Biochem Q&A PDF

1\. A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus takes an insulin injection before eating dinner but then gets distracted and does not eat. Approximately 3 hours later, the patient becomes shaky, sweaty, and confused. These symptoms have occurred because of which one of the following? A. Increased gl...

1\. A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus takes an insulin injection before eating dinner but then gets distracted and does not eat. Approximately 3 hours later, the patient becomes shaky, sweaty, and confused. These symptoms have occurred because of which one of the following? A. Increased glucagon release from the pancreas B. Decreased glucagon release from the pancreas C. High blood glucose levels D. Low blood glucose levels E. Elevated ketone-body levels 2\. Concerning our patient in question 19.1, if the patient had fallen asleep before recognizing the symptoms, the patient could lose consciousness while sleeping. If that were to occur and paramedics were called to help the patient, the administration of which one of the following would help to reverse this effect? A. Insulin B. Normal saline C. Triglycerides D. Epinephrine E. Short-chain fatty acids 3\. Caffeine is a potent inhibitor of the enzyme cAMP phosphodiesterase. Which one of the following consequences would you expect to occur in the liver after drinking two cups of strong espresso coffee? A. A prolonged response to insulin B. A prolonged response to glucagon C. An inhibition of PKA D. An enhancement of glycolytic activity E. A reduced rate of glucose export to the circulation 4\. Assume that an increase in blood glucose concentration from 5 to 10 mM would result in insulin release by the pancreas. A mutation in pancreatic glucokinase can lead to MODY because of which one of the following within the pancreatic β-cell? A. A reduced ability to raise cAMP levels B. A reduced ability to raise ATP levels C. A reduced ability to stimulate gene transcription D. A reduced ability to activate glycogen degradation E. A reduced ability to raise intracellular lactate levels 5\. Which one of the following organs has the highest demand for glucose as a fuel? A. Brain B. Muscle (skeletal) C. Heart D. Liver E. Pancreas 6\. Glucagon release does not alter muscle metabolism because of which one of the following? A. Muscle cells lack adenylate cyclase. B. Muscle cells lack PKA. C. Muscle cells lack G-proteins. D. Muscle cells lack GTP. E. Muscle cells lack the glucagon receptor. 7\. A male patient with fasting hypoglycemia experiences tremors, sweating, and a rapid heartbeat. These symptoms have been caused by the release of which one of the following hormones? A. Insulin B. Epinephrine C. Cortisol D. Glucagon E. Testosterone 8\. A patient has tried many different "fad" diets to lose weight. Which one of the following meals would lead to the lowest level of circulating glucagon shortly after the meal? A. High-fat meal B. Low-protein meal C. Low-fat meal D. Low-carbohydrate meal E. High-carbohydrate meal 9\. A 45-year-old patient was admitted to the hospital in a coma caused by severe hyperglycemia and was treated with insulin and fluids. He has been placed on long- and short-acting insulin injected daily to control his blood glucose levels. What test could be ordered at this point to determine if the patient has type 1 versus type 2 diabetes? A. C-peptide level B. Insulin level C. Insulin antibodies D. Proglucagon level E. Glucagon level 10\. The patient in the previous question had very high blood glucose levels, and his urine also contained high blood glucose levels. The high blood glucose levels can lead to cerebral dysfunction owing to which one of the following? A. Dehydration B. Reduced lipid concentrations in the blood C. Increased lipid concentrations in the blood D. Hyperhydration E. High ammonia levels F. Low ammonia levels 1\. The facilitative transporter that is most responsible for transporting fructose from the blood into cells is which one of the following? A. GLUT 1 B. GLUT 2 C. GLUT 3 D. GLUT 4 E. GLUT 5 2\. A patient with alcoholism developed pancreatitis that affected his exocrine pancreatic function. He exhibited discomfort after eating a highcarbohydrate meal. The patient most likely had a reduced ability to digest which one of the following? A. Starch B. Lactose C. Fiber D. Sucrose E. Maltose 3\. A man with type 1 diabetes neglects to take his insulin injections while on a weekend vacation. Cells found within which tissue will be most greatly affected by this mistake? A. Brain B. Liver C. Muscle D. Red blood cells E. Pancreas 4\. After digestion of a piece of cake that contains flour, milk, and sucrose as its primary ingredients, the major carbohydrate products that enter the blood are which of the following? A. Glucose B. Fructose and galactose C. Galactose and glucose D. Fructose and glucose E. Glucose, galactose, and fructose 5\. A patient has a genetic defect that causes intestinal epithelial cells to produce disaccharidases of much lower activity than normal. Compared with a normal person, after eating a bowl of oatmeal and milk sweetened with table sugar, this patient will exhibit higher levels of which of the following? A. Maltose, sucrose, and lactose in the stool B. Starch in the stool C. Galactose and fructose in the blood D. Glycogen in the muscles E. Insulin in the blood 6\. The majority of calories in the US diet are derived from carbohydrates, which can contain a variety of glycosidic bonds. Which one of the following carbohydrates contains glucosyl units linked through α-1,6 glycosidic bonds? A. Amylose B. Amylopectin C. Lactose D. Sucrose E. Maltose 7\. A patient has increased her dietary fiber intake in an effort to decrease constipation. She has recently noticed abdominal cramping and bloating as well as increased flatulence. Which one of the following best explains why this is happening? A. Human enzymes in the small intestine break down the fiber and produce H2 , CO2 , and methane as byproducts. B. Bacteria in the small intestine can convert fiber to H2 , CO2 , and methane. C. Viruses in the unwashed vegetables convert fiber to H2 , CO2 , and methane. D. Bacteria in the colon can convert fiber to H2 , CO2 , and methane. E. Human enzymes in the colon can convert fiber to H2 , CO2 , and methane. 8\. A newly diagnosed patient with diabetes avoided table sugar because he knew he had "sugar diabetes," but he continued to consume fruits, fruit drinks, milk, honey, and vegetables, with the result being poor diabetic control. The diet the patient was following contained carbohydrate primarily in which form? Choose the one best answer. A. Sucrose B. Glucose C. Fructose D. Lactose E. Xylulose 9\. A 10-year-old patient had 3 days of severe diarrhea after developing a viral gastroenteritis. Now, whenever she drinks milk, she experiences nausea, abdominal pain, and flatulence. She never had this happen before after drinking milk. Which one of the following would be the best advice for this patient? A. She should never consume milk products again. B. Her children will have lactose deficiency at birth. C. Her ability to drink milk should return in a few days. D. She has developed viral gastroenteritis again and should receive antibiotics. E. The cause of the symptoms is a defect in the colon. 10\. A runner wanted to "carb load" just before a race, and she wanted to pick something to eat that has a high glycemic index. Which one of the following foods should the runner pick? A. Ice cream B. Malted milk balls C. Oatmeal cookies D. Spaghetti E. Potato chips 1\. Glucose is the body's universal fuel, which can be used by virtually all tissues. A major role of glycolysis is which one of the following? A. To synthesize glucose B. To generate energy C. To produce FAD(2H) D. To synthesize glycogen E. To use ATP to generate heat 2\. Glycolysis generates energy such that cells have a source of energy to survive. Starting with glyceraldehyde 3-P and synthesizing one molecule of pyruvate, the net yield of ATP and NADH would be which one of the following? A. 1 ATP, 1 NADH B. 1 ATP, 2 NADH C. 1 ATP, 4 NADH D. 2 ATP, 1 NADH E. 2 ATP, 2 NADH F. 2 ATP, 4 NADH G. 3 ATP, 1 NADH H. 3 ATP, 2 NADH I. 3 ATP, 4 NADH 3\. Glycogen is the body's storage form of glucose. When glycogen is degraded, glucose 1-P is formed. Glucose 1-P can then be isomerized to glucose 6-P. Starting with glucose 1-P and ending with two molecules of pyruvate, what is the net yield of glycolysis in terms of ATP and NADH formed? A. 1 ATP, 1 NADH B. 1 ATP, 2 NADH C. 1 ATP, 3 NADH D. 2 ATP, 1 NADH E. 2 ATP, 2 NADH F. 2 ATP, 3 NADH G. 3 ATP, 1 NADH H. 3 ATP, 2 NADH I. 3 ATP, 3 NADH 4\. Every human cell has the capacity to use glycolysis for energy production. Which one of the following statements correctly describes an aspect of glycolysis? A. ATP is formed by oxidative phosphorylation. B. Two molecules of ATP are used in the beginning of the pathway. C. Pyruvate kinase is the rate-limiting enzyme. D. One molecule of pyruvate and three molecules of CO2 are formed from the oxidation of one glucose molecule. E. The reactions take place in the matrix of the mitochondria. 5\. Fructose is the second most common sugar in the human adult diet and its metabolism parallels glycolysis. Which one of the following substances is found in both the fructose metabolic pathway and the glycolytic pathway? A. Glucose 1-P B. Fructose 1-P C. Fructose 6-P D. Fructose 1,6-bisP E. Glyceraldehyde 3-P 6\. A 4-week-old baby is being seen by the pediatrician because of frequent vomiting after meals and tenderness in the abdomen. Upon examination, the physician noted an enlarged liver and a hint of cataract formation in both of the child's eyes. A urine dipstick test for a reducing sugar gave a positive result. Blood glucose levels were slightly below normal. The compound that reacted with the urine dipstick test was most likely which one of the following? A. Glucose B. Fructose C. Lactose D. Maltose E. Galactose 7\. Considering the child discussed in the previous question, measurement of which single intracellular metabolite would allow a determination of the enzyme deficiency? A. Glucose 6-P B. Fructose 6-P C. Galactose 1-P D. Fructose 1-P E. UDP-glucose 8\. Metformin is a medication used in treating diabetes mellitus type 2. One of its actions is to decrease hepatic gluconeogenesis. A theoretical concern with this medication was lactic acidosis, which in practice does not occur in patients taking metformin. Which one of the following explains why lactic acidosis does not occur with the use of this medication? A. The Cori cycle overcomes the lactate buildup in the liver. B. Red blood cells use lactate as fuel. C. Renal medullary cells use lactate as fuel. D. The heart uses lactate as fuel. E. The eye uses lactate as fuel. 9\. Because glucose has several metabolic routes it might take once it arrives in the cytoplasm, which one of the following reactions would commit the glucose to following the glycolytic pathway? A. Glucose to glucose 1-P B. Glucose to glucose 6-P C. Fructose 6-P to fructose 1,6-bisP D. Fructose 1,6-bisP to dihydroxyacetone phosphate and glyceraldehyde 3- P E. Glucose 1-P to glucose 6-P 10\. The red blood cells require ATP in order to maintain ion gradients across their membrane. In the absence of these ion gradients, the red blood cells will swell and burst, bringing about a hemolytic anemia. Red cells generate their energy via which one of the following? A. Substrate-level phosphorylation B. TCA cycle C. Oxidative phosphorylation D. Electron transfer to oxygen E. Oxidation of glucose to CO2 and H2O 1\. An individual displays lactic acidemia as well as a reduced activity of αketoglutarate dehydrogenase activity. The most likely single enzymatic mutation that leads to these changes would be in which one of the following proteins? A. The E3 subunit of pyruvate dehydrogenase B. The E1 subunit of pyruvate dehydrogenase C. The E2 subunit of pyruvate dehydrogenase D. Lactate dehydrogenase E. Pyruvate carboxylase 2\. A patient diagnosed with thiamin deficiency exhibited fatigue and muscle cramps. The muscle cramps have been related to an accumulation of metabolic acids. Which one of the following metabolic acids is most likely to accumulate in a thiamin deficiency? A. Isocitric acid B. Pyruvic acid C. Succinic acid D. Malic acid E. Oxaloacetic acid 3\. Succinate dehydrogenase differs from all other enzymes in the TCA cycle in that it is the only enzyme that displays which one of the following characteristics? A. It is embedded in the inner mitochondrial membrane. B. It is inhibited by NADH. C. It contains bound FAD. D. It contains Fe--S centers. E. It is regulated by a kinase. 4\. During exercise, stimulation of the TCA cycle results principally from which one of the following? A. Allosteric activation of isocitrate dehydrogenase by increased NADH B. Allosteric activation of fumarase by increased ADP C. A rapid decrease in the concentration of four-carbon intermediates D. Product inhibition of citrate synthase E. Stimulation of the flux through several enzymes by a decreased NADH/NAD+ ratio 5\. A deficiency of which one of the following compounds would lead to an inability to produce coenzyme A? A. Niacin B. Riboflavin C. Vitamin A D. Pantothenate E. Vitamin C 6\. One of the major roles of the TCA cycle is to generate reduced cofactors for ATP production from oxidative phosphorylation. The compound donating the net eight electrons to the cofactors is which one of the following? A. Pyruvate B. Acetyl-CoA C. Lactate D. Oxaloacetate E. Phosphoenolpyruvate 7\. Atherosclerosis can narrow the coronary arteries, leading to decreased blood flow and hypoxia of cardiac cells (cardiomyocytes). This causes the patient to experience angina. Which one of the following is likely to occur in the cardiomyocytes during the hypoxic event? A. The TCA cycle in the cytosol is greatly impaired. B. Pyruvate oxidation is increased. C. Lactate cannot be used as a fuel. D. Citrate accumulates. E. Succinyl-CoA accumulates. 8\. A distance runner is training for her half marathon and as part of the training is allowing her muscles to use fatty acids as a fuel source. Fatty acids are converted to acetyl-CoA in the mitochondria, at which point the acetyl-CoA can be oxidized in the TCA cycle to generate reduced cofactors. Which one of the following correctly describes how the acetyl-CoA is metabolized in the mitochondria? A. One molecule of acetyl-CoA produces two molecules of CO2 , three molecules of NADH, one molecule of FAD(2H) and one molecule of ATP. B. All of the energy for high-energy phosphate bonds is derived from oxidative phosphorylation. C. NAD+ is the only electron acceptor in the cycle. D. Substrate-level phosphorylation generates one high-energy phosphate bond during the cycle. E. The TCA cycle requires large amounts of vitamins C and D as coenzymes. 9\. At birth, a full-term male neonate was found to be severely acidotic. His condition was found to result from an X-linked dominant mutation of the αsubunit of E1 in the PDC. Compared with a healthy neonate in the same dietary state, what would be the consequences of this mutation? A. An increase in plasma concentrations of lactate and pyruvate B. A higher ATP/ADP ratio in cells of the brain C. A decrease in the rate of glycolysis in brain cells D. An increase in the activity of the electron-transfer chain in brain cells E. An increase in plasma acetyl-CoA levels 10\. A pyruvate carboxylase deficiency will lead to lactic acidemia because of which one of the following? A. An accumulation of acetyl-CoA in the mitochondria B. Allosteric activation of lactate dehydrogenase C. An accumulation of NADH in the mitochondrial matrix D. Allosteric activation of the PDC E. An accumulation of ATP in the matrix 1\. Consider the following experiment. Carefully isolated liver mitochondria are incubated in the presence of a limiting amount of malate. Three minutes after adding the substrate, cyanide is added, and the reaction is allowed to proceed for another 7 minutes. At this point, which of the following components of the electron transfer chain will be in an oxidized state? A. Complex I B. Complex III C. Complex III D. CoU E. Cytochrome c 2\. Consider the following experiment. Carefully isolated liver mitochondria are placed in a weakly buffered solution. Malate is added as an energy source, and an increase in oxygen consumption confirms that the electron transport chain is functioning properly within these organelles. Valinomycin and potassium are then added to the mitochondrial suspension. Valinomycin is a drug that allows potassium ions to freely cross the inner mitochondrial membrane. What is the effect of valinomycin on the proton motive force that had been generated by the oxidation of malate? The proton motive force will be reduced to a value of zero B. There will be no change in the proton motive force. C. The proton motive force will be increased. D. The proton motive force will be decreased, but to a value greater than zero. E. The proton motive force will be decreased to a value less than zero. 3\. Dinitrophenol, which was once tested as a weight loss agent, acts as an uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation by which one of the following mechanisms? A. Activating the H\*-ATPase B. Activating Cou C. Blocking proton transport across the inner mitochondrial membrane D. Allowing for proton exchange across the inner mitochondrial membrane E. Enhancing oxygen transport across the inner mitochondrial membrane 4\. A 25-year-old woman presents with chronic fatigue. A series of blood tests is ordered, and the results suggest that her red blood cell count is low because of iron-deficiency anemia. Such a deficiency would lead to fatigue because of which one of the following? A. Her decrease in Fe-S centers is impairing the transfer of electrons in the electron transport chain. B. She is not producing enough H,O in the electron transport chain, leading to dehydration, which has resulted in fatigue. C. Iron forms a chelate with NADH and FAD(2H) that is necessary for them to donate their electrons to the electron transport chain. D. Iron acts as a cofactor for a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase in the TCA cycle, a reaction required for the flow of electrons through the electron transport chain. E. Iron accompanies the protons that are pumped from the mitochondrial matrix to the cytosolic side of the inner mitochondrial membrane. Without iron, the proton gradient cannot be maintained to produce a0ealate A 5\. Which one of the following would be expected for a patient with an OXPHOS disease? A. A high ATP:ADP ratio in the mitochondria B. A high NADH:NAD+ ratio in the mitochondria C. A deletion on the X chromosome D. A high activity of complex II of the electron transport chain E. A defect in the integrity of the inner mitochondrial membrane 6\. A 5-year-old boy was eating paint chips from the windowsill in his 125-year-old home and developed an anemia. Blood work indicated high levels of lead, which interfere with heme synthesis. Reduced heme synthesis would have little effect on the function of which one of the following proteins or complexes? A. Myoglobin B. Hemoglobin C. Complex I D. Complex III E. Complex IV 7\. Rotenone, an inhibitor of NADH dehydrogenase, was originally used for fishing. When it was sprinkled on a lake, fish would absorb it through their gills and die. Until recently, it was used in the United States as an organic pesticide and was recommended for tomato plants. It was considered nontoxic to mammals and birds, neither of which can readily absorb it. What effect would rotenone have on ATP production by heart mitochondria it it could he ahsorher A. There would be no reduction in ATP production. B. There would be a 95% reduction in ATP production. C. There would be a 10% reduction in ATP production. D. There would be a 50% reduction in ATP production. E. There would be a 50% Increase in All production. 8\. In order for cells to function properly, energy is required, and for most cells, the energy is primarily derived from the high-energy phosphate bonds of ATP, which is produced through oxidative phosphorylation. Which one of the following is a key comnonent of oxidative phosnhorv ation\' A. Utilizing NADH and FAD(H2) to accept electrons as substrates are oxidized. B. Creating a permeable inner mitochondrial membrane to allow mitochondrial ATP to enter the cytoplasm as it is made. C. An ATP synthase to synthesize ATP D. An ATP synthetase to synthesize ATP E. A source of electrons, which is usually oxygen in most tissues 9\. Carefully isolated intact mitochondria were incubated with a high salt solution, which is capable of disrupting noncovalent interactions between molecules at the membrane surface. After washing the mitochondria, pyruvate and oxygen were added to initiate electron flow. Oxygen consumption was minimal under these conditions due to the loss of which one of the following components from the electron transfer chain? A. Complex I B. CoQ C. Complex III D. CYTOCHROME C E. Complex IV 10\. UCPs allow oxidation to be uncoupled from phosphorylation. Assume that a drug company has developed a reagent that can activate several UCPs with the goal being the development of a weight-loss drug. A potential side effect of this drug could be which one of the following? A. Decreased oxidation of acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl CoA) B. Decreased glycolytic rate C. Increase in body temperature D. Increased ATP production by the ATP synthase E. Inhibition of the electron transport chain Which one of the following vitamins or enzymes is unable to protect against free-radical damage? A. β-Carotene B. Glutathione peroxidase C. Superoxide dismutase D. Vitamin B6 E. Vitamin C F. Vitamin E 2\. Superoxide dismutase is one of the body's primary defense mechanisms against oxidative stress. The enzyme catalyzes which one of the following reactions? A. O2− + e− + 2H+ → H2O2 B. 2O2− + 2H+ → H2O2 + O2 C. O2− + HO + H+ → CO2 + H2O D. H2O2 + O2 → 4H2O E. O2− + H2O2 + H+ → 2H2O + O2 3\. The mechanism of vitamin E as an antioxidant is best described by which one of the following? A. Vitamin E binds to free radicals and sequesters them from the contents of the cell. B. Vitamin E participates in the oxidation of the radicals. C. Vitamin E participates in the reduction of the radicals. D. Vitamin E forms a covalent bond with the radicals, thereby stabilizing the radical state. E. Vitamin E inhibits enzymes that produce free radicals. 4\. An accumulation of hydrogen peroxide in a cellular compartment can be converted to dangerous radical forms in the presence of which metal? A. Selenium B. Iron C. Manganese D. Magnesium E. Molybdenum 5\. The level of oxidative damage to mitochondrial DNA is 10 times greater than that to nuclear DNA. This could be due, in part, to which of the following? A. SOD is present in the mitochondria. B. The nucleus lacks glutathione. C. The nuclear membrane presents a barrier to ROS. D. The mitochondrial membrane is permeable to ROS. E. Mitochondrial DNA lacks histones. 6\. A patient with chronic granulomatous disease, who is complaining of fever, dermatitis, and diarrhea, is seen in your clinic. The genetic form of this disease results in the inability to generate, primarily, which one of the following? A. Superoxide B. Hydrogen peroxide C. Reduced glutathione D. Hypochlorous acid E. Nitric oxide 7\. You diagnose a patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and discover that his father also had the disease. The patient most likely had a mutation that leads to the inability to detoxify which one of the following? A. Oxidized glutathione B. Hydrogen peroxide C. Nitric oxide D. Hydroxy radical E. Superoxide 8\. Nitroglycerin and other medications used for treating erectile dysfunction work by forming nitric oxide (NO), a potent vasodilator (in low concentrations). In high concentrations, NO can produce RNOS (reactive nitrogen--oxygen species) that are involved in which one of the following diseases? A. Ischemic heart disease B. Infertility C. Viral infections D. Fungal infections E. Rheumatoid arthritis 9\. An individual taking xenobiotics, such as alcohol, medications, and other foreign chemicals, can increase their risk for free-radical injury through which one of the following mechanisms? A. Reaction of O2 with coenzyme Q B. Induction of oxidases in peroxisomes C. Induction of enzymes containing cytochrome P450 D. Production of ionizing radiation E. Production of hydrogen peroxide in the manufacturing process, such that hydrogen peroxide is present in the ingested materials. 10\. A balanced diet contains antioxidant molecules that help to protect cells from free-radical injury. Which one of the following foods would contain high levels of an antioxidant? A. Citrus fruits B. Enriched bread C. Dairy products 1\. 2. 3. REVIEW QUESTIONS---CHAPTER 26 Under conditions of glucagon release, the degradation of liver glycogen normally produces which one of the following? A. More glucose than glucose 1-phosphate B. More glucose 1-phosphate than glucose C. Equal amounts of glucose and glucose 1-phosphate D. Neither glucose nor glucose 1-phosphate E. Only glucose 1-phosphate 2.A patient has large deposits of liver glycogen, which, after an overnight fast, had shorter-than-normal branches. This abnormality could be caused by a defective form of which one of the following proteins or activities? A. Glycogen phosphorylase B. Glucagon receptor C. Glycogenin D. Amylo-1,6-glucosidase E. Amylo-4,6-transferase An adolescent patient with a deficiency of muscle phosphorylase was examined while exercising her forearm by squeezing a rubber ball. Compared with a normal person performing the same exercise, this patient would exhibit which one of the following? A. Exercise for a longer time without fatigue B. Have increased glucose levels in blood drawn from her forearm C. Have decreased lactate levels in blood drawn from her forearm D. Have lower levels of glycogen in biopsy specimens from her forearm muscle E. Hyperglycemia In a glucose tolerance test, an individual in the basal metabolic state ingests a large amount of glucose. If the individual is normal, this ingestion should result in which one of the following? A. An enhanced glycogen synthase activity in the liver B. An increased ratio of glycogen phosphorylase a to glycogen phosphorylase b in the liver C. An increased rate of lactate formation by red blood cells D. An inhibition of protein phosphatase I activity in the liver E. An increase of cAMP levels in the liver Consider a type 1 diabetic who has neglected to take insulin for the past 72 hours and has not eaten much as well. Which one of the following best describes the activity level of hepatic enzymes involved in glycogen metabolism under these conditions? F Assume that an individual carries a mutation in muscle protein kinase A such that the protein is refractory to high levels of cAMP. Glycogen degradation in the muscle would occur, then, under which one of the following conditions? A. High levels of intracellular calcium B. High levels of intracellular glucose C. High levels of intracellular glucose 6-phosphate D. High levels of intracellular glucose 1-phosphate E. High levels of intracellular magnesium Without a steady supply of glucose to the bloodstream, a patient would become hypoglycemic, and if blood glucose levels get low enough, experience seizures or even a coma. Which one of the following is necessary for the maintenance of normal blood glucose? A. Muscle glucose 6-phosphatase B. Liver glucose 6-phosphatase C. Glycogen in the heart D. Glycogen in the brain E. Glycogen in the muscle Glycogen is the storage form of glucose, and its synthesis and degradation is carefully regulated. Which one statement below correctly describes glycogen synthesis and/or degradation? A. UDP-glucose is produced in both the synthesis and degradation of glycogen B. Synthesis requires the formation of α-1,4 branches every 8 to 10 residues C. Energy, in the form of ATP, is used to produce UDP-glucose D. Glycogen is both formed from and degrades to glucose 1-phosphate E. The synthesis and degradation of glycogen use the same enzymes, so are reversible processes Mutations in various enzymes can lead to the glycogen storage diseases. Which one statement is true of the glycogen storage diseases? A. All except type O are fatal in infancy or childhood B. All except type O involve the liver C. All except type O produce hepatomegaly D. All except type O produce hypoglycemia E. All except type O produce increased glycogen deposits 10\. A 7.5-pound baby was delivered at 40 weeks gestation by normal spontaneous vaginal delivery. At one hour, the baby's blood glucose level was determined to be 50 mg/dL and at two hours postbirth was 80 mg/dL. These glucose numbers indicate which process listed below? A. Maternal malnutrition B. Glycogen storage disease C. Normal physiological change D. Insulin was given to the baby E. IV Dextrose 50 was given to the baby