100 Nursing Flashcards PDF

100 Nursing Flashcards  Q: What is the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1986? A: It requires hospitals to inform families about organ donation and follow uniform criteria for organ allocation.  Q: What does the Uniform Determination of Death Act define? A: Death is the irreve...

100 Nursing Flashcards  Q: What is the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1986? A: It requires hospitals to inform families about organ donation and follow uniform criteria for organ allocation.  Q: What does the Uniform Determination of Death Act define? A: Death is the irreversible cessation of circulatory or brain function, including the brainstem.  Q: What are two main types of organ donation? A: Donation after brain death (DBD) and donation after circulatory death (DCD).  Q: What does TOSA stand for? A: Texas Organ Sharing Alliance.  Q: How long can the heart and lungs remain viable for transplant? A: 4–6 hours after procurement.  Q: What is the nurse's role at time of potential donor death? A: Call referral line, avoid discussing donation with family, document and delay funeral home contact.  Q: What organs can be donated after death? A: Heart, lungs, liver, pancreas, kidneys, intestines, corneas.  Q: Why is temperature management important in brain-dead donors? A: To maintain organ viability.  Q: What medication is given for diabetes insipidus in brain-dead donors? A: Desmopressin (DDAVP).  Q: Why is ICP not a concern in brain death? A: Because the brain is no longer functioning.  Q: What distinguishes primary from secondary brain tumors? A: Primary tumors start in the brain; secondary tumors spread from elsewhere.  Q: How do brain tumors cause increased ICP? A: They apply pressure to surrounding brain tissues.  Q: What is the most common surgical procedure for brain tumors? A: Craniotomy.  Q: What symptom may be an early sign of a brain tumor in elderly? A: Personality changes or confusion.  Q: Which scan is most sensitive for identifying brain tumors? A: MRI.  Q: What is mannitol used for in brain tumor management? A: To decrease intracranial pressure.  Q: What are signs of increased ICP? A: Restlessness, headache, vomiting, pupil changes.  Q: What type of diet is appropriate for someone with swallowing difficulties due to a brain tumor? A: Semisoft diet.  Q: What are common meds used in brain tumor treatment? A: Steroids, anticonvulsants, antiemetics.  Q: How is seizure risk managed in brain tumor patients? A: Seizure precautions and prophylactic anticonvulsants.  Q: What is cancer survivorship? A: Care that focuses on physical, emotional, and social effects after cancer treatment.  Q: What is palliative care? A: Symptom-focused care that can be given alongside curative treatment.  Q: What are the long-term effects of cancer treatment? A: Cognitive impairment, fatigue, pain, financial issues.  Q: What is a common psychological symptom in cancer survivors? A: Fear of recurrence.  Q: What is anticipatory pain? A: Pain worsened by fear or anxiety about future pain.  Q: How should cancer pain be assessed?  A: By quality, duration, frequency, and the patient's previous experiences.  Q: What are examples of non-drug pain relief techniques? A: Guided imagery, relaxation, acupuncture.  Q: Why might pain be underreported by cancer patients? A: Fear of addiction or wanting to appear strong.  Q: How can nurses help reduce fear around opioids? A: Provide education about proper use and safety.  Q: What is a cycle often seen in chronic cancer pain? A: Pain → anxiety → more pain → fear → more pain.  Q: What is leukemia? A: Cancer of the blood-forming tissues, especially the bone marrow.  Q: What are immature white blood cells called? A: Blast cells.  Q: What are B symptoms? A: Fever, night sweats, unexplained weight loss.  Q: What leukemia is most common in children? A: Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL).  Q: What cell is diagnostic for Hodgkin’s lymphoma? A: Reed-Sternberg cell.  Q: What are typical signs of leukemia? A: Fatigue, bone pain, bruising, frequent infections.  Q: What are common leukemia treatments? A: Chemotherapy, stem cell transplant, blood products.  Q: What is the most treatable type of lymphoma? A: Hodgkin’s lymphoma.  Q: What is the most common leukemia in older adults? A: Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL).  Q: Why are leukemia patients at high risk for bleeding?  A: Due to low platelet counts.  Q: What is tumor lysis syndrome? A: A condition where cancer treatment causes rapid cell breakdown and metabolic imbalance.  Q: What cancer often causes superior vena cava syndrome? A: Right-sided lung cancer.  Q: What is a critical sign of spinal cord compression? A: New or worsening back pain.  Q: What are early signs of SIADH? A: Nausea, confusion, lethargy.  Q: What is DIC? A: Disseminated intravascular coagulation: abnormal clotting and bleeding.  Q: What electrolyte imbalance is seen in TLS? A: Hyperkalemia, hyperuricemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia.  Q: What cancers commonly cause hypercalcemia? A: Breast, lung, kidney, multiple myeloma.  Q: What is a sign of hypercalcemia? A: Constipation, confusion, muscle weakness.  Q: How is SIADH treated? A: Fluid restriction, hypertonic saline, tolvaptan.  Q: Why is SVCS dangerous? A: It can cause airway compromise and decreased cardiac output.  Q: What is the TNM system? A: Tumor size, Node involvement, Metastasis.  Q: What does G4 mean in tumor grading? A: Undifferentiated, very aggressive cancer.  Q: What are the top preventable risk factors for cancer? A: Tobacco use, poor diet, sun exposure.  Q: What is a key sign of colorectal cancer? A: Change in stool shape or consistency.  Q: What is the ABCDE rule of melanoma? A: Asymmetry, Border, Color, Diameter, Evolution.  Q: What is the most common skin cancer? A: Basal cell carcinoma.  Q: What is the most dangerous skin cancer? A: Melanoma.  Q: What are risk factors for breast cancer? A: Age >65, BRCA mutation, late childbirth, obesity.  Q: What is lobular carcinoma in situ? A: A non-invasive lesion that increases breast cancer risk.  Q: What is the most common type of lung cancer in nonsmokers? A: Adenocarcinoma.  Q: What is the purpose of adjuvant therapy? A: To improve outcomes after primary treatment like surgery.  Q: What is a common chemo side effect limiting dose? A: Neutropenia or mucositis.  Q: What does PPE protect nurses from when handling chemo? A: Toxic exposure from chemo drugs.  Q: What is brachytherapy? A: Internal radiation placed near or in the tumor.  Q: How long are body fluids considered toxic after chemo? A: 48 hours.  Q: What are signs of extravasation? A: Redness, swelling, pain at infusion site.  Q: What is the goal of radiation? A: Destroy tumor cells while sparing healthy tissue.  Q: What is teletherapy? A: External beam radiation therapy.  Q: What is nadir? A: Lowest point of WBC count after chemotherapy.  Q: Which class of chemo drugs is known for neuropathy? A: Taxanes.  Q: What is hospice care? A: End-of-life care focused on comfort, not cure.  Q: What are signs of impending death? A: Cool extremities, mottling, apnea, decreased appetite.  Q: What is a durable power of attorney for healthcare? A: Legal representative for medical decisions.  Q: What is anticipatory grief? A: Grief before an actual loss occurs.  Q: What is disenfranchised grief? A: Grief not socially supported.  Q: What is the nurse’s priority in end-of-life care? A: Symptom management and emotional support.  Q: What are common fears about death? A: Pain, loss of control, abandonment.  Q: What is therapeutic communication in grief care? A: Active listening, nonjudgmental presence, empathy.  Q: What is the role of spiritual care in dying? A: Help patients find meaning, peace, and closure.  Q: What is the Kubler-Ross model? A: Stages of grief: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance.  Q: What is hydrocephalus? A: Accumulation of CSF in brain ventricles causing increased ICP.  Q: What are signs of hydrocephalus in infants? A: Bulging fontanel, large head, irritability.  Q: What is aqueductal stenosis? A: Narrowing of cerebral aqueduct causing obstructive hydrocephalus.  Q: What is the primary treatment for hydrocephalus? A: Ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt.  Q: What is a complication of a VP shunt? A: Infection or shunt blockage.  Q: What is the difference between communicating and non-communicating hydrocephalus? A: Communicating = impaired absorption; Non-communicating = blockage of CSF flow.  Q: What is the sunset eye sign? A: Downward eye deviation seen in infants with hydrocephalus.  Q: What is an EVD? A: External ventricular device for temporary CSF drainage.  Q: What is the earliest sign of shunt malfunction? A: Irritability or change in mental status.  Q: How is hydrocephalus diagnosed? A: Ultrasound, CT, or MRI.