages. 2. Each stage has a set of nozzles and a row of blades. 3. All of the velocity available is developed in one set of nozzles. 4. Rows of moving blades are separated by partitions or diaphragms into which nozzles have been installed. a. 1, 2, 3. b. 2, 3, 4 c. 1, 3, 4 d. 2, 4 e. 2, 3, 4. 1 5. In a/an _____ turbine there is a difference in pressure across the _____ blades. Therefore the steam will tend to _____ around the periphery of the blades instead of passing through them. 1. Impulse. 2. Moving. 3. Reaction. 4. Drip. 5. Stationary. 6. Leak. a. 1, 2, 4. b. 3, 5, 6. c. 3, 2, 6. d. 1, 5, 4. e. 1, 5, 6. 6. The pressure at the outlet from the moving blades is the same as the pressure at the inlet to the moving blades in a/an turbine. a. Topping. b. Reaction. c. Back pressure. d. Impulse. e. Extraction. 7. When disc rotors are assembled, the discs are heated until they are easily slid along the shaft and then located in the correct position on the shaft and shaft key. A small clearance between the discs prevents: a. Noise. b. Slippage. c. Thermal stress in the shaft. d. Acceleration. e. Vibration. 8. In an impulse steam turbine nozzle the following events take place: 1. Steam pressure decreases. 2. Enthalpy of the steam decreases. 3. Velocity of the steam increases. 4. Volume of the steam increases. a. 1, 2, 4 b. 1, 3, 4 c. 2, 3, 4 d. 1, 2, 3 e. 1, 2, 3, 4. 2 9. A turbine that expands the steam in two or more sets of nozzles in series, each set having velocity-compounded blades to receive the steam issuing from the nozzles is called a/an: a. Extraction turbine. b. Velocity compounded turbine. c. Pressure compounded turbine. d. Pressure-velocity compounded turbine. e. Mixed-pressure turbine. 10. In a back-pressure turbine the process steam pressure is: a. Kept constant and the generator output depends on the demand for process steam. b. Varied and the generator output remains constant. c. Kept constant and the generator output remains constant. d. Not important. e. Dependant on the generator output. 11. Extraction turbines are turbines where steam is extracted at one or more points at constant: a. Flow. b. Pressure. c. Load. d. Temperature. e. Efficiency. 12. _____ turbines are large turbines with parallel shafts with a generator on each shaft. a. Condensing. b. Tandem-compound. c. Extraction-bleeder. d. Condensing-bleeder. e. Cross-compound. 13. Steam turbine stationary nozzles create a: 1. Decrease in steam pressure. 2. Increase in steam enthalpy. 3. Increase in steam coefficient of friction. 4. Increase in steam velocity. a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 3, 4 c. 1, 4 d. 2, 3 e. 3, 4. 3 14. Steam turbine casing joints are made steam tight by matching _____ exactly. a. Thin high temperature gaskets. b. Bowel pins. c. Alignment notches. d. Flange faces. e. Rubber gaskets. 15. The purpose of the bucket or moving blade on the rotor is to convert the _____ energy of the steam into _____ energy. a. Heat, potential. b. Kinetic, useful. c. Kinetic, mechanical. d. Heat, kinetic. e. Mechanical, kinetic. 16. Reaction steam turbines often use _____ seals as part of the shroud with the seal clearances kept as small as possible. a. Radial. b. Water. c. Radial and axial. d. Carbon. e. Axial. 17. Reaction turbine blades (moving): 1. Convert the kinetic energy of the steam into mechanical energy. 2. Convert heat energy into kinetic energy. 3. Are nozzle shaped. 4. Increase the absolute velocity. a. 1, 2, 3 b. 2, 3, 4 c. 1, 3, 4 d. 1, 2 e. 1, 3. 18. During start up of a steam turbine the thrust block is pushed against a stop in the direction of the exhaust for: a. Maximum seal clearance. b. Minimum seal clearance. c. Maximum blade efficiency. d. Maximum blade clearance. e. Minimum blade clearance. 4 19. It is general practice to let the thickness of the walls and flanges _____ from inlet to exhaust end of a steam turbine casing: a. Decrease. b. Fluctuate. c. Be the same. d. Vary. e. Increase. 20. A condensing-bleeder turbine can bleed up to _____ of the total steam flow. a. 1% b. 15% c. 20% d. 10% e. 5%. 21. A steam turbine water seal is used _____ to insure that no air leaks in along the shaft: a. On start-up b. At speed below 2000 rev/mm c. On shut-down d. Only on condensing turbine e. At speeds above 2000 rev/mm. 22. A steam turbine assembled casing is machined off inside in a boring mill to: 1. Make grooves for shaft seals. 2. Make grooves for diaphragms. 3. Machine surfaces for bearings. 4. Machine flange surfaces flat. a. 1, 2, 3 b. 2, 3, 4 c. 1,3 d. 1, 2, 4 e. 1, 4. 23. In a steam turbine using velocity compounding the velocity is absorbed in: a. Two or more rows of moving blades. b. One set of nozzles. c. Two or more rows of stationary blades. d. Two sets of nozzles. e. One set of nozzles and blades. 5 24. A back-pressure turbine with exhaust steam going to an old boiler header that is supplying steam to an old lower pressure turbine is called a: a. Condensing-bleeder turbine. b. Cross compound turbine. c. Condensing turbine. d. Topping turbine. e. Mixed pressure turbine. 25. On an extraction turbine the extraction pressure is: a. Not critical. b. Varied according to turbine load. c. Maintained constant regardless of turbine load. d. Proportional to the turbine load. e. Reduced if load increases. 26. Proper expansion of steam through a turbine nozzle depends on what? 1. Operation at the design pressure. 2. Operation at the design rotational speed. 3. Operation at the design temperature. 4. Selection of the proper nozzle material. a. 1, 2 b. 2, 3 c. 3, 4 d. 1, 3 e. 2, 4. 27. _____ turbines are large turbines consisting of two or more turbines in series coupled together as one shaft and applied to one generator. a. Topping. b. Tandem-compound. c. Condensing-bleeder. d. Cross-compound. e. Mixed pressure. 28. Carbon rings, when used for turbine shaft seal require: a. Lubrication b. Constant supervision c. No lubrication d. Monthly replacement e. Soft packing between each ring. 6 29. Typical applications for turbines could be: 1. Feedwater pumps. 2. Blowers. 3. Chemical feed pumps. 4. Electrical generation. a. 1, 2 b. 3, 4 c. 1, 2, 3 d. 1, 2, 4 e. 2, 3, 4. 30. A hollow drum rotor, for good balance, is machined both outside and inside thus the drum must be open at one end. How is the drum end cover with shaft installed in the rotor? a. Press fitted. b. Welded on. c. Bolted. d. Press fitted and welded. e. Shrink fitted and welded. 31. The purpose of a thrust bearing on large reaction steam turbine is to: 1. Give confidence to the operator. 2. Keep the rotor in an exact position in the casing. 3. Prevent any steam from escaping. 4. Absorb any axial thrust on the rotor. 5. Support the dummy piston. a. 1, 2, 3 b. 2, 4, 5 c. 2, 4 d. 3, 5 e. 1, 4. 32. In a reaction turbine: 1. Velocity increases in the moving blades 2. Velocity decreases in the stationary blades 3. Pressure drops in the moving blades 4. Pressure drops in the stationary blades a. 1, 2 b. 3, 4 c. 1, 2, 3 d. 2, 3, 4 e. 1, 2, 3, 4. 7 33. A reaction turbine has: a. Rows of stationary nozzles and moving blades. b. Rows of stationary blades alternating with rows of moving blades. c. A force on the blades produced according to Newton’s 2nd Law of Motion. d. A pressure increase in the nozzles. e. A velocity drop in the stationary blades. 34. Disc rotors: 1. May be made from a solid forging. 2. May be made up of separate discs and a shaft. 3. Have discs that are shrunk onto the shaft. 4. Have discs whose bore is 0.1% smaller than the shaft. a. 1, 2 b. 3, 4 c. 1, 2, 3 d. 2, 3, 4 e. 1, 2, 3, 4. 35. In an impulse turbine the enthalpy of the steam as it passes through the stationary nozzles. a. Stays the same. b. Increases. c. Fluctuates. d. Disappears. e. Decreases. 36. When the exit pressure of a steam turbine nozzle is less than _____ times the inlet pressure then a _____ nozzle will be used. a. 0.757, convergent b. 0.577, convergent-divergent c. 0.757, convergent-divergent d. 0.757, convergent e. 0.577, convergent or convergent-divergent. 37. A reaction turbine results in a long machine due to a large number of alternate rows of: a. Nozzles and moving blades. b. Nozzles and stationary blades. c. Fixed and moving blades. d. Stationary blades. e. Moving blades and nozzles. 8 38. In a steam turbine using velocity compounding _____ expand the steam from initial to exhaust pressure. a. Two sets of nozzles and moving blades. b. Stationary blades. c. Stationary and moving blades. d. Moving blades. e. One set of nozzles. 39. The distinguishing feature of a reaction turbine is the fact that the pressure drop across the _____ blades. a. Cutting. b. Moving. c. Sectional. d. Stationary. e. Angular. 40. Which of Newton’s Laws applies to a force being applied to an impulse turbine blade? a. 1st b. 2nd c. 3rd d. 4th e. 1st and 3rd. 41. In a reaction turbine the steam pressure drops across both the fixed and moving blades while the steam’s _____ rises in the fixed blades and drops in the moving blades. a. Pressure. b. Temperature. c. Flow. d. Level. e. Velocity. 42. Disc rotors made from a solid forging are: 1. More efficient than built-up rotors. 2. Fully balanced. 3. Expensive. 4. Strong. a. 1, 2 b. 2, 3 c. 3, 4 d. 1, 2, 3 e. 2, 3, 4. 9 43. In an impulse turbine as the steam, passes through the moving blades the _____ drops but the _____ remains the same a. Velocity, pressure. b. Enthalpy, velocity. c. Pressure, velocity. d. Volume, velocity. e. Velocity, kinetic energy. 44. The entrance angle of a reaction blade is: a. Parallel to the rotational direction. b. Low so as to reduce frictional losses. c. Almost 90 degrees. d. Is the same as the exit angle. e. Set at 45 degrees to the nozzle angle. 45. A topping turbine is a special application of a _____ turbine: a. Condensing b. Extraction c. Condensing-bleeder d. Tandem compound e. Back-pressure. 46. The purpose of compounding in a steam turbine is to: a. Create pressure velocity compounding. b. Reduce steam and blade velocity. c. Create higher rotational speeds. d. Allow the use of higher steam pressures. e. Allow the use of smaller turbines. 47. When turbine blade velocity is equal to one half the steam velocity, then exiting steam: a. Frictional losses are maximized. b. Allows a smaller turbine to be used. c. Permits higher steam pressure use. d. Absolute velocity equals zero. e. Creates pressure-velocity compounding. 48. When steam leaves the moving blades at zero absolute velocity: a. Frictional losses are maximized. b. A smaller turbine to be used. c. Higher steam pressure use. d. Turbine blade velocity equals one half the steam velocity. e. Pressure velocity compounding is created. 10 49. On larger turbines the _____ is split in a horizontal direction. a. Shaft. b. Governor. c. Cylinder. d. Rotor. e. Drum. 50. Convergent-divergent nozzles are used when: a. High rotational speeds are required. b. Low rotational speeds are required. c. Low pressure drops are required. d. High pressure drops are required. e. There is a requirement for moderate eddy currents. 51. In an impulse turbine, the nozzles: a. Are formed by airfoil shaped blades. b. Are found in the first stage. c. Are mounted in diaphragms. d. Cause a decrease in velocity. e. Are located in the rotor. 52. A thrust adjusting gear: a. Is found on impulse turbines. b. Adjust the thrust generated by the turbine. c. Positions the turbine rotor axially. d. Compensates for steam pressure variations. e. Is adjusted to provide minimum clearances on start up. 53. In a condensing-bleeder turbine up to 2% of the total steam flow may be bled off. What is the bleed-steam used for? a. Building heating. b. Relieving pressure. c. Atomization of the fuel. d. To be reheated in boiler. e. Feed-water heating. 54. A generator coupled on one shaft to a turbine consisting of two or more turbine in series is called a: a. Condensing-bleeder. b. Cross-compound turbine. c. Mixed pressure. d. Tandem-compound turbine. e. Topping. 11 55. A dummy piston on a steam turbine is used to: a. Counter vibration and ensure a smooth running unit. b. Increase turbine output. c. Measure axial position. d. Counter end thrust. e. Provide an area to install a labyrinth deal. 56. In a steam turbine having pressure drop across the moving blades, an unbalanced _____ thrust will be developed upon the rotor. a. Axial. b. Centrifugal. c. Radial. d. Impulse. e. Rotational. 57. A steam turbine has a high capacity to _____ ratio: a. Velocity. b. Rotational speed. c. Steam temperature. d. Volume. e. Weight. 58. A pressure-velocity compounded turbine may have: 1. Two velocity-compounded stages 2. One velocity-compounded stages 3. Several pressure-compounded stages 4. Pressure and velocity-compounded stages a. 1, 2 b. 3, 4 c. 1, 2, 3 d. 2, 3, 4 e. 1, 2, 3, 4. 59. Couplings: 1. Transmit power from one shaft to another. 2. Depend on the shear force of the bolts to transmit the power. 3. Compensate for axial expansion and contraction of the rotor. 4. Are an integral part of the shaft on larger turbine. a. 1, 2, 3, 4. b. 1, 2, 3. c. 1, 3, 4. d. 1, 3. e. 2, 3. 12 60. Advantages of the steam turbine include: 1. High rotational speed. 2. Low rub speed. 3. High efficiency. 4. Low size to output capacity. 5. Can be reversible. a. 1, 2, 3. b. 2, 3, 5. c. 1, 3, 4. d. 1, 2, 4. e. 3, 4, 5. 61. A steam turbine balance piston is fitted with _____ to ensure a tight seal. a. Carbon ring seals. b. Blade seals. c. Water seals. d. Diaphragms. e. Labyrinth seals. 62. Where would you expect to find a turbine that can be reversed: a. Pulp mill. b. Pas plant. c. Amusement park. d. Petroleum process plant. e. Ships. 63. In a reaction turbine the steam pressure drops across both the fixed and moving blades while the steam’s _____ velocity rises in the fixed blades and drops in the moving blades. a. Secondary. b. Primary. c. Stationary. d. Moving. e. Absolute. 64. Of all the heat engines and prime movers the steam turbine is considered to be: a. Nearest to the ideal. b. Least efficient. c. Too expensive to maintain. d. Too slow in rotational speed. e. Low in capacity to weight ratio. 13 65. The steam turbine is an ideal prime mover because: 1. Of its ability to use high pressure and high temperature steam. 2. It is quiet in operation. 3. Of its high capacity to weight ratio. 4. Of its high efficiency. 5. It is reversible. a. 1, 2, 3. b. 1, 3, 5. c. 2, 3, 5. d. 1, 3, 4. e. 2, 3, 4. 66. Rotors for high outputs and high temperatures are generally made of _____ steels: a. Chromium b. Chromium-nickel c. Nickel-molybdenum d. Chromium-nickel-molybdenum e. Copper-nickel-bronze. 67. The disadvantages of a steam turbine include: 1. Cannot be made reversible 2. Efficiency is poor 3. No internal lubrication 4. Low rotational speed 5. High capacity to weight a. 1, 3, 4 b. 1, 2, 4 c. 1, 4, 5 d. 2, 3, 4 e. 3, 4, 5. 68. Steam turbine stationary nozzles serve to: 1. Decrease steam pressure 2. Increase steam enthalpy 3. Increase steam friction 4. Increase steam velocity a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 3, 4 c. 1, 4 d. 2, 3 e. 3, 4. 14 69. Materials at the given maximum temperature and under constant pressure continue to deform with very slowly increasing strain of the material; this phenomenon is called _____. a. Creep b. Elongation c. Deformation d. Jerking e. Movement. 70. Centrifugal forces increase with the _____ of the speed. a. 104 b. cube c. 105 d. square e. 101. 71. Throttling of steam through a valve is an: a. Isobaric process. b. Isothermal process. c. Polytropic process. d. Isenthalpic process. e. Polytropic process. 72. With a condensing turbine the _____ heat in the exhaust steam is transferred to the cooling water. a. Residual b. Latent c. Leftover d. Superheated e. Sensible. 15 Steam Turbine Principles and Design Assignment Module 1 S4M01 Master List (72) 5-Oct-06 Edited 19-Sep-07 1. d 26. d 51. c 2. d 27. b 52. c 3. b 28. c 53. e 4. d 29. d 54. d 5. c 30. e 55. d 6. d 31. c 56. a 7. c 32. b 57. e 8. e 33. b 58. e 9. d 34. a 59. a 10. a 35. e 60. c 11. b 36. b 61. e 12. e 37. c 62. e 13. c 38. e 63. e 14. d 39. b 64. a 15. c 40. b 65. d 16. c 41. e 66. d 17. a 42. e 67. b 18. d 43. a 68. c 19. a 44. c 69. a 20. c 45. e 70. d 21. e 46. b 71. d 22. a 47. d 72. b 23. a 48. d 24. d 49. c 25. c 50. d 16 3rd Class Power Engineering Portage College, Lac La Biche Steam Turbine Auxiliaries and Operation Module 2 S4M2 Master List (48) 14-Mar-06 Edited 5-Oct-06 1. The two types of Governors used on steam turbines are: 1. Flow sensitive governor 2. Pressure sensitive governor 3. Temperature sensitive governor 4. Speed sensitive governor a. 2, 4 b. 1, 4 c. 1, 2 d. 2, 3 e. 3, 4. 2. When steam is throttled through a valve: 1. Heat is gained 2. Heat is lost 3. Heat is neither gained nor lost 4. Superheat increases 5. Superheat decreases 6. Superheat neither increases nor decreases 7. Volume increases 8. Volume decreases 9. Volume neither increases nor decreases 10. Pressure increases 11. Pressure decreases 12. Pressure neither increases nor decreases a. 3, 4, 7, 11 b. 1, 5, 8, 12 c. 2, 6, 9, 10 d. 3, 5, 8, 11 e. 4, 6, 8, 10. 3. If left at a standstill, while the turbine is still hot, the lower half of the rotor will cool of faster than the upper half and the rotor will _____ or “hog” a. Turn on it’s own. b. Bend upwards. c. Twist. d. Bend downwards. e. Stall. 1 4. When a hydraulic overspeed trip operates: 1. High pressure oil forces the main steam valve shut 2. High pressure oil supply is shut off 3. The stop valve oil cylinder drain is closed 4. The stop valve oil cylinder drain is opened 5. A spring closes the main steam valve 6. The pilot drain is closed a. 1, 3, 6 b. 2, 4, 5 c. 3, 4, 6 d. 2, 4, 6 e. 3, 4, 5. 5. In a back-pressure turbine the governor is _____ sensitive. a. Speed b. Temperature c. Flow d. Time e. Pressure. 6. The overspeed trip a turbine is usually set to trip the mechanism when it reaches _____ of operating speed. a. 100%. b. 105%. c. 110%. d. 115%. e. 120%. 7. In an overspeed trip the spring loaded tripping bolt has a center of gravity: a. Concentric with the shaft b. Towards the nut end of the bolt c. Towards the condenser end of the shaft d. Towards the head end of the bolt e. Towards the center of the bolt. 8. Throttle governing uses a single large control valve so when the steam is throttled the _____, thus increasing turbine efficiency. a. Superheat will increase b. Superheat will decrease c. Pressure will increase d. Pressure will stay the same e. Temperature will decrease. 2 9. A jacking oil pump is used to: 1. Make slight adjustments to the turbine bearing housings during overhaul to maintain alignment. 2. Supply oil under the shaft of the bearing for a specific time. 3. Supply oil to the bearings under the shaft at all times so lubrication is assured. 4. Supply a low volume of oil at high pressure. a. 1, 2, 3. b. 2, 3, 4. c. 1, 3, 4. d. 3, 4. e. 2, 4. 10. Back pressure and extraction turbines uses _____ in connection with _____: 1. A pressure sensitive governor. 2. Throttle governing. 3. A speed sensitive governor. 4. By-pass governing. a. 1, 2. b. 1, 3. c. 2, 3. d. 3, 4. e. 1, 4. 11. Overload governing is used on _____ turbines. a. Small b. Impulse c. Low pressure d. Reaction e. Impulse and reaction. 12. A barring gear consists of an electric motor and several sets of reducing gears to turn the turbine shaft at a low speed. It is used: 1. After stopping a hot turbine to prevent “hogging” 2. Only on small turbine 3. Continually when the turbine is not operating 4. Prior to start-up for several hours a. 1, 2, 4 b. 1, 2, 3 c. 1, 4 d. 2, 3 e. 2, 4. 3 13. In an impulse turbine with _____ a series of nozzle valves opens in sequence as the load increases. a. Throttle governing. b. Nozzle governing. c. Speed governing. d. By-pass governing. e. Overload governing. 14. _____ is the percentage change in speed from no load to full load conditions. a. Speed governor. b. Governor speed droop. c. Governor speed increase. d. Throttle governing. e. Integral band. 15. Bypass governing allows: a. Increased load at increased efficiency. b. Decreased load at increased efficiency. c. Increased load at decreased efficiency. d. Decreased load at decreased efficiency. e. No change on load and efficiency. 16. In a nuclear power plant, circulating coolant picks up heat in the reactor and rejects it to the _____ in the steam cycle by means of a heat exchanger. a. Hotwell b. Condenser c. Working fluid d. Turbine e. Feed pump. 17. In a nuclear power station a _____ supplies heat through a _____ to the working fluid in place of a steam plant boiler. 1. Reactor. 2. Heat exchanger. 3. Burner. 4. Pump. a. 1, 2. b. 1, 3. c. 3, 2. d. 1, 4. e. 2, 4 4 18. The jacking oil pump supplies oil at a pressure of _____ kPa. a. 8000. b. 9000. c. 10,000. d. 11,000. e. 12,000. 19. The jacking oil pump supplies lubricating oil to the: a. Side of the bearing. b. Top of the bearing. c. Center of the shaft. d. Bottom of the bearings. e. Thrust bearing. 20. In an/a _____, the spring loaded tripping bolt has a center of gravity slightly off the center of the shaft. a. Electric turning gear. b. Nozzle. c. Barring gear. d. Shear pin coupling. e. Overspeed trip. 21. The main oil pump supplies lubricating oil to the: a. Side of the bearing b Center of the turbine shaft c. Thrust bearing d. Top of the bearings e. Bottom of the bearings. 22. Turbines used to drive auxiliary equipment are usually lubricated by: a. Grease nipples. b. Oil impregnated bushings. c. Ring-oiled bearings. d. Self-lubricated sealed bearings. e. Hand. 23. Oil in a typical turbine lube oil system is supplied to various components at _____ pressure/s. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5. 5 24. Lubricating oil for a turbine may: 1. Lubricate bearings. 2. Lubricate gears. 3. Operate throttle valves. 4. Be supplied to a governor. a. 1, 2 b. 3, 4 c. 1, 2, 3 d. 2, 3, 4 e. 1, 2, 3, 4. 25. The high-pressure oil system of a typical turbine supplies oil to: a. Bearings. b. Gears. c. Emergency stop valves. d. The oil purifier. e. The auxiliary oil pump. 26. In order to supply oil at two different pressures, a typical turbine lube oil system has: a. One centrifugal pump and one reciprocating positive displacement pump. b. One shaft driven pump comprising both high and low pressure sections. c. One shaft drive high pressure pump and an electric low pressure pump. d. A pressure reducing valve. e. A separate pump for each system. 27. A barring gear turns a turbine over via: a. Reduction gears. b. Direct drive. c. A hydraulic coupling. d. A limited slip clutch. e. A hand operated crank. 28. The jacking oil pump is shut down when the turbine reaches a speed of approximately _____ rpm. a. 5-10 b. 20-30 c. 40-50 d. 50-60 e. 0-80. 6 29. Turbines fall under two general classes, _____ or _____. 1. Condensing. 2. Tandem. 3. Those that exhaust at or above atmospheric pressure. 4. Compound. a. 1, 2 b. 1, 3 c. 1, 4 d. 2, 3 e. 2, 4. 30. Steam that has passed through a turbine may pass directly to: 1. A superheater. 2. A reheater. 3. A feed heater. 4. An economizer. a. 1, 2 b. 3, 4 c. 2, 3 d. 1, 2, 3 e. 2, 3, 4. 31. In a turbine circuit, feed heaters and deaerators serve to: a. Use up excess steam. b. Increase efficiency. c. Provide load during low demand periods. d. Lighten the load on the condenser. e. Increase turbine output. 32. The advantage of mechanical-hydraulic governors is: a. No flyweights are required. b. A separate high pressure oil system is not required. c. A low amount of control air is required. d. Mechanical losses are greatly reduced. e. There is no direct linkage to the turbine shaft. 33. A simple mechanical governor uses a _____ attached to the end of the turbine shaft. a. Governor. b. Speed pickup. c. Set of weights. d. Gear. e. Pressure sensor. 7 34. A speed sensitive governor may be: 1. Proportional. 2. Mechanical. 3. Mechanical-hydraulic. 4. Electronic-hydraulic. a. 1, 2 b. 3, 4 c. 1, 2, 3 d. 2, 3, 4 e. 1, 2, 3, 4. 35. In a mechanical-hydraulic governor system, what is the purpose of the auxiliary oil pump? a. It provides oil pressure in case of a main pump failure. b. It provides oil pressure to the bearings. c. It provides oil pressure to the governor system. d. It provides oil pressure during start-up of the turbine. e. It boosts the main pump’s pressure. 36. An electronic-hydraulic governor system uses: a. High pressure oil from the turbine oil system. b. A separate fluid power unit for high pressure oil. c. Oil pressure of approximately 3000-4000 kPa. d. Pressure oil from the turbine oil system and boosts it to approximately 8200-11000 kPa. e. Flyweights similar to a mechanical-hydraulic governor. 37. A mechanical overspeed trip is designed to _____ in the event of an overspeed condition. a. Prevent the turbine’s speed from exceeding 150% of its rated speed. b. Activate an alarm. c. Drop the turbine’s load. d. Shut off the turbine’s steam supply. e. Throttle the inlet steam. 38. When starting a large condensing or extraction turbine, the lubricating oil pump is usually started: a. Just before the turbine is rotated. b. One half hour before the turbine is rotated. c. 2-3 hours before the turbine is rotated. d. 6-8 hours before the turbine is rotated. e. The pump is left running at all times. 8 39. The extraction (condensate) pump is put into operation _____ the _____. 1. Before. 2. After. 3. Air ejector. 4. Jack oil pump. 5. Condenser circulating water pump. a. 1, 3 b. 2, 3 c. 1, 4 d. 1, 5 e. 2, 5. 40. When starting a turbine, a speed of 200-300 rpm is maintained for what purpose? a. To allow the barring gear time to disengage. b. To allow the operator time to listen for rubbing or other unusual noises. c. To ensure all controls are functioning. d. To warm up the rotor and casing. e. To ensure the lube oil system is operating correctly. 41. The warm-up time required of a turbine is dependant on: a. How quickly the turbine is required. b. The manufacturer’s instructions. c. The size of the turbine. d. The type of turbine. e. Whether the steam is dry or wet. 42. When shutting down a turbine, the first thing done is: a. Turn off the lube oil cooling water. b. Test the emergency trip. c. Start the auxiliary oil pump. d. Shut off the steam supply. e. Reduce the load to zero. 43. Sealing steam to the turbine glands is admitted _____ is put in operation a. Before the extraction pump. b. Before the condenser circulating water pump. c. After the air ejector. d. After the extraction pump. e. After the throttle valve is open. 9 44. The barring gear: a. Is started when the lube oil temperature reaches 35-40°C. b. Is started when the jacking oil pump pressure reaches 3000- 4000 kPa. c. Is used only when starting a turbine. d. Should disengage and automatically shut down steam admission starts the turbine shaft turning. e. Should be disengaged before turning over the turbine. 45. Overspeed trips: a. Are an optional device on a turbine. b. Are linked to the speed pickup. c. Are independent of the governing system. d. Can be disabled to test critical speeds. e. May be mechanical, hydraulic, or mechanical-hydraulic. 46. When first starting a turbine, the purpose of admitting only enough steam to turn the turbine over very slowly is to: a. Allow the operator time to listen for rubbing or other unusual noises. b. Eliminate hogging. c. Ensure that the jacking oil system is up to pressure. d. Warm up the turbine. e. Make sure the control room is ready for the turbine. 47. On startup of a large condensing turbine, the cooling water to the oil cooler is turned on: a. Before the jacking oil pump. b. At the same time as the lubricating oil pump. c. When the oil reaches normal operating temperatures. d. When the jacking oil pump is shut down. e. When it is convenient. 48. Nozzle governing is _____ throttle governing. a. Less efficient than b. Required with c. More efficient than d. Mandatory with e. As efficient as. 10 Steam Turbine Auxiliaries and Operation Module 2 S4M2 Master List (48) 14-Mar-06 Edited 5-Oct-06 1. a 26. d 2. a 27. a 3. b 28. d 4. b 29. b 5. e 30. c 6. c 31. b 7. d 32. d 8. a 33. c 9. e 34. d 10. b 35. d 11. e 36. b 12. c 37. d 13. b 38. c 14. b 39. a 15. c 40. d 16. c 41. c 17. a 42. e 18. c 43. d 19. d 44. d 20. e 45. c 21. d 46. a 22. c 47. c 23. b 48. c 24. e 49. 25. c 11 3rd Class Power Engineering Portage College, Lac La Biche Turbine Condenser Systems Module 3 S4M03 Master List (80) 14-Mar-06 Edited 6-Oct-06 1. An extraction pump is usually a: a. Single stage centrifugal pump. b. Multi-stage centrifugal pump. c. Positive displacement pump. d. Turbine pump. e. Double acting reciprocating pump. 2. Condenser tubes can be installed with: 1. Ferrules. 2. Metallic or fiber packing. 3. Roll expanders. 4. A combination of roll expanding and ferrules. 5. Collar bolts. a. 1, 2, 3 b. 2, 4, 5 c. 3, 4, 5 d. 1, 2, 3, 4 e. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. 3. The evaporator must be _____ frequently in order to keep the dissolved solids inside limits, to prevent foaming and carry over. a. Adjusted b. Shut down c. Drained d. Blown down e. Diluted. 4. A surface condenser may be: 1. Oval. 2. Triangular. 3. Cylindrical. 4. Rectangular. 5. Hexagon. a. 1, 2, 3. b. 2, 3, 4. c. 3, 4, 5. d. 1, 2, 5. e. 1, 3, 4. 1 5. Silver nitrate can be used to detect condenser leaks: a. If the leaks aren’t too big. b. If the cooling water is salty. c. But a lab is required. d. Using a sample drawn from the cooling water. e. By indicating an increase in conductivity. 6. The classic material for water boxes has always been: a. Admiralty brass. b. Cast iron. c. Muntz metal. d. Low carbon steel. e. Steel alloy. 7. If the cooling water for a condenser is taken from a cooling tower high in dissolved oxygen the ability of the condenser to act as a deaerator is: a. Directly proportional to the level of dissolved oxygen. b. Not impeded. c. Inversely proportional to the level of dissolved oxygen. d. Impeded. e. Reduced. 8. Condenser cooling water pumps are of a _____ design: a. Low pressure low volume b. High pressure low volume c. High pressure high volume d. Low pressure high volume e. Positive displacement. 9. In a two stage air ejector for a surface condenser the pressure of the first stage ejector cooler is _____ atmospheric but above _____ pressure. 1. Above. 2. Ejector. 3. Condenser. 4. Below. 5. Steam. a. 1, 2. b. 1, 3. c. 4, 2. d. 4, 3. e. 1, 5. 2 10. The _____ cooling water is in direct contact with the turbine exhaust steam. a. Down flow condenser. b. Central flow condenser. c. Radial flow condenser. d. Jet condenser. e. Air ejector. 11. A group title “heat exchanger” would include: 1. Air heaters. 2. Oil coolers. 3. Oil burners. 4. Chimney. 5. Air heater. 6. Electrostatic precipitator. 7. Forced draft fan. 8. Deaerator. a. 3, 5, 7. b. 4, 6, 8. c. 1, 2, 5, 8. d. 1, 3, 6, 8. e. 2, 4, 5, 7. 12. In order to prevent air from entering the condenser when the condenser condensate extraction pump is in stand-by position, the pump is equipped with: a. Shaft sleeves. b. Labyrinth seals. c. Mechanical seals. d. Carbon rings. e. Water sealed glands. 13. What are the main dangers that a condenser must be guarded against? 1. Superheated steam. 2. Contamination of condensate. 3. Increase in backpressure. 4. Vibration. a. 1, 2 b. 2, 3 c. 3, 4 d. 1, 2, 3 e. 2, 3, 4. 3 14. The _____ function is to continually extract the condensate from the condenser hot well and pump it through the air ejector coolers a. Extraction pump. b. Circulating pump. c. Vacuum pump. d. Feed water pump. e. Cooling water pump. 15. High pressure feedwater heaters commonly use a _____ design for thermal expansion and contraction. a. “C” tube. b. Straight tube. c. Low tube. d. “U” tube. e. Bent tube. 16. The use of feedwater heaters results in less steam being exhausted to the condenser and: a. Increases the cooling demand on the condenser. b. Decreases the vacuum in the condenser. c. The turbine works harder. d. Decreases the cycle efficiency. e. Increases the cycle efficiency. 17. Condenser tubes can be installed with/by: 1. Ferrules. 2. Metallic or fiber packing. 3. Roll expanding. 4. A combination of roll expanding and ferrules. a. 1, 2, 3. b. 2, 3, 4. c. 1, 2, 4. d. 1, 3, 4. e. 1, 2, 3, 4. 18. In a _____ the feed pump draws from the hot well only the quantity of feed water required by the boiler. The remainder overflows into the cooling pond where it is cooled and reused as cooling water. a. Surface condenser. b. Central flow condenser. c. Down flow condenser. d. Radial flow condenser. e. Jet condenser. 4 19. A _____ also acts as a deaerator even with the turbine at full load and the condenser operating at a reduced vacuum. a. Feed pump. b. Cooling tower. c. Air condenser. d. Surface condenser. e. Jet condenser. 20. In a steam turbine condenser the temperature difference from exhaust steam to cooling water will: a. Remain the same under all loads. b. Increase with a load decrease. c. Increase with a load increase. d. Remain the same under most loads. e. Decrease with a load increase. 21. Under normal operating conditions a surface condenser atmospheric relief valve is held closed by: a. Pressure difference between the atmosphere outside and the vacuum in the shell. b. Vacuum. c. Atmospheric pressure. d. Water pressure. e. A spring. 22. High pressure feedwater heaters are exposed on the water, side to the discharge pressure of the boiler _____ pump. a. Extraction. b. Cooling water. c. Feedwater. d. Circulating. e. Air ejector. 23. Air in a surface condenser: 1. Increases the pressure. 2. Retards heat transfer. 3. Enters with the high-pressure ejector steam. 4. Is cooled before being removed. a. 1, 2, 3 b. 2, 3, 4 c. 1, 3, 4 d. 1, 2, 4 e. 2, 3. 5 24. Allowances must be made for differential expansion of the tubes and shell. Packed tube-ends may allow the tube to move: a. Through an expansion joint. b. Through an expansion loop. c. Very little. d. Axially in the packing. e. Radially in the packing. 25. Parallel flow of steam and cooling water from top to bottom in a surface condenser reduces _____ of the condensate. a. Cooling. b. Sub-cooling. c. Sub-heating. d. Super-heating. e. Evaporation. 26. Extraction pump seals on the pump’s low-pressure side are usually sealed with what? a. Grease. b. Carbon seals. c. Stuffing boxes. d. Pump discharge water. e. Nothing is required. 27. A condenser is most efficient when: 1. Only sensible heat is removed. 2. Only latent heat is removed. 3. No sensible heat is removed. 4. No latent heat is removed. 5. A combination of latent and sensible heat is removed. a. 1, 2 b. 2, 3 c. 3, 4 d. 3, 4 e. 5. 28. When the condensate water droplets fall from the surface condenser tubes they should be reheated with: a. Superheated steam. b. De-superheated steam. c. Low pressure steam. d. Hot water. e. Turbine exhaust steam. 6 29. The methods to detect cooling water leaks in a surface condenser while it is in operation are: 1. pH test. 2. Electrical conductivity test. 3. Plastic wrapping test. 4. Silver nitrate test. 5. Fluorescing dye test. a. 2, 4 b. 1, 2, 5 c. 2, 3, 4 d. 1, 3 e. 3, 4. 30. The condenser extraction pump suction operates at pressures: a. Slightly above atmospheric. b. Just below atmospheric. c. Near absolute zero. d. Determined by the level of condensate in the condenser. e. Equal to two atmospheres. 31. Types of “contact” condensers include: 1. Central flow condensers. 2. Jet condensers. 3. Down flow condensers. 4. Barometric jet condensers. a. 1, 2 b. 2, 3 c. 3, 4 d. 1, 3 e. 2, 4. 32. The extraction (condensate) pump is put into operation _____ the _____: 1. Before. 2. After. 3. Air ejector. 4. Jacking oil pump. 5. Condenser circulating water pump. a. 1, 3 b. 2, 3 c. 1, 4 d. 1, 5 e. 2, 5. 7 33. The cooling medium for surface condensers may be: 1. Water from a river. 2. Air. 3. Water from a cooling tower. 4. Refrigerant systems. a. 1, 2 b. 3, 4 c. 1, 2, 3 d. 2, 3, 4 e. 1, 2, 3, 4. 34. Low pressure feedwater heaters are exposed on the water, side to the discharge pressure of the _____ pump. a. Circulating. b. Extraction. c. Cooling water. d. Feedwater. e. Air ejector. 35. Low pressure feedwater heaters commonly use a design. a. Straight-tube. b. “U” tube. c. “C” tube. d. Bent tube. e. Low tube. 36. In a steam plant, the condenser is: a. Where the greatest increase in efficiency takes place. b. Is slung underneath the turbine. c. The largest single heat loss in the steam power cycle. d. Takes water from the feed heaters. e. Categorized as “contact” or “integral”. 37. The purpose of a surface condenser is to: 1. Maintain a vacuum at the turbine exhaust. 2. Conserve pure boiler feedwater. 3. Act as a deaerator. 4. Cool the condensate below saturation temperature. a. 1, 2, 3 b. 2, 3, 4 c. 1, 2, 4 d. 1, 3, 4 e. 1, 2, 3, 4. 8 38. In a surface condenser, when the tubes and the tube plates are practically the same material such as admiralty brass tubes in admiralty brass plates, the tubes can be _____ into the tube plates. a. Ferruled. b. Welded. c. Roll-expanded. d. Packed with metallic or fiber packing. e. Roll-expanded at inlet and ferruled at outlet. 39. Jet condensers: a. Deliver feedwater directly to the deaerator. b. Are in common service. c. Require that the entire cooling water quantity be chemically treated. d. Use an air ejector to remove air. e. Require a pump to remove water from the condenser. 40. Surface water cooled condensers may be classified as: 1. Radial flow. 2. Cross flow. 3. Central flow. 4. Down flow. a. 1, 2 b. 2, 4 c. 1, 2, 3 d. 1, 3, 4 e. 2, 3, 4. 41. The difference between a jet condenser and a barometric jet condenser is: a. Condensate is pumped from the barometric jet condenser. b. The jet condenser operates at a pressure above barometric. c. In a barometric condenser, the water is pumped out of the unit. d. In a barometric condenser, the water flows out by gravity. e. The length of the barometric leg. 42. Feedwater heaters use _____ of bleed steam to heat feedwater. a. Sensible heat. b. Latent heat. c. Super heat. d. Sensible and latent heat. e. Sensible and super heat. 9 43. In a low-level type jet condenser because of _____, water must be pumped out of the condenser. a. Code requirements. b. Internal vacuum. c. Operating procedures. d. Internal baffles. e. Induced water flow. 44. When stopping a large condensing turbine, as the turbine speed decreases to approximately _____ start the auxiliary oil pump if it did not automatically do so. a. 55% b. 60% c. 65% d. 70% e. 75%. 45. A high condensate level: a. Is difficult to detect. b. Decreases the backpressure of the turbine. c. Could cause non-condensable gases to accumulate in the condenser. d. Is caused by faulty extraction pumps. e. Could be caused by a malfunctioning rupture disc. 46. How does air enter a condenser? 1. Air pumps. 2. Gland leaks. 3. Carried in with steam. 4. Leaky flanges. a. 1, 2 b. 3, 4 c. 1, 2, 3 d. 2, 3, 4 e. 1, 2, 3, 4. 47. The absolute pressure in a condenser is the sum of the steam pressure and the air pressure. This is according to: a. Charles’ Law. b. The General Gas Law. c. Dalton’s Law. d. Boyles Law. e. Gay-Lussac’s Law. 10 48. The extraction (condensate) pump normally supplies cooling water to the: 1. Drains cooler. 2. Air ejector. 3. Gland steam condenser. 4. Main condenser. a. 1, 2, 3 b. 2, 3, 4 c. 1, 3, 4 d. 1, 2, 4 e. 1, 2, 3, 4. 49. Thermal deaeration heats the condensate to the boiling point liberating all: a. Suspended gases. b. Suspended solids. c. Dissolved solids. d. Dissolved gases. e. Dissolved ions. 50. Power plant thermal efficiencies could be easily doubled by removing the _____ and using the exhaust steam for heating. a. Hot well. b. Condenser. c. Feed pump. d. Circulating pump. e. Deaerator. 51. With a condensing turbine the _____ heat in the exhaust steam is transferred to the cooling water. a. Residual b. Latent c. Leftover d. Superheated e. Sensible. 52. To reduce cavitation what type of extraction pump is often used? a. A pump with high net positive suction head. b. A double acting reciprocating pump. c. A vertical well type pump. d. A positive displacement pump with a separate suction chamber. e. A single stage centrifugal pump. 11 53. The cooling water for the air ejectors on a surface condenser is: a. Raw water. b. Treated water. c. Condensate. d. River water. e. Distilled water. 54. When the condenser tubes exceed 7-8 m it is more practical to make _____ thereby reducing the height of large condensers a. Single passes. b. Double passes. c. Triple pass. d. Quadruple passes. e. Multi passes. 55. A condenser’s tube arrangement that makes it possible to reheat and deaerate the condensate with available steam in the condenser is termed a. Regenerative. b. Degenerative. c. Progressive. d. Cumulative. e. Administrative. 56. A _____ on a deaerator vent condenser prevents non-condensables from being recirculated. a. Vent. b. Safety valve. c. Temperature controller. d. Steam trap. e. Loop-seal drain. 57. An evaporator _____ require a safety valve because it is a/an: 1. Does. 2. Does not. 3. Unfired pressure vessel. 4. Pressure vessel. 5. Low-pressure vessel. a. 1, 3. b. 1, 4. c. 2, 3. d. 2, 4. e. 2, 5. 12 58. The purpose of the deaerator is to: 1. Heat the feed water 2. Remove the suspended solids 3. Remove the non-condensable gases 4. Remove the dissolved solids 5. Act as a surge tank a. 1, 2 b. 1, 3 c. 2, 4, 5 d. 3, 4, 5 e. 1, 2, 4. 59. Sub-cooling of the condensate in a surface condenser decreases the a. Deaerating action. b. Evaporation action. c. Aerating action. d. Oxygen absorption. e. Heat losses. 60. In a large central generating plant the deaerator low level float switch would commonly open a valve allowing water to flow from a reserve feed tank into the: a. Deaerator. b. Deaerator tank. c. Circulating pump. d. Condenser. e. Extraction pump. 61. An air release valve on a feedwater heater is to vent non- condensables from the: a. Water side. b. Bottom of water box. c. Steam and waterside. d. Top of the waterside. e. Steam side. 62. A deaerator high level float switch opens a control valve allowing condensate to return to the: a. Reserve feedwater tank b. Deaerator tank c. Circulation pump d. Condenser e. Extraction pump. 13 63. The deaerator is usually operated to maintain constant: a. Pressure b. Temperature c. Level d. Flow rate e. Heat input. 64. The most effective way for producing pure water is by: a. Demineralization b. Softening c. Deaeration d. Rain collection e. Bleed steam evaporators. 65. A pressure relief valve is fitted to the water, side of a feedwater heater in case: a. The level control on the deaerator shuts-off. b. Of expansion of the water when the waterside is isolated. c. The temperature of the water becomes excessive. d. The level in feed water heater is too high. e. The steam pressure is excessive. 66. In an evaporator the steam coils are very flexible to allow easy cleaning by: a. Acidic chemicals. b. Thermal cracking. c. Caustic chemicals. d. Mechanical means. e. Sand blasting. 67. When the condensate is sub-cooled in a surface condenser the a. Thermal cycle efficiency remains the same. b. Evaporation increases. c. Thermal cycle efficiency increases. d. Evaporation decreases. e. Thermal cycle efficiency decreases. 68. A safety valve is fitted on the _____ side of a feedwater heater. a. Under b. Water c. Water and steam d. Top of the water e. Steam. 14 69. The deaerator is equipped with a loop-seal to prevent re-circulation of: a. Non-condensables. b. Water vapors. c. Condensate. d. Steam. e. Cooling water. 70. In an evaporator the steam coils may be in parallel, running from the: a. Top to the bottom headers b. Bottom to the top headers c. Left to right headers d. Right to left headers e. Single continuous loop. 71. The jacking oil pump supplies oil at pressures of _____ to _____ kPa. a. 6000 - 8000. b. 7000 - 9000. c. 8000 - 10000. d. 9000 - 11000. e. 10000 – 12000. 72. If the condensate in a surface condenser is sub-cooled it will quickly absorb: a. Nitrogen b. Ammonia c. Oxygen d. Sulphur e. Carbon dioxide. 73. A bleed steam stop valve on a feedwater heater prevents overspeed after: a. A feedwater heater leak b. A condensate extraction pump trip out c. A large increase in load d. An overspeed trip e. A condenser failure. 15 74. If the steam or vapor produced by an evaporator is condensed in _____ practically all of the heat from the bleed steam is recovered. a. A low, pressure feedwater heater b. The turbine condenser c. The air ejector d. The air ejector e. Jet condenser. 75. The deaerator vent condenser reclaims the _____ of the vapors. a. Latent heat. b. Super heat. c. Sensible and latent heat. d. Sensible heat. e. Super and sensible heat. 76. A _____ works on the principle of cool air contacting and removing heat from warm water. a. Shell and tube exchanger. b. Circulating pump. c. Cooling tower. d. Evaporator. e. Deaerator. 77. The deaerator must be designed to heat the condensate to the boiling point at the rate at that it is pumped by the _____ pump. a. Circulating b. Cooling c. Extraction d. Surge e. Injection. 78. If the drain from the first low, pressure heater is drained back to the condenser, a considerable amount of _____ is lost in the condenser. a. Water b. Latent heat c. Sensible heat d. Time e. Steam. 16 79. In a surface condenser, steam flow is directed by: a. The hotwell location. b. Baffles. c. Supports. d. The tube sheets. e. Divisions in the shell. 80. A condenser shell may be fitted with an expansion joint if the: a. Expected temperature differentials will be greater than 20°C. b. Condenser tubes are U-shaped. c. Condenser is of welded construction. d. Condenser tubes are expanded into the tube sheets. e. Tube sheets are made of Admiralty brass. 17 Turbine Condenser Systems Module 3 S4M03 Master List (80) 14-Mar-06 Edited 6-Oct-06 1. b 26. d 51. b 76. c 2. a 27. b 52. c 77. c 3. d 28. e 53. c 78. c 4. e 29. a 54. a 79. b 5. b 30. c 55. a 80. d 6. b 31. e 56. e 7. b 32. e 57. b 8. b 33. c 58. e 9. d 34. c 59. a 10. d 35. a 60. a 11. c 36. c 61. e 12. e 37. a 62. b 13. b 38. b 63. a 14. d 39. b 64. e 15. d 40. d 65. b 16. e 41. d 66. b 17. e 42. b 67. e 18. d 43. b 68. e 19. d 44. e 69. b 20. c 45. c 70. a 21. a 46. d 71. c 22. c 47. c 72. c 23. d 48. a 73. d 24. d 49. a 74. a 25. b 50. b 75. c 18 3RD CLASS POWER ENGINEERING Gas Turbine Principles and Designs Section 4 Module 4 S4M04 Master List (84) 5-Oct-06 Edited 20-Sep-07 1. Automatic emergency trips shut off the main fuel valve in the event of: a. High exhaust temperatures. b. Differential pressures are too high across the filters. c. Inlet air temperatures exceed maximum. d. Compressor discharge pressures are too high. e. Compressor discharge temperatures are too high. 2. Industrial gas turbines are used for a wide variety of applications such as: 1. Portable generators. 2. Fire pumps. 3. Air compressors. 4. Emergency equipment. a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 2, 4 c. 1, 3, 4 d. 1, 2, 3, 4 e. 2, 3, 4 3. Gas Turbines enclosures are used to: 1. Protect equipment from the elements. 2. Allows the incorporation of heat and gas detectors. 3. Contains the gas turbine DCS controls. 4. Keep the turbine from cooling down, more efficient. 5. Provides ventilation systems. a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 2, 5 c. 2, 3, 4 d. 2, 3, 5 e. 3, 5, 1 4. The operating output of a gas turbine is affected the most by changing: a. The inlet air temperature. b. The heat valve of the fuel. c. The gas pressure to the combustors. d. The combustion flame pattern. e. From base loading to peak loading. 1 5. The advantages of centrifugal over axial compressors are: 1. High capacity. 2. Short length. 3. High flow rates. 4. Strength. 5. Adjustable flow. a. 1, 2 b. 2, 3 c. 3, 4 d. 4, 5 e. 2, 4. 6. Gas turbines are far superior to other mechanical engines in: a. Fuel consumption. b. Efficiency. c. Lubricating oil consumption. d. Power per mass ratio. e. Fuel usage. 7. A closed cycle gas turbine system: a. Does not use a starting motor. b. Has lower pressure used in system. c. Will use the same working fluid over again. d. Must use a cooler before the regeneration. e. Has a lower initial cost than that of the open cycle gas turbine. 8. The compressor on a gas turbine: a. Can be driven by the load turbine. b. Is always of the axial type. c. Is always multi-stage. d. Is always of the reciprocating type. e. Is always of the centrifugal type 9. The advantages of gas turbines are: 1. Remote operation capability. 2. Simple compact design. 3. Quick start time. 4. High thermal efficiency. a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 3, 4 c. 2, 3, 4 d. 1, 2, 4 e. 1, 2, 3, 4. 2 10. Modern gas turbines have the following advantages: 1. High power to weight ratio. 2. Ability to use a wide variety of fuels. 3. Limited to low rates of power production. 4. Ability to be started remotely. a. 1, 2, 3. b. 1, 2, 4. c. 1, 3, 4. d. 2, 3, 4. e. 1, 2, 3, 4. 11. In a gas turbine cycle using an intercooler the following advantages are obtained: 1. The specific volume of the air is reduced. 2. Less power is required for compression. 3. The temperature of the second stage compressor will be increased thus increasing thermal efficiency. 4. More of the turbine power can be available for the output load. a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 2, 4 c. 1, 3, 4 d. 2, 3, 4 e. 1, 2, 3, 4 12. The advantages of using a reheater in a gas turbine cycle are: 1. More air can be compressed. 2. A small combustor may be used. 3. Less air will have to be compressed in order to do the same amount of work. 4. The thermal efficiency of the cycle will be improved. a. 1, 3 b. 1, 4 c. 2, 3 d. 2, 4 e. 3, 4 13. The regenerator of a gas turbine cycle is a: a. Second combustor. b. Heat exchanger. c. Vessel used to transfer heat from the exhaust gas to the working fluid before compression occurs. d. Increase the pressure of the working fluid in the system. e. Increase the temperature of the combustor's outlet. 3 14. The regenerator in a gas turbine cycle is located between the: a. Power and load turbine. b. Turbine outlet and compressor inlet. c. Compressor and combustor. d. Combustor and turbine. e. Power turbine and generator. 15. The purpose of a regenerator in a gas turbine is to: a. Clean the exhaust gases. b. Improve the efficiency of the turbine. c. Decrease the temperature in the combustion chamber. d. Raise the air temperature before compression. e. Decrease the air temperature after compression. 16. A gas turbine air compressor with an intercooler: a. Has the intercooler located after the compressor. b. Increases the volume of air being supplied. c. Allows more output at the turbine. d. Is used only with axial type compressors. e. Is not as efficient. 17. The combustion chamber of a gas turbine: a. Increases the pressure of the compressed air. b. Burns fuel with excess air. c. Is located between the load turbine and the compressor turbine. d. Utilizes 70% of the air supplied by the compressor for actual combustion process. e. Is always of the multiple burner type. 18. A gas turbine combustion chamber requires: a. A cooling water jacket on the inner canister. b. A vacuum breaker. c. A safety pressure relief device. d. A high voltage ignition plug for initial ignition. e. An annual hydrostatic test. 19. The capacity of a gas turbine will increase in cold weather because: a. High grades of fuel oil burn better at cooler temperatures. b. The density of the air is increased. c. The volume if the air will increase. d. The temperature drop throughout the cycle will be less. e. The atmospheric pressure will increase. 4 20. In a dual shaft gas turbine arrangement a. The load turbine is down stream from the compressor turbine. b. The load turbine drives the prop on a turbo prop engine. c. Is always used in an open cycle. d. System flexibility is reduced. e. A larger starting motor is required. 21. A gas turbine cycle is also known as: a. The Current cycle. b. The Joule cycle. c. The Whittle cycle. d. The Buchi cycle. e. The Watt cycle. 22. The closed cycle gas turbine has the advantages of: 1. Higher pressures throughout the cycle. 2. The working fluid is clean. 3. The working fluid must support combustion. 4. Low grade fuels may be used. a. 2, 3. b. 1, 4. c. 1, 2, 3. d. 1, 2, 4. e. 2, 4. 23. The advantages of a gas turbine are: 1. Power to mass ratio is high. 2. Lower maintenance costs. 3. Suitable for remote locations. 4. Delivery and installation times are less. a. 1, 2, 3. b. 1, 3, 4. c. 2, 3, 4. d. 1, 2, 4. e. 1, 2, 3, 4. 24. In a gas turbine the volume of air and exhaust gases flowing through the compressor and turbine: a. Changes with atmospheric pressure b. Is always the same c. Changes with ambient temperature d. Changes with load conditions e. Changes with fuel temperature. 5 25. The number one factor limiting increases to turbine efficiency is: a. Blade metallurgy. b. Low compressor discharge pressures. c. Blade design configuration. d. Compression ratio. e. Reduction of pressure losses. 26. The blades of an axial compressor on a gas turbine are made from: 1. Ferrite steel. 2. Inconel. 3. Aluminum alloy. 4. Hastelloy. a. 1, 2. b. 1, 3. c. 2, 3. d. 2, 4. e. 1, 4. 27. The disadvantages of a gas turbine are: 1. High cost of manufacture. 2. High levels of noise pollution are produced. 3. Low thermal efficiency. 4. Requires many auxiliaries to be efficient. a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 3, 4 c. 2, 3, 4 d. 1, 2, 4 e. 1, 2, 3, 4. 28. Turbine inlet air temperature increases: a. Increases the work done by the turbine. b. Decreases the amount of fuel used for the same output. c. Decreases the mass of gas flow in the turbine. d. Improves overall combustion in the combustors. e. Increases the power output of the compressor section. 29. In simple gas turbines the air is compressed to the following maximum pressures: a. 2000 kPa. b. 2500 kPa. c. 3000 kPa. d. 3500 kPa. e. 4000 kPa. 6 30. The performance of a gas turbine is calculated by: a. The turbine efficiency. b. Heat rate vs. power output. c. Gas flow in vs. kWh out. d. Gas flow in vs. power output. e. Gas flow and pressure in vs. power output. 31. Aero-derivative engines are aircraft jet engines that: a. Are converted from a turbo prop engine. b. Are heavier in construction than a jet engine. c. Are closer in design to industrial gas turbines. d. Are more rapid in their startup than jet engines. e. Use less power turbine blades. 32. Which of the following are disadvantages of a gas turbine? 1. Complicated design. 2. High manufacturing costs. 3. Slow response to load change. 4. High power to weight ratio. 5. Ability to use a wide variety of fuels. a. 1, 3, 5 b. 2, 3, 4 c. 3, 4, 5 d. 1, 4, 5 e. 1, 2, 3 33. The term peaking gas turbine refers to gas turbines: a. That produce maximum power. b. Used with peak horsepower. c. Used during major outages. d. Used every day. e. Used in heavy load situations. 34. The disadvantages of using a regenerator in a gas turbine cycle are: 1. Heating surfaces become coated and must be cleaned. 2. Increased capital costs. 3. It produces a pressure drop through the system. 4. The temperature drop through the system will be reduced. a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 2, 4 c. 1, 3, 4 d. 2, 3, 4 e. 1, 2, 3, 4. 7 35. The air bypassing the combustors is used for: a. Increasing the mass of gas products flowing. b. Ensuring enough air for complete combustion. c. Raising the product temperatures flowing into the turbine blades. d. Raising the combustion efficiency. e. Serves as cooling air. 36. In a simple gas turbine the combustion temperatures can be as high as: a. 1500ºC b. 1700ºC c. 1800ºC d. 2000ºC e. 2200ºC 37. Simple gas turbine gas temperatures at the exit of the combustion section are at maximum: a. 580ºC b. 770ºC c. 875ºC d. 920ºC e. 1050ºC 38. Gas Temperatures at the exhaust of a simple gas turbine are at maximum: a. 500°C b. 540°C c. 760°C d. 680°C e. 640°C 39. Which of the following are advantages of a gas turbine: 1. Simple design. 2. High power to weight ratio. 3. Minimal manpower. 4. Maximum outage time. 5. Rapid starting. a. 1, 2, 3, 4 b. 2, 3, 4, 5 c. 1, 3, 4, 5 d. 1, 2, 3, 5 e. 1, 2, 4, 5 8 40. The term open cycle means: a. The compressor inlet is open to atmosphere. b. The compressor outlet is open to the combustion chambers. c. The turbine exhaust is open to atmosphere. d. The working fluid is drawn from and returned to the atmosphere. e. Every cycle the inlet and the outlet are open. 41. In dual shaft Gas Turbines the load is driven by the: a. High pressure turbine. b. Starting motor and low-pressure turbine. c. Low pressure turbine. d. Exhaust gases from the combustion chamber. e. Output shaft from the compressor. 42. What part of the gas turbine is normally smaller in a dual shaft gas turbine: a. The load. b. The combustion chambers. c. The starting motor. d. The compressor. e. The turbine blades. 43. With a gas turbine, closed cycle means: a. Compressor outlet is closed and the inlet is open. b. Combustion chamber is heated internally. c. Combustion chamber is heated externally. d. The regenerator is not open on either side. e. The exhaust gases are not open to atmosphere. 44. An advantage of closed cycle is: a. Cooling water lowers cost. b. Fuel is cheaper. c. Working fluid supports combustion. d. Pressures are lower so stress is lower on all the equipment. e. Complexity is less. 45. Reducing gears on gas turbines are used to: a. Control speeds. b. Drive slower lube oil pumps. c. Drive slower hydraulic pumps. d. Match turbine and generator speeds. e. Increase horsepower. 9 46. Reheat is accomplished by: a. Expanding and heating the gases in two stages. b. Heating the gases after the LP compressor section. c. Heating the gases between the HP and LP turbine. d. Heating the air between the HP compressor and the Hp turbine sections. e. Heating the air between the LP and HP compressor stages. 47. How much of the energy provided by the fuel, is absorbed by the compressor: a. Up to 2/3 b. Up to 1/3 c. Up to 1/2 d. Up to 3/4 e. Up to 1/4. 48. Improving gas turbine efficiency is done by: 1. Regeneration 2. Pre-cooling 3. Aftercooling 4. Intercooling 5. Reheating a. 1, 2, 3 b. 2, 3, 4 c. 3, 4, 5 d. 1, 4, 5 e. 1, 2, 5 49. The combustion chamber gas temperatures of a modern gas turbine can reach a maximum of: a. 1550°C b. 1570°C c. 1650°C d. 1670°C e. 1750°C. 50. In the combustors, how much air bypasses the combustion chambers: a. 90% b. 80% c. 70% d. 60% e. 50%. 10 51. Power is extracted in a gas turbine by: a. Expanding the gases through the compressor blades. b. Attaching a generator to the turbine. c. Changing pressure to velocity to drive the turbine blades. d. Changing velocity to pressure to drive the turbine blades. e. Decreasing the hot gas temperature and pressure. 52. Gas Turbines are rated by: a. Output shaft power output vs. fuel energy rate. b. Power produced at the output shaft. c. Horsepower. d. Ratio of rated power to the fuel energy rate. e. Ratio of rated power to the LHV of the fuel. 53. The purpose if a compressor diffuser is to convert: a. The compressed air exiting the casing. b. The compressed air exiting the impellor. c. High-pressure air into velocity for the casing. d. High velocity air to temperature energy. e. High velocity air to high pressure. 54. Regenerators are installed between the: a. LP and the HP compressor sections. b. LP and the HP turbine sections. c. Outlet and the LP turbine sections. d. Compressor and the combustor sections. e. The combustors and the Hp turbine sections. 55. The free piston gas generator on a gas turbine cycle will take the place of the: a. Turbine and combustor b. Compressor and combustor c. Compressor and turbine d. Compressor and regenerator e. Combustor and regenerator. 56. The regenerator of a gas turbine cycle is a: a. Second combustor b. Primary generator c. Vessel used to transfer heat from the exhaust gas to the working fluid before compression occurs d. Mini-compressor e. Heat exchanger. 11 57. A radial or centrifugal compressor used with a gas turbine has the following advantages: 1. Simple 2. More efficient 3. Strong 4. Short in length a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 3, 4 c. 2, 3, 4 d. 1, 2, 4 e. 1, 2, 3, 4. 58. The complex cycle gas turbine has: 1. High power output per unit of air flow. 2. The highest fuel cost. 3. The lowest amount of cooling water required. 4. The highest thermal efficiency. a. 2, 3. b. 1, 4. c. 1, 2, 3. d. 1, 2, 4. e. 2, 4. 59. In the combustors, how much air is utilized for fuel combustion: a. 10% b. 20% c. 30% d. 40% e. 50%. 60. The turbine exits gas temperatures will be a maximum of: a. 600°C b. 700°C c. 750°C d. 800°C e. 850°C. 61. Large volume combustors are used when: a. Simplicity is required. b. Frontal area is no concern. c. A regenerator is being used. d. Less complicated design is called for. e. Air flow path is less convoluted. 12 62. The disadvantages of using a regenerator in a gas turbine cycle are: 1. Heating surfaces become coated and must be cleaned 2. It must have a large heating surface to be efficient 3. It produces a pressure drop through the system 4. The temperature drop through the system will be greatly reduced a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 2, 4 c. 1, 3, 4 d. 2, 3, 4 e. 1, 2, 3, 4. 63. The advantages of a dual shaft gas turbine arrangement are: 1. Greater flexibility. 2. It is cheaper. 3. Smaller starting motors may be used. 4. High pressures and temperatures may be obtained. a. 1, 2. b. 1, 3. c. 2, 3. d. 2, 4. e. 1, 4. 64. There are fewer turbine blades than compressor blades because: a. Energy can be extracted more efficiently. b. Turbine blades are bigger so require fewer. c. Higher exhaust temperatures can be tolerated. d. The hot gases occupy more volume. e. Hot exhaust gases are required for the HRSG’s. 65. Gas turbine blades are cooled to: a. Increase power output to the HRSG. b. Increase metal temperatures out of the turbine. c. Increase the longevity of the blades. d. Increase flow rates through each section. e. Cool the temperatures going into the next section. 66. The maximum run time before blade replacement is: a. 75,000 hours. b. 100,000 hours. c. 150,000 hours. d. 125,000 hours. e. 50,000 hours. 13 67. Operators are allowed too control: a. Adjust the air ratios to the combustors. b. Control the turbine speeds. c. Change the burner logic for the combustors. d. Change the turbine ramp rates for start up. e. Change the shut down sequencing. 68. A gas turbine attempts to combine. a. The simplicity of the steam turbine and the internal combustion engine. b. The advantage of the steam turbine and the internal combustion engine. c. The advantage of the steam turbine and the simplicity of the internal combustion engine. d. The simplicity of the steam turbine and the advantages of the internal combustion engine. e. All of the above. 69. Some of the characteristics that make the gas turbine a better choice over other prime movers are: 1. Low maintenance 2. Minimum cooling water requirements 3. High thermal efficiency 4. Rapid start up and loading a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 2, 4 c. 1, 3, 4 d. 2, 3, 4 e. 1, 2, 3, 4. 70. Vibration accelerometers are used: a. If journal or tilt pad bearings are used. b. To trip the turbine on rapid acceleration. c. To control the ramp speed on startup. d. On large industrial gas turbines. e. With anti-friction bearings. 71. Protective devices will shutdown the turbine if: a. Lube oil pressure is too high. b. Governor oil pressure is too low. c. Compressor air flow is too high. d. Combustor gas temperature is too low. e. Exhaust gas temperature is too high. 14 72. The regenerator of a gas turbine will recover about _____ of the exhaust heat: a. 60%. b. 65%. c. 70%. d. 75%. e. 80%. 73. Industrial gas turbines compared to aero-derivative turbines are: a. Light weight. b. Rapid load changers. c. Less efficient. d. Use all different fuels. e. Slow starting. 74. The regenerator in a gas turbine cycle is located between the: a. Power and load turbine b. Turbine outlet and compressor inlet c. Compressor and combustor d. Compressor and turbine e. Power turbine and generator. 75. The gas turbine system is ideal: a. For large generator systems. b. To be used over a steam turbine. c. To be used for unmanned and remote locations. d. For all applications of a process plant. e. For large gas plant. 76. Maximum power achieved by a gas turbine as a function of: a. The number of turbine stops and starts every year. b. The number of times base load power output is exceeded. c. The number of times peak load is obtained in a year. d. The number of times operational limits are exceeded. e. Life expectancy of hot gas components. 77. The greatest limitation on increased turbine output is: a. Turbine blade configurations. b. Heat resisting steels. c. Design limitations of the turbine shafts. d. Casing designs that allow flexing. e. Cost of expensive fuels. 15 78. In a single can combustor the interconnected tubes decreases the: a. Number of igniters used. b. Number injectors required. c. Complexity of the turbine. d. Pressure differences in each tube. e. Number of flame tubes required. 79. The beneficial effect of intercoolers decreases with: a. Combining with regeneration. b. Pressure ratio increase. c. Colder cooling water. d. Smaller sized turbines. e. Higher air throughput. 80. The compressor on a gas turbine: a. Can be driven by the load turbine b. Is always of the axial type c. Is always a multi stage, compressor d. Can be of the reciprocating type e. Is always of the centrifugal type. 81. The advantage of the Can-Annular design is: a. Uniform outlet temperatures. b. Multiple igniters ensure combustion. c. Fuel lines distribute fuel more rapidly. d. Is a more efficient use of space. e. If one can quits the others will keep working. 82. Control of a gas turbine is accomplished by: a. Varying the loading station. b. The power turbine all speed governor. c. Varying load on the generator. d. Varying the fuel flow. e. Controlling the shaft speed. 83. In axial flow compressors, compression occurs: a. In the stationary blades. b. In the rotating blades. c. In both stationary and rotating blades. d. By the use of nozzle blocks between stages. e. In only the moving blades. 16 84. Axial compressors used on gas turbines have the following advantages: 1. Small. 2. More efficient. 3. Cheaper. 4. Run at high speeds. a. 1, 2, 3. b. 1, 2, 4. c. 1, 3, 4. d. 2, 3, 4. e. 1, 2, 3, 4. 17 Gas Turbine Principles and Designs Section 4 Module 4 S4M04 Master List (84) 5-Oct-06 Edited 20-Sep-07 1. a 26. d 51. e 76. e 2. d 27. e 52. b 77. b 3. b 28. c 53. e 78. d 4. a 29. c 54. d 79. b 5. e 30. b 55. c 80. a 6. d 31. a 56. b 81. a 7. c 32. e 57. b 82. d 8. a 33. e 58. b 83. c 9. a 34. a 59. b 84. b 10. b 35. e 60. b 11. b 36. d 61. c 12. e 37. d 62. a 13. b 38. e 63. b 14. c 39. d 64. a 15. b 40. d 65. c 16. c 41. c 66. b 17. b 42. c 67. b 18. d 43. c 68. d 19. b 44. b 69. b 20. a 45. d 70. e 21. b 46. c 71. e 22. d 47. a 72. d 23. a 48. d 73. d 24. b 49. c 74. c 25. d 50. b 75. c 18 3RD CLASS POWER ENGINEERING Gas Turbine Auxiliaries and Operation Section 4 Module 5 S4M05 Master List (41) 5-Oct-06 Edited 2-Oct-07 1. An essential auxiliary in a gas turbine installation is: a. A generator. b. A reheater. c. A starting motor. d. An air heater. e. A water pump. 2. In order to keep the gas pass of a gas turbine clean the following must be done: 1. Inspect and clean air intake filters 2. Water washing of compressor blades 3. Inspect and clean air intake ducts 4. Good quality fuel must be used a. 1, 2 b. 1, 3 c. 1, 2, 3 d. 1, 2, 3, 4 e. 1, 3, 4. 3. Gas turbine Lubricating oil systems provide the basic functions of: 1. Lubricate sliding surfaces in the bearings. 2. Sealing out dirt and moisture. 3. Cooling of the bearings. 4. Sealing of the gas passages. a. 1, 2 b. 1, 3 c. 1, 4 d. 1, 2, 3 e. 1, 2, 4. 4. The term total energy arrangement, as applied to gas turbine cycles, gets its name by: a. All the energy is used in the system. b. The turbine provides all the necessary forms of energy. c. The system is of the closed type and therefore less energy is lost. d. The hot gases being passed through a boiler to produce steam. e. It can use any type of fuel. 1 5. Thrust bearings on gas turbines will be positioned at the: a. Back end of the compressor and next to the power turbine bearings. b. Front end of the compressor and back end of the power turbine bearings. c. Front end of the compressor and next to the power turbine bearings. d. Front end of the compressor and front end of the power turbine. e. Back end of the compressor and front end of the power turbine. 6. Aero-derivative gas turbines normally use _____ bearings: a. Journal. b. Radial tilt-pad. c. Shell. d. Antifriction. e. Air. 7. Micro-turbines normally use _____ bearings: a. Journal. b. Radial tilt-pad. c. Shell. d. Antifriction. e. Air. 8. Heavy-duty gas turbines today use _____ bearings: a. Journal. b. Radial tilt-pad. c. Shell. d. Antifriction. e. Air. 9. The total energy arrangement of a gas turbine system is used to: 1. Provide electricity. 2. Cool water for drinking. 3. Provide air conditioning. 4. Provide heating. a. 1, 2, 3. b. 2, 3, 4. c. 1, 3, 4. d. 1, 2, 4. e. 1, 2, 3, 4. 2 10. Auxiliary systems on gas turbines are needed to: 1. Provide fuel at the proper temperature and pressures. 2. Clean and treat fuels. 3. Provide hydraulic fluid for bearing lubrication. 4. Inject steam to clean the ducts and housing. 5. Provide anti-icing. a. 1, 2, 3 b. 2, 3, 4 c. 3, 4, 5 d. 1, 2, 5 e. 2, 4, 5. 11. Exhaust systems are required on Gas Turbines to: 1. Allow the installation of silencers. 2. Allow the installation of heat recovery equipment. 3. Direct the flow to heat recovery systems. 4. Minimize power losses. 5. Protect operators. a. 1, 3, 5 b. 1, 2, 3 c. 3, 4, 5 d. 1, 4, 5 e. 1, 3, 4. 12. Advantages of gas turbines intakes are: 1. Remove contaminants. 2. Prevent damage from foreign objects. 3. Allow addition of special cooling systems. 4. Smooth air flow into the compressor. 5. Decrease the velocity of the incoming air. a. 1, 2, 3, 4 b. 2, 3, 4, 5 c. 3, 4, 5, 1 d. 4, 5, 1, 2 e. 5, 1, 2, 3. 13. When a gas turbine is running and a condition called surging occurs this means: a. The speed of the turbine is fluctuating. b. The turbine is running to fast. c. Air gets choked in the high, pressure end of the compressor. d. Air is pulsating through the turbine compressor. e. The fuel supply is fluctuating. 3 14. Most aero derivative turbines lube oil systems require: a. Require two back lube oil pumps. b. Separate inlet and outlet filter systems. c. Separate lube oil tanks and coolers. d. Separate lube oil systems. e. Separate back up pumps. 15. Thrust bearings on dual shaft gas turbines are positioned at the: a. Front of the compressor and next to the turbine bearing. b. Front of both the compressor and the turbine section. c. Back of both the compressor section and the turbine section. d. Back of the compressor and next to the turbine bearing. e. Front and back of the turbine section. 16. Why do microturbines require only air bearings: 1. No governing oil system. 2. Small overall size. 3. Simplicity of components. 4. Everything on one shaft. 5. No lube oil system. a. 1, 2 b. 2, 3 c. 2, 5 d. 3, 4 e. 4, 5. 17. Gas turbines may be started remotely by: 1. Telephone. 2. Time delay relays. 3. Mechanical link. 4. Radio link. a. 1, 4. b. 1, 3. c. 1, 2. d. 2, 4. e. 2, 3. 18. All piping, fittings and reservoir use _____ to prevent corrosion. a. Stainless steel. b. Brass. c. Aluminum. d. Carbon steel e. Polycarbonate. 4 19. In order to have a safe and efficient operation of a gas turbine the operator requires a knowledge, of: 1. The lubricating oil system. 2. The fuel oil system. 3. How to control the air inlet temperature. 4. The fire fighting system. a. 1, 2, 3. b. 1, 2, 4. c. 1, 3, 4. d. 2, 3, 4. e. 1, 2, 3, 4. 20. When maintenance is required on a combustion unit of a gas turbine this includes: 1. Re-adjusting fuel flows. 2. Cleaning of fuel burners. 3. Checking flame tubes for proper ignition. 4. Igniters and retraction gears should be tested. a. 1, 2, 3. b. 1, 2, 4. c. 1, 3, 4. d. 2, 3, 4. e. 1, 2, 3, 4. 21. A major overhaul is performed on a gas turbine: a. On an annual basis. b. When performance falls off. c. During periods of light loads. d. According to manufacturers specifications. e. On a monthly basis. 22. Gas turbine oil systems consist of these basic components: 1. An oil reservoir to ensue an adequate supply of oil. 2. Filters to ensure the oil is clean. 3. Pumps to provide pressure. 4. Coolers to ensure oil temperatures are kept within operating limits. 5. Protective, monitoring and control devices. a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 2, 4 c. 1, 3, 4, 5 d. 2, 3, 4, e. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. 5 23. In order to keep the gas passages of a gas turbine clean, the following must be done: 1. Inspect and clean air intake filters. 2. Water washing of compressor blades. 3. Inspect and clean air intake ducts. 4. Good quality fuel must be used. a. 1, 2 b. 1, 3 c. 1, 2, 3 d. 1, 3, 4 e. 1, 2, 3, 4. 24. Interlocks that must be in the start position to start a gas turbine are: 1. Dampers and ducting open. 2. Control circu

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