PTS 2025 General Studies Paper 1 PDF

PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211203 | DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO T.B.C. : FIAS-PTS25 Test Booklet Series Serial No. A...

PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211203 | DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO T.B.C. : FIAS-PTS25 Test Booklet Series Serial No. A TEST BOOKLET GENERAL STUDIES Paper – 1 Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOK. 2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers: THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one- third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left bank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020 9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]  PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211203 | Q.1) Consider the following institutions in How many of the above languages have been India: given the status of a Classical Language in 1. National Human Rights Commission India? (NHRC) a) Only three 2. Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) b) Only four 3. NITI Aayog c) Only five 4. Central Information Commission (CIC) d) All six 5. National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) Q.4) With reference to Panchayati Raj How many of the above institutions are Institutions, consider the following neither a Statutory body nor a Constitutional statements: body? 1. Currently, more than two-thirds of the a) Only one States in India have expanded reservations b) Only two for women in the Panchayat at village level c) Only three to 50 percent. d) All five 2. Bihar was the first state in India to increase the reservation for women to 50 percent in Q.2) Consider the following statements: Panchayat at the Village level Statement - I: In India, Panchayati Raj 3. No state in India has established minimum Institutions are governed by state-specific educational qualifications for contesting acts that outline their composition, powers, Panchayat elections. functions, and administrative procedures. Which of the statements given above are Statement - II: “Local government" is a correct? subject, enumerated under the State List in a) 1 and 2 only the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of b) 2 and 3 only India. c) 1 and 3 only Which one of the following is correct in d) 1, 2 and 3 respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Q.5) With reference to Household correct and Statement-II is the correct Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES), explanation for Statement-I 2022-23, consider the following statements: b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 1. The survey is conducted by the National correct and Statement-II is not the correct Statistical Organization (NSO) under the explanation for Statement for Statement-I Ministry of Statistics & Programme c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is Implementation (MoSPI). incorrect 2. The average monthly per capita d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is consumption expenditure (MPCE) in correct households is highest in Chhattisgarh for rural areas. Q.3) Consider the following languages: Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Tamil correct? 2. Gujarati a) 1 only 3. Malayalam b) 2 only 4. Bengali c) Both 1 and 2 5. Kannada d) Neither 1 nor 2 6. Telugu Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020 9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]  PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211203 | Q.6) With reference to the Union territory of Q.9) With reference to the historical Jammu and Kashmir, consider the following development of Panchayati Raj institutions in statements: India, consider the following statements: 1. The legislative assembly of Jammu and 1. The Royal Commission on Decentralization Kashmir can make laws on any subject of 1909 recommended that the villages in mentioned in the state list of the 7th India should be regarded as the basic unit schedule of the Constitution except on the of local self-government institutions. subject of land. 2. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee 2. The electoral college for the President of recommended the three-tier system of India does not include the members of the government for the first time in legislative assembly of Jammu and Kashmir. independent India. Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the above statements is/are correct? correct? a) 1 only a) 1 only b) 2 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q.10) Which of the following groups of Q.7) According to the Constitution of India, countries are members of the European Free reservation of seats in Panchayat elections for Trade Association (EFTA)? Scheduled Tribes shall not apply to the state a) Switzerland, Germany, France, Italy of: b) Austria, Denmark, Norway, Portugal a) Bihar c) Iceland, Norway, Sweden, Finland b) Gujarat d) Liechtenstein, Norway, Switzerland, Iceland c) Madhya Pradesh d) Arunachal Pradesh Q.11) With reference to Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) PESA act, 1996, Q.8) Consider the following statements: consider the following: Statement-I: The 73rd Constitutional 1. The power to enforce prohibition or to Amendment Act of 1992 transformed India’s regulate and restrict the sale and governance from a representative system to a consumption of intoxicants. participatory system of governance. 2. The authority to own and manage minor Statement-II: The 73rd Constitutional forest produce. Amendment Act of 1992 mandated the 3. The power to prevent alienation of land in reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes (SCs) the Tribal Areas declared under Schedule 6 and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in Panchayati Raj of the Constitution of India. Institutions (PRIs). Which of the above powers are conferred on Which one of the following is correct in Gram Sabha under the PESA Act, 1996? respect of the above statements? a) 1 and 2 only a) Both Statement I and Statement II are b) 1 and 3 only correct, and Statement II is the correct c) 2 and 3 only explanation of Statement I. d) 1, 2 and 3 b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect. d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct. Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020 9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]  PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211203 | Q.12) With reference to the State Finance c) within one week of the transaction date. Commission (SFC), consider the following d) on the same day as the transaction date. statements: 1. The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act of Q.16) Consider the following statements: 2003 provided for the establishment of Statement-I: Executive power of the Centre to SFC. give directions to the States is wider in 2. It works under the overall supervision of Scheduled Areas under Fifth Schedule of the Finance Commission of India. Constitution, when compared to non- 3. It makes recommendations to the Scheduled Areas. President regarding grants-in-aid to the Statement-II: In Scheduled Areas the Municipalities from the Consolidated Fund executive power of the Central Government of India. extends to all subject matters, including How many of the statements given above are subjects in the State list of Seventh Schedule correct? of Indian Constitution. a) Only one Which one of the following is correct in b) Only two respect of the above statements? c) All three a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are d) None correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. Q.13) With reference to Panchayat Extension b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are to Scheduled Areas Act (PESA), 1996 consider correct and Statement-II is not the correct the following statements: explanation for Statement-I. 1. It was enacted on the recommendations of c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is the Bhuria Committee. incorrect. 2. It is not applicable in the state of Assam. d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is Which of the statements given above is/are correct. correct? a) 1 only Q.17) Consider the following statements b) 2 only regarding the Scheduled Areas designated c) Both 1 and 2 under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of d) Neither 1 nor 2 India 1. Indian Constitution is silent on criteria for Q.14) Which of the following is considered as declaring an area as Scheduled Area. the primary instrument for effective 2. Provisions of Constitution of India relating implementation of Panchayat Extension to to the Scheduled Areas may be amended by Scheduled Areas Act. 1996? the Parliament through a simple majority. a) Gram Sabha Which of the statements given above is/are b) Gram Panchayat correct? c) District Board a) 1 only d) State Legislature b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 Q.15) In context of Capital Market, “T+0 d) Neither 1 nor 2 settlement” means settlement of transactions occurs- a) on the next business day after the trade date. b) within two business days of the transaction date. Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020 9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]  PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211203 | Q.18) With reference to Tribes Advisory Which of the statements given above is/are Councils (TAC) constituted under the Fifth correct? Schedule of Indian Constitution, consider the a) 1 only following statements: b) 1 and 2 only 1. It advice the Governor of the State on the c) 2 and 3 only matters relating to “welfare and d) 1, 2 and 3 only advancement of Scheduled Tribes”, when asked by the Governor. Q.21) Consider the following statements: 2. The advice tendered by TAC to the 1. The ‘Inner Line Permit’ is not mentioned governor on making regulations relating to anywhere in the Sixth Schedule of the governance in the Scheduled Areas is Indian Constitution. binding. 2. Recently, Ladakh Union Territory was Which of the statements given above is/are included under the Sixth Schedule of Indian correct? Constitution. a) 1 only Which of the statements given above are b) 2 only correct? c) Both 1 and 2 a) 1 only d) Neither 1 nor 2 b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 Q.19) The Sixth Schedule of Constitution of d) Neither 1 nor 2 India provides for a District Councils for each autonomous district. In this context, consider Q.22) In context of the powers of the Governor the following: under the Sixth Schedule of the Indian District Councils in each autonomous districts Constitution, consider the following have the power to- statements: 1. establish primary schools. 1. The Governor can modify or annul any 2. constitute village councils and courts. resolution passed by the District Councils if 3. impose taxes on professions and trade in it is deemed detrimental to the interests of the area. the Scheduled Tribes. Select the correct answer using the codes 2. The Governor has the power to establish given below: Regional Councils for areas within the a) 1 and 2 only Autonomous Districts if there is a b) 1 and 3 only significant presence of different tribes c) 2 and 3 only requiring distinct administration. d) 1, 2 and 3 3. The Governor may, by notification, direct that any Act of Parliament shall not apply to Q.20) With reference to Algorithmic trading, an autonomous district or autonomous consider the following statements: region in the State of Meghalaya. 1. It involves execution of trades on stock Which of the statements given above are exchanges by using computer programs correct? and software without much human a) 1 and 2 only intervention. b) 1 and 3 only 2. It can cause huge price fluctuations in the c) 2 and 3 only share prices resulting in losses for traders. d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Algorithmic trading is illegal in India for both retail investors and institutional traders. Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020 9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]  PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211203 | Q.23) With reference to Cooperative Societies Q.26) With reference to Union Territories in in India, consider the following statements: India, consider the following statements: 1. Multi-state cooperative societies are a 1. All members of the Legislative Assemblies Concurrent List subject under the Seventh of Union Territories of Delhi and Schedule of the Constitution of India. Pondicherry participate in the Presidential 2. Gujarat has the highest number of election. registered Cooperative societies in India. 2. As per Constitution of India, the total 3. The mission of 'Sahkar Se Samriddhi' of maximum representation from all the Ministry of Cooperation aims to ensure Union Territories to the Lok Sabha is 30. equitable and widespread growth of 3. The Panchayati Raj system is constituted in cooperative societies. all Union Territories except Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/ are Which of the statements given above is/are correct? correct? a) 1 and 3 only a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 d) 3 only Q.24) With reference to the National Q.27) Constitution of India gives a power to Cooperative Development Corporation Parliament to constitute a body to function as (NCDC), consider the following statements: a Legislature for the Union territory of 1. It is a statutory body established by an Act Puducherry. In this context, which of the of Parliament. following type of legislative body is created for 2. The Government of India provides financial Puducherry under Government of Union assistance to cooperatives through the Territories Act, 1963? NCDC. a) Fully elected 3. Its primary focus is on promoting and b) party nominated and party elected developing cooperatives in the agricultural c) Fully nominated sector only. d) Only council of minister Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Q.28) With reference to the Special provisions a) 1 only with respect to Union Territory of Delhi in b) 1 and 2 only Constitution of India, consider the following c) 2 and 3 only statements: d) 1, 2, and 3 1. All the members of the Legislative Assembly of Delhi are directly elected. Q.25) “It is the protected forest that links 2. The matter related to the division of the Nilgiris biosphere reserve and the South National Capital Territory into territorial Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary. A rare mammal constituencies is regulated by law of known as the Honey badger is found in this Parliament protected area. The landscape is the 3. The Legislative Assembly of Delhi is catchment of the Palar River that drains into empowered to make laws on any of the the Cauvery River”. matters enumerated in the State List of Which one of the following could be that Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of protected area? India. a) Pulicat Lake Wildlife Sanctuary Which of the statements given above is/are b) Thanthai Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary correct? c) Indira Gandhi (Annamalai) Wildlife a) 1 only Sanctuary b) 1 and 2 only d) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 and 3 only Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020 9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]  PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211203 | Q.29) In which of the following situations can Q.32) Which of the following is authorised to the Lt. Governor of Union Territory of put Union Territory (UT) under the jurisdiction Puducherry issue an ordinance? of the High Court of adjacent state? When the legislature is in – a) Parliament 1. recess b) President 2. dissolution c) Lieutenant Governor 3. suspension. d) Prime Minister Select the correct answer using the code given below: Q.33) Consider the following statements a) 1 only regarding the special provisions for the state b) 1 and 2 only of Manipur under the Constitution of India: c) 2 and 3 only 1. Governor shall submit report to the d) 1, 2 and 3 President regarding administration of the Hill Areas of Manipur. Q.30) With reference to Maritime Anti-Piracy 2. Central Government can give directions to Act 2022, consider the following statements: the state government regarding 1. It empowers the Indian Navy to board, administration of the Hill Areas of Manipur. seize and arrest pirates operating in the Which of the statements given above are High Seas. correct? 2. It allows for the trial of pirates to proceed a) 1 only even if they are not present in court. b) 2 only 3. The act provides for provision of death c) Both 1 and 2 penalty to a person for causing death d) Neither 1 nor 2 during an act of piracy. Which of the statements given above are Q.34) With reference to the safeguards correct? available to Civil Servants in India, consider a) 1 and 2 only the following statements: b) 3 only 1. Criminal proceedings cannot be instituted c) 1 and 3 only against civil servants for any act done d) 2 and 3 only without the prior sanction of the appropriate authority. Q.31) With reference to the Federal structure 2. A civil servant cannot be dismissed or of Constitution of India, consider the following removed by an authority subordinate to the statements: one that appointed him/her. Statement I: Article 371 of the Constitution 3. Generally, a civil servant cannot be tilts Indian federalism towards asymmetric removed without a fair inquiry and the federalism up to some extent. opportunity to defend against the charges Statement II: Article 371 of the Constitution instituted upon him/her. grants special provisions and unique powers to How many of the statements given above are certain states of India. correct? Which one of the following is correct in a) Only one respect of the above statement? b) Only two a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are c) All three correct and Statement-II explains d) None Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020 9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]  PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211203 | Q.35) With reference to National Cooperative For which of the above class(es) can the States Organics Limited (NCOL), consider the make their own list without involvement of the following statements: Central Government or the President of India? 1. It has been set up under the Multi-State a) 1 only Cooperative Societies (MSCS) Act, 2002. b) 2 only 2. It is promoted by National Bank for c) 3 only Agriculture and Rural Development d) 1, 2 and 3 (NABARD) and Reserve Bank of India (RBI). 3. It facilitates in arranging financial Q.38) Which of the following entity initiates assistance to the organic farmers through the proposal for deciding claims for inclusion its member Cooperatives. in or exclusion from the lists of Scheduled Which of the statements given above is/are Tribes in India? correct? a) Ministry of Tribal Affairs a) 1 only b) Office of the Registrar General of India b) 1 and 2 only c) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes c) 2 and 3 only d) State Government. d) 1 and 3 only Q.39) Parliament has framed certain laws to Q.36) Consider the following statements give effect to the provisions of the regarding special provisions for Scheduled Constitution of India related to the Tribes under the Constitution of India: development of Scheduled Castes. In this 1. President may by public notification, after context, consider the following: consultation with the Governor of the state 1. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 concerned, specify tribes as Scheduled aims to enforce the constitutional Tribes relating to that state. provisions enshrined in Article 17. 2. President may by notification include or 2. Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976 exclude scheduled tribes from the List of was enacted to reinforce the constitutional Scheduled Tribes recognized at Central values in Article 22. Level. Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Indian Constitution is silent regarding the correct? criteria for specification of a community as a) 1 only Scheduled Tribes. b) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are c) Both 1 and 2 correct? d) Neither 1 nor 2 a) 1 only b) 2 only Q.40) Consider the following pairs: c) 2 and 3 only Places often seen in Associated Countries d) 1 and 3 only news 1. Agalega Island Maldives Q.37) Special provisions with regards to 2. Hambantota Port Sri Lanka certain classes have been provided in Part XVI 3. Chabahar Port Iraq of the Indian Constitution and gives the power How many of the pairs given above are to certain functionaries to identify and correctly matched? maintain list of these classes. In this context, a) Only one consider the following Classes: b) Only two 1. Scheduled Castes c) All three 2. Scheduled Tribes d) None 3. Socially and Economically Backward Classes Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020 9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]  PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211203 | Q.41) With reference to the rights of minorities c) Both 1 and 2 in India, consider the following statements: d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. The Constitution of India allows minorities to establish and administer educational Q.44) With reference to the languages used in institutions of their choice. different Courts and Legislatures in India, 2. The National Commission for Minorities consider the following statements? was established under a directive from the 1. The Governor of a state, with the prior Supreme Court of India. consent of the President, has the authority 3. Minority institutions can impart to permit the use of Hindi for the compulsory religious teaching even if it is judgments, decrees, and orders of the High fully funded by Government of India. Court. Which of the statements given above is/are 2. The President has the authority to permit correct? the use of Hindi for judgments, decrees, a) 1 only orders, and other proceedings in the b) 1 and 3 Supreme Court of India. c) 2 and 3 3. Both President and Governor can authorize d) 1, 2, and 3 the use of Hindi in the High Court proceedings. Q.42) With reference to the rights of religious 4. Currently, the proceedings in the Supreme minorities in India, consider the following Court are conducted exclusively in English. statements: Which of the statements given above is/are 1. The wearing and carrying of kirpans by the correct? Sikh community is protected under the a) 1, 3 and 4 only Constitution of India. b) 1 and 4 only 2. The Constitution establishes separate c) 2, 3 and 4 only personal law boards for each religious d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 minority community in India to govern their civil matters. Q.45) With reference to Paris Club, consider Which of the statements given above is/are the following statements: correct? 1. It is an informal group of creditor countries a) 1 only to support nations facing financial b) 2 only difficulties. c) Both 1 and 2 2. It was established during the Doha d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ministerial Declaration of World Trade Organization in 2001. Q.43) With reference to special directive 3. It only deals with debt between provided by the Constitution of India for use governments and does not handle any of language in a state, consider the following private loan repayment. statements: Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Every person is entitled to submit a correct? representation for the redress of any a) 1 only grievance to any officer of the state b) 1 and 2 only government in any language used in the c) 2 and 3 only state. d) 1 and 3 only 2. State governments shall provide facilities for primary education in the mother tongue Q.46) The power to recognize a language as for children of linguistic minority groups. official language of state in India is vested in- Which of the statements given above is/are a) President of India correct? b) Parliament of India a) 1 only c) Governor of the state b) 2 only d) State Legislature Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020 9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]  PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211203 | Q.47) Consider the following statements: infrastructure in Particularly Vulnerable Statement - I: Post-demonetization in 2016, Tribal Group (PVTG)-dominated areas. Devanagari numerals are being used on the 2. It is based on convergence of various currency notes of Rs.2000 in India alongside intervention and schemes from different international numerals. ministries to provide comprehensive Statement - II: According to the Constitution support to PVTG families. of India, the numerals to be used for the Which of the statements given above is/are official purposes of the Union shall be in the correct? Devanagari. a) 1 only Which one of the following is correct in b) 2 only respect of the above statements? c) Both 1 and 2 a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Q.51) Consider the following statements: b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Statement-I: Coalition governments have correct and Statement-II is not the correct become a common phenomenon in the Indian explanation for Statement for Statement-I political system. c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is Statement-II: Indian political system follows incorrect the multi-party system in which various d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is political parties fight democratically for power. correct Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements? Q.48) Which of the following communities a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are received the latest recognition as a minority correct and Statement-II is the correct community by the Union Government of explanation of Statement-I. India? b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are a) Sikhs correct and Statement-II is not the correct b) Buddhists explanation of Statement-I. c) Zoroastrians (Parsis) c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is d) Jains incorrect. d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is Q.49) With reference to minority communities correct. in India, consider the following statements: 1. Only the Central Government has the Q.52) Consider the following statements with authority to notify a particular language as respect to usage of Voter Verifiable Paper a minority language in a state. Audit Trail (VVPAT) system in India: 2. Judaism is one of the religions notified as 1. VVPATs with EVMs were first used in minority community at the national level by Kerala in the year 1982. the Government of India. 2. The voters are allowed to take printed slips Which of the statements given above is/are of VVPAT with them. correct? 3. It is necessary to match and count each a) 1 only printed slip of VVPAT on counting day. b) 2 only How many of the above statements are c) Both 1 and 2 correct? d) Neither 1 nor 2 a) Only one b) Only two Q.50) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Janjati c) All three Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan (PM-JANMAN), d) None consider the following statements: 1. It is an initiative aimed at improving housing, water supply, sanitation, education, healthcare related Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020 9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]  PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211203 | Q.53) Which of the following political parties in Select the correct answer using the codes India is a registered-unrecognized party? given below: A political party which is registered with the a) 1 and 2 only Election Commission of India and- b) 1 and 3 only a) is recognized by the Election Commission c) 2 and 3 only as a National party but not State party. d) 1, 2 and 3 b) is recognized by the Election Commission as State party but not National party. Q.56) Consider the following statements c) is recognized by the Election Commission regarding elections in India: as neither National nor State party. 1. High Courts have original jurisdiction over d) is recognized by the Election Commission Disputes relating to elections of the State as both National and State party. Legislatures and both houses of the Parliament. Q.54) Which of the following is not a condition 2. Before 19th amendment of Constitution, for a political party in India to be recognized election tribunals, appointed for that as a State Party? purpose, were used for adjudication of a) If a party secured 6% of the valid votes disputes relating to the elections of polled in a Legislative Assembly election Parliament and Legislatures of States. and wins at least two seats in the Which of the statements given above is/are Legislative Assembly of the concerned correct? state. a) 1 only b) If a party secured 6% of the valid votes b) 2 only polled in an election to the Lok Sabha and c) Both 1 and 2 wins at least one seat in the Lok Sabha d) Neither 1 nor 2 election from the concerned state. c) If a party secures 8% of the valid votes Q.57) Consider the following statements: polled in a Legislative Assembly or Lok Statement-I: Both Parliament and State Sabha election in the concerned state. Legislatures are empowered make provision d) If it secures at least 5% of the total number with respect to matters relating to elections to of seats or five seats, whichever is more, in the State Legislatures. the last Legislative Assembly elections. Statement-II: The subject "Election to the Legislature of State, subject to the provisions Q.55) Which of the following statements is/are of any law made by Parliament " is mentioned correct about Plastic waste management in the Concurrent List of the Seventh (amendment) rules 2024? Schedule. 1. It defines biodegradable plastics as capable Which one of the following is correct in of degradation by biological processes and respect of the above statements? also as materials that do not leave any a) Both Statement I and Statement II are microplastics. correct, and Statement II is the correct 2. It made provisions related to requirements explanation of Statement I. for labelling and certification of b) Both Statement I and Statement II are compostable or biodegradable plastics. correct, but Statement II is not the correct 3. It introduced responsibility of explanation of Statement I. manufacturers, producers, importers and c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is brand owners for the collection of plastic incorrect. packaging. d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct. Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020 9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]  PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211203 | Q.58) With reference to elections in India, Q.61) With reference to the disqualification of consider the following statements: Members of a Parliament under the provisions 1. The elections to the House of the People of Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India, (Lok Sabha) are based on Universal Adult consider the following statements: Suffrage. 1. A member belonging to any political party 2. 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act becomes disqualified if he voluntarily gives reduced the voting age in India from 21 up his membership of such political party. years to 18 years. 2. An independent member becomes Which of the statements given above is/are disqualified to remain a member of the correct? House if he joins any political party after a) 1 only such election. b) 2 only 3. No nominated member of a House can be c) Both 1 and 2 disqualified if he joins a political party. d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above are correct? Q.59) On which of the following grounds can a a) 1 and 2 only citizen be disqualified from casting a vote b) 2 and 3 only according to Representation of the People Act c) 1 and 3 only 1950 and 1951? d) 1, 2, and 3 1. A person is a non-residence in a constituency to be registered as a voter Q.62) Any question regarding disqualification 2. A person is of Unsoundness of mind and of Members of Parliament arising out of stands so declared by a competent court. defection under the provisions of Tenth 3. A person committed a Crime and confined Schedule of Constitution of India is to be in prison decided by- 4. A person found guilty of Corrupt practices a) The President of India in election b) The Chief Justice of India Select the correct answer using the code given c) The Election Commission of India below: d) The Speaker or the Chairman of the a) 1 and 2 only respective House of Parliament b) 2 and 3 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only Q.63) Which of the following changes were d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 brought in the anti-defection law by the Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act, Q.60) With reference to Great Indian Bustard 2003? (GIB), consider the following statements: 1. A member of Parliament disqualified for 1. It acts as an indicator species for grassland defection cannot hold any remunerative ecosystem. political post. 2. Gujarat has the highest population of the 2. It established a special tribunal to Great Indian Bustard in India. adjudicate on the defection cases. 3. It faces threat from overhead powerlines Select the correct answer using the code given due to its poor frontal vision. below: How many of the statements given above are a) 1 only correct? b) 2 only a) Only one c) Both 1 and 2 b) Only two d) Neither 1 nor 2 c) All three d) None Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020 9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]  PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211203 | Q.64) Yashwantrao Balwantrao Chavan Q.67) Consider the following groups: Committee, 1969 in India was set up to- 1. Narmada Bachao Andolan (NBA) a) review the functioning of public sector 2. Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) banks. 3. Associated Chambers of Commerce and b) examine the problem of political Industry of India (ASSOCHAM) defections. 4. Centre of Indian Trade Unions (CITU) c) investigate issues related to cooperative How many of the above groups can be societies in India. categorized as “Pressure Groups” in India? d) review the working of the Indian a) Only one Constitution. b) Only two c) Only three Q.65) In a historic milestone, India recently d) All four witnessed the commencement of “Core Loading” at India’s first indigenous Fast Q.68) All India Services (AIS) plays a significant Breeder Reactor (500 MWe) at Kalpakkam, role in maintaining administrative continuity Tamil Nadu. In this context, consider the and integrity across the country. In that following statements about India’s Nuclear fast context which of the following statements breeder reactor: about All India Services (AIS) is incorrect? 1. It uses depleted uranium (U-238) and a) All India Services (AIS) can be created by an plutonium (Pu-239) to produce energy. Act of Parliament. 2. It is constructed and operated by Nuclear b) All India Services (AIS) officers serve both Power Corporation of India. the Union and State Governments. 3. It uses deuterium oxide as coolant. c) The recruitment rules for All India Services Which of the statements given above is/are (AIS) are determined by the Union correct? Government. a) 1 and 2 only d) All India Services (AIS) officers cannot be b) 1 only transferred from one state to another state. c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 and 3 only Q.69) With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements about Q.66) With reference to ‘Multi-State the All-India Judicial Services (AIJS): Cooperative Societies (MSCS) (Amendment) 1. The All-India Judicial Services can be Act 2023’, consider the following statements: created by the Council of States with a 1. It sets up the Co-operative Election resolution passed by two-third of members Authority (CEA) to conduct elections for of the Council present and voting. the members of board of multi-state co- 2. AIJS cannot be created without the operative societies. recommendation of Chief Justice of India. 2. It establishes the Co-operative 3. The AIJS shall not include any post inferior Rehabilitation, Reconstruction and to that of a District Judge. Development Fund for revival of sick multi- Which of the statements given above is/are state co-operative societies correct? 3. It empowers the state government to a) 1 and 3 only appoint Ombudsman with territorial b) 3 only jurisdiction to investigate complaints from c) 1 and 2 only members of multi-state cooperative d) 1, 2 and 3 societies. How many of the statements given above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020 9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]  PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211203 | Q.70) Yaounde declaration sometimes Q.73) In the context of Public Service mentioned in news in relation to which of the Commissions in India, consider the following following? statement regarding the Joint Public Service a) Addressing biodiversity loss and promoting Commission (JSPSC): the protection and restoration of 1. It is a Constitutional body like the Union ecosystems Public Service Commission. b) Doubling of finance to support developing 2. JSPSC can be created by an act of countries in adapting to the impacts of Parliament on the request of the State climate change and building resilience. Legislatures concerned. c) Eradication of malaria-related fatalities. 3. At present the states of Punjab and d) Reduction of disaster risk and losses in Haryana are the only states to have a lives, livelihoods, and health, and in the JSPSC. economic, physical, social, cultural, and Which of the statements given above is/are environmental assets. correct? a) 2 only Q.71) Consider the following statements: b) 2 and 3 only 1. President of India make rules for regulating c) 1 and 2 only the recruitment of persons to public d) 1, 2 and 3 service until provision in that behalf is made by Parliament. Q.74) Which of the following statements is 2. Members of Civil service of the Union holds incorrect? office during the pleasure of the President. a) The Chairman of the Union Public Service 3. No person who is a member of the civil Commission (U.P.S.C) shall be ineligible for service of the Union can be dismissed or further employment either under the removed by an authority subordinate to Central or State Government. that by which he was appointed. b) Chairman of a State Public Service Which of the statements given above is/are Commission (S.P.S.C) shall be eligible for correct? appointment as the Chairman of UPSC only a) 1 and 3 only but not for any other employment under b) 2 and 3 only the Union or State Government. c) 1 and 2 only c) Member other than the Chairman of the d) 1, 2 and 3 UPSC shall be eligible for appointment as the Chairman of UPSC or SPSC only, but Q.72) With reference to the Delimitation not for any other employment under the Commission, consider the following Union or State Government. statements: d) Member other than the Chairman of a SPSC 1. It is a Constitutional body established is eligible for appointment as the member under provision of Article 324 of the of UPSC. Constitution of India. 2. The Chief Election Commissioner of India is Q.75) Consider the following statements the ex-officio Chairperson of this regarding the Sangeet Natak Academy: Commission. 1. It is a statutory body established under 3. Lok Sabha as well as State Legislatures can Ministry of Education. change the orders of this Commission. 2. The Chairman of Academy is appointed by How many of the statements given above are President of India. correct? Which of the Statements given above is/are a) Only one correct? b) Only two a) 1 only c) All three b) 2 only d) None c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020 9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]  PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211203 | Q.76) As per constitution of India, in which of 3. Contracts must be executed by such the following cases Union/State Government person in such manner as the President or gains ownership of property as there is no Governor may directs or authorise. rightful claimant of the property? Which among the above conditions need to be 1. Escheat fulfilled while entering such contract? 2. Lapse a) 1 and 2 only 3. Bona vacantia b) 2 and 3 only 4. Succession c) 1 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given d) 1,2 and 3 below: a) 1,2 and 3 only Q.79) Consider the following functions of the b) 2,3 and 4 only Government: c) 1,3 and 4 only 1. Making peace or war d) 1,2,3 and 4 2. Regulating foreign affairs 3. Acquiring foreign territory Q.77) With reference to rights and liabilities of 4. Raising the armed force the Union/State Government under Part XII of 5. Regulating essential commodities. the Constitution, consider the following In which of the above given function(s), can statements: union government be sued for torts 1. The limits of the territorial waters are committed by its officials? specified by the law made by littoral States a) 3 only of India. b) 5 only 2. The limits of the continental shelf are c) 1,2,3,4 only specified by the law made by Parliament of d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 India. 3. The limits of the Exclusive Economic Zone Q.80) Consider the following pairs with (EEZ) are specified by the executive action reference to Geo Heritage Sites and its of President of India. location in India: Which of the statements given above is/are Geo Heritage Sites Location correct? 1. Pandavula Gutta Tamil Nadu a) 1 and 2 only 2. Ramgarh Crater Rajasthan b) 2 and 3 only 3. Badlands of Telangana c) 2 only Karai Formation d) 1 and 3 only with Cretaceous fossils Q.78) In exercising its executive power, the 4. Lonar Lake Maharashtra Union or the State governments have the How many of the pairs given above are authority to enter contracts for any purpose. correctly matched? But the Constitution lays down certain a) Only one conditions which must be fulfilled before b) Only two entering such contract. In this context, c) Only three consider the following conditions: d) All four 1. Contracts must be expressed to be made by the Parliament or State legislature. 2. Contracts must be executed on behalf of the President or Governor of the State. Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020 9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]  PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211203 | Q.81) With reference to Union Public Service 3. Finance Minister causes every Commission (UPSC), consider the following recommendation made by the Finance statements: Commission of India to be laid before each 1. As per the Constitution of India, the House of Parliament. number of members of the Commission is Which of the statements given above is/are determined by the Parliament by law. correct? 2. The Union Government may by regulation a) 1 only may provide for exercise of additional b) 1 and 2 only functions by the Union Public Service c) 2 and 3 only Commission. d) 1,2 and 3 3. A member of the UPSC can be removed from office by the President only based on Q.84) With reference to National Investigation the grounds mentioned in the Constitution. Agency (NIA) of India, consider the following Which of the statements given above is/are statements: correct? 1. It was established in the backdrop of the a) 1 and 2 only 2008 Mumbai terror attacks. b) 2 and 3 only 2. NIA works under the administrative control c) 3 only of the Department of Personnel and d) 1 only Training, Government of India. 3. The powers of the Director-General are Q.82) With reference to Election Commission similar to the powers exercisable by a of India (ECI), consider the following Director-General of Police in respect of the statements: police force in a State. Statement I: Election Commission of India Which of the statements given above is/are (ECI) is a quasi-judicial body. correct? Statement II: Election Commission has the a) 1 only power to review any result on its own once the b) 2 and 3 only polls are completed and the result declared. c) 1 and 3 only Which one of the following is correct in d) 1, 2 and 3 respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Q.85) Recently, World Air Quality Report- 2023 correct and Statement-II explains was released. In this Context, consider the Statement-I following statements: b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 1. World Air Quality Report- 2023 was correct, but Statement-II does not explain published by the World Meteorological Statement-I Organization. c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is 2. According to the report, Begusarai in Bihar incorrect is the most polluted metropolitan area in d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II the World. is correct 3. India has emerged as the most polluted country in the World in the World Air Q.83) With reference to Finance Commission Quality Report- 2023. of India (FCI), consider the following How many of the statements given above are statements: correct? 1. It recommends principles governing the a) Only one grants-in-aid to States out of the b) Only two Consolidated Fund of India. c) All three 2. Constitution of India puts an obligation on d) None the Union Executive to implement the recommendations of the Finance Commission of India. Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020 9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]  PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211203 | Q.86) With reference to National Disaster 3. Since independence, the Election Management Authority (NDMA), consider the Commission of India has functioned as a following statements: three-member body. 1. The ex-office chairperson of the National Which of the above given statements are Disaster Management Authority is the correct? Minister of Home Affairs. a) 1 and 2 only 2. NDMA works under the administrative b) 2 and 3 only control of the Union Ministry of Home c) 1 and 3 only Affairs. d) 1, 2, and 3 Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only Q.89) In context of difference between the b) 2 only Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1950 c) Both 1 and 2 and the Representation of the People Act d) Neither 1 nor 2 (RPA), 1951, consider the following statements: 1. The RPA, 1950, governs the nomination of Q.87) With reference to Central Bureau of candidates for elections, while the RPA, Investigation (CBI), consider the following 1951, focuses on the registration of voters. statements: 2. The RPA, 1950 provides for the registration According to Delhi Special Police of political parties, while the RPA, 1951 deals Establishment (DSPE) Act- with the allocation of seats in the 1. CBI can take up Suo-moto investigation of Parliament and Legislative Assemblies. offences notified in Delhi Special Police 3. The RPA, 1950 provides for procedures for Establishment (DSPE) Act only in the Union delimitation of constituencies and while Territories. the RPA, 1951 deals with provisions to curb 2. Central Government can authorize CBI to corrupt practices and other electoral investigate a crime in a State but only with offences. the consent of the concerned State Which of the above statements is/are correct? Government. a) 1 only 3. Only Supreme Court of India can order CBI b) 1 and 2 only to investigate a crime anywhere in the c) 3 only country without the consent of the State. d) 1 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Q.90) With reference to Cotton production in a) 1 and 2 only India, consider the following statements: b) 2 only 1. The cotton yield in India is consistently c) 2 and 3 only increasing from the past five years. d) 1 and 3 only 2. Cotton exports has shown a increasing trend in the past five years in India. Q.88) With reference to elections in India, Which of the statements given above is/are consider the following statements: correct? 1. Part XV of the Constitution of India a) 1 only comprises provisions pertaining to b) 2 only elections. c) Both 1 and 2 2. The Chief Election Commissioner and other d) Neither 1 nor 2 Election Commissioners are appointed by the President of India. Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020 9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]  PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211203 | Q.91) Consider the following information 3. This amendment gave new power to the regarding recognized political part in India: CIC, to impose penalties for non- Recognized Party Founding compliance with its orders. Member Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Bhartiya Janata Party(BJP) Atal Bihari correct? Vajpayee a) 1 only 2. Bahujan Samaj Party(BSP) Mayawati b) 2 only 3. National People’s Party P.A Sangma c) 1 and 2 only 4. Communist party of India M.N Roy d) 1 and 3 only How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? Q.94) Consider the following statements a) Only one regarding the functions of the National Human b) Only two Rights Commission (NHRC): c) Only three 1. To independently probe any suspected d) All four human rights violations or oversight in their deterrence by a public servant., 2. To intervene in any proceeding involving an Q.92) All India Services are responsible for allegation of violation of human rights implementing central policies and maintaining pending before a court with the approval of law and order across various states and the concerned court. regions. In that context consider the following 3. To visit jails and detention places to study services: the living conditions of inmates and make 1. Indian Administrative Service (IAS) recommendations thereon. 2. Indian Police Service (IPS) 4. To provide legal aid to the victims of 3. Indian Revenue Service (IRS) human rights violations. 4. Indian Forest Service (IFoS) How many of the above given functions are 5. The Indian Railway Personnel Service (IRPS) performed by NHRC? Which of the above given services are a) Only one considered as All India Servies (AIS) according b) Only two to Article 312 of the Constitution of India? c) Only three a) 1, 2, and 3 only d) All four b) 1, 2, and 4 only c) 1, 3, and 5 only d) 2, 4, and 5 only Q.95) Which of the following best describes the term ‘Parthenogenesis’? a) A form of asexual reproduction in which an Q.93) Consider the following statements about organism regenerates lost body parts. the Central Information Commission (CIC) and b) A form of sexual reproduction in which two Information Commissioners (ICs) in light of parent organisms combine genetic material recent amendments to the Right to to produce offspring. Information (RTI) Act, 2005: c) A form of asexual reproduction in which an 1. The tenure of the Chief Information organism splits into two equal-sized Commissioner and Information offspring. Commissioners has been fixed at three d) A form of asexual reproduction in which an years. egg develops into an individual without 2. The salaries and allowances of the Chief being fertilized by a sperm. Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners are determined by the Central Government. Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020 9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]  PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211203 | Q.96) Consider the following statements Which of the statements given above is/are regarding the reservation of seats in correct? municipalities: a) 1 only 1. The seats filled by direct elections for b) 2 only Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled c) Both 1 and 2 Tribes (STs) a