1-9-ANA-2-PRAC-QUESTIONS PDF Practice Questions

A. Transmit spinal nerves and blood vessels Vertebral Column (Q1–10) B. Protect the spinal cord What is the total number of vertebrae in the vertebral column? C. Support the vert...

A. Transmit spinal nerves and blood vessels Vertebral Column (Q1–10) B. Protect the spinal cord What is the total number of vertebrae in the vertebral column? C. Support the vertebral arches A. 31 D. Connect adjacent vertebrae Answer: A B. 33 Which vertebra is also called the "atlas"? C. 35 D. 30 A. C1 Answer: B B. C2 How many intervertebral discs are present in the vertebral column? C. C7 D. T1 A. 23 Answer: A B. 25 Which vertebra is associated with the odontoid process? C. 21 A. C1 D. 22 Answer: A B. C2 What type of vertebrae are kidney-shaped and lack C. C7 costal facets? D. T12 Answer: B A. Cervical What distinguishes the vertebra prominens (C7)? B. Thoracic C. Lumbar A. A long spinous process that is not bifid D. Sacral B. No spinous process Answer: C C. Presence of costal facets Which region of the vertebral column contains the largest vertebral foramen? D. Ring-shaped structure Answer: A A. Cervical What is the function of the vertebral column in weight transmission? B. Thoracic C. Lumbar A. Distribute weight to the upper limbs D. Sacral B. Transmit weight to the lower limbs Answer: A C. Protect spinal nerves What is the function of the intervertebral foramen?  D. Facilitate posture A. Rotation and lateral flexion Answer: B B. Circumduction What part of the vertebral column forms the "tailbone"? C. Flexion only A. Sacrum D. Gliding movements Answer: D B. Coccyx Which ligament connects adjacent laminae? C. Lumbar vertebrae A. Supraspinous ligament D. Thoracic vertebrae Answer: B B. Interspinous ligament C. Ligamentum flavum Joints and Ligaments (Q11–20) D. Intertransverse ligament Answer: C What is the alternate name for the atlanto-occipital joint? Which ligament is thickened in the cervical region to A. Yes joint form the ligamentum nuchae? B. No joint A. Supraspinous ligament C. Pivot joint B. Anterior longitudinal ligament D. Saddle joint C. Posterior longitudinal ligament Answer: A D. Ligamentum flavum Which joint is responsible for head rotation? Answer: A A. Atlanto-occipital joint What structure binds the odontoid process to the inner arch of the atlas? B. Atlanto-axial joint A. Cruciate ligament C. Zygapophyseal joint B. Alar ligament D. Intervertebral joint Answer: B C. Apical ligament Which ligament is a continuation of the anterior D. Posterior longitudinal ligament longitudinal ligament? Answer: A A. Apical ligament Which ligament prevents hyperextension of the vertebral column? B. Anterior atlanto-occipital membrane A. Posterior longitudinal ligament C. Ligamentum flavum B. Anterior longitudinal ligament D. Cruciate ligament Answer: B C. Ligamentum flavum What type of movement is allowed by the zygapophyseal D. Interspinous ligament joint? Answer: B What is the role of the nucleus pulposus in the C. Epidural space intervertebral disc? D. Dura mater A. Shock absorption Answer: D B. Facilitating nerve transmission Which space contains cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? C. Connecting adjacent vertebrae A. Subdural space D. Limiting spinal rotation B. Epidural space Answer: A C. Subarachnoid space What movement is NOT allowed at the atlanto-occipital joint? D. Vertebral canal Answer: C A. Flexion What is the cauda equina? B. Extension A. Nerve roots below the termination of the spinal cord C. Lateral flexion B. Part of the nucleus pulposus D. Rotation Answer: D C. A ligament connecting vertebrae D. A type of spinal curvature Answer: A Spinal Cord and Nerve Supply (Q21–30) What arteries supply blood to the spinal cord? Where does the spinal cord terminate in adults? A. Radicular arteries A. L1-L2 B. Vertebral arteries B. L3-L4 C. Posterior spinal arteries C. T12 D. All of the above D. L5 Answer: D Answer: A What is the innervation source for the deep back How many pairs of spinal nerves are there? muscles? A. 29 A. Anterior rami of spinal nerves B. 31 B. Posterior rami of spinal nerves C. 33 C. Cranial nerves D. 30 D. Intercostal nerves Answer: B Answer: B What structure surrounds the spinal cord and provides What region of the spine is most prone to herniated protection? discs? A. Vertebral foramen A. Cervical B. Pia mater B. Thoracic C. Lumbar A. Abdominal oblique muscles D. Sacral B. Postvertebral muscles Answer: C C. Psoas muscles What structure anchors the spinal cord to the coccyx? D. Sternocleidomastoid muscles A. Ligamentum flavum Answer: B B. Filum terminale What is the primary movement allowed in the thoracic region of the spine? C. Cauda equina A. Flexion D. Cruciate ligament Answer: B B. Rotation Which membrane lies directly on the spinal cord? C. Lateral flexion A. Dura mater D. Extension Answer: B B. Arachnoid mater Which muscles produce cervical flexion? C. Pia mater A. Longus cervicis, scalenus anterior, and D. Ligamentum denticulatum sternocleidomastoid Answer: C B. Splenius and trapezius C. Postvertebral muscles Muscles and Movements of the Back (Q31–40) D. Rectus abdominis and psoas Which back muscles are responsible for extending the Answer: A trunk and neck bilaterally? Which ligament supports the vertebral column A. Superficial muscles Muscles of the Back (Q1–15) B. Deep back muscles Which muscles are part of the superficial group of back C. Intermediate back muscles muscles? D. Scapular muscles A. Splenius muscles Answer: B B. Erector spinae Which triangle is used for auscultation of breath sounds? C. Muscles connected to the shoulder girdle A. Lumbar triangle D. Transversospinalis group B. Inguinal triangle Answer: C C. Auscultatory triangle What is the primary function of the deep back muscles? D. Vertebral triangle A. Movement of the thoracic cage Answer: C B. Extension of the trunk and neck Which muscles are primarily involved in lumbar extension? C. Flexion of the vertebral column  D. Elevation of the scapula B. Hearing breath sounds Answer: B C. Stabilizing the shoulder girdle Which group of muscles is responsible for stabilizing the vertebral column during movement? D. Spinal rotation Answer: B A. Erector spinae Which deep muscles assist with lateral flexion in the B. Intermediate back muscles lumbar region? C. Transversospinalis A. Rectus abdominis and psoas D. Splenius muscles B. Quadratus lumborum and oblique muscles Answer: C C. Longissimus and iliocostalis The lumbar triangle is a site where pus may emerge from the abdominal wall. What are its boundaries? D. Trapezius and sternocleidomastoid Answer: B A. Latissimus dorsi, trapezius, and scapula Which muscle group includes the interspinales and B. Latissimus dorsi, external oblique, and iliac intertransversarii? crest A. Superficial muscles C. Erector spinae, sacrum, and coccyx B. Intermediate back muscles D. Psoas major, quadratus lumborum, and iliac crest C. Deepest muscles of the back Answer: B D. Erector spinae Which muscles are involved in rotation of the thoracic Answer: C region? What maintains the normal curves of the vertebral A. Splenius and sternocleidomastoid column during standing? B. Semispinalis and rotatores A. Ligaments of the spine C. Quadratus lumborum and erector spinae B. Postural tone of deep back muscles D. Longus cervicis and trapezius C. Intervertebral discs Answer: B D. Shoulder girdle muscles What is the primary function of the erector spinae Answer: B muscles? Which muscles contribute to cervical extension? A. Flexion of the vertebral column A. Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius B. Extension and lateral flexion of the trunk B. Longus cervicis and anterior scalene C. Rotation of the vertebral column C. Postvertebral muscles D. Depression of the ribs Answer: B D. Erector spinae and splenius capitis Answer: C The auscultatory triangle is significant for: What movement is extensive in both the cervical and A. Flexion of the cervical region lumbar regions? A. Lateral flexion and rotation C. Abnormal curvature of the spine B. Flexion and extension D. Fusion of adjacent vertebrae Answer: B C. Circumduction and extension Where are herniated discs most commonly located? D. Lateral flexion and extension Answer: B A. Cervical region Which condition involves excessive curvature of the B. Lumbar region lumbar spine? C. Thoracic region A. Scoliosis D. Sacral region B. Kyphosis Answer: B C. Lordosis Which spinal condition is characterized by lateral deviation of the vertebral column? D. Spinal stenosis Answer: C A. Lordosis What muscle group is located dorsal to the vertebral B. Kyphosis column? C. Scoliosis A. Intermediate back muscles D. Spinal stenosis B. Superficial muscles Answer: C C. Deep back muscles What causes a Jefferson’s fracture? D. Pectoral muscles A. Trauma to the atlas (C1) Answer: C B. Injury to the dens of the axis (C2) Which muscle produces cervical rotation when contracted unilaterally? C. Compression fracture of the thoracic spine A. Splenius D. Herniation of intervertebral discs Answer: A B. Sternocleidomastoid Which ligament is commonly implicated in spinal C. Scalenus medius hyperextension injuries? D. Trapezius A. Posterior longitudinal ligament Answer: B B. Anterior longitudinal ligament C. Ligamentum flavum Clinical Manifestations (Q16–30) D. Cruciate ligament What is a herniated disc? Answer: B A. A fracture of the vertebral body What is spinal nerve impingement? B. Displacement of the nucleus pulposus through the A. Compression of spinal nerves by surrounding tissues anulus fibrosus B. Dislocation of vertebrae C. Stretching of spinal ligaments B. Cruciate ligament D. Fracture of the spinal cord C. Alar ligament Answer: A D. Posterior longitudinal ligament In what region of the spine does nerve compression due Answer: B to herniated discs most often occur? What happens to spinal curvature during late A. Cervical pregnancy? B. Lumbar (L4-L5 and L5-S1) A. Decrease in thoracic concavity C. Thoracic B. Increase in lumbar concavity D. Sacral C. Loss of cervical curvature Answer: B D. Fusion of sacral vertebrae What is the clinical relevance of the lumbar triangle? Answer: B A. It is the primary site for herniated disc treatment. What are the common causes of disc herniation? B. It is a site where abdominal wall pus may emerge. A. Genetic mutations and infection C. It is used to assess vertebral fractures. B. Trauma and degenerative changes in the anulus fibrosus D. It aids in lumbar extension. Answer: B C. Poor blood supply to the spinal cord What are the symptoms of nerve compression caused D. Malformation of the vertebrae during development by herniation in the lumbar region? Answer: B A. Pain and numbness in the lower extremities What is the clinical significance of the ligamentum flavum? B. Muscle spasms in the upper extremities A. It maintains spinal stability during flexion. C. Restricted head rotation B. It prevents spinal nerve compression. D. Loss of thoracic mobility Answer: A C. It connects spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae. What is the primary function of cerebrospinal fluid? D. It is commonly injured during lumbar trauma. Answer: A A. Anchor the spinal cord to the vertebral column What is the common cause of hangman’s fracture? B. Lubricate intervertebral joints A. Sudden hyperextension injury affecting the axis (C2) C. Protect and nourish the spinal cord B. Compression fracture in the lumbar spine D. Facilitate spinal nerve impulses Answer: C C. Lateral flexion injury in the cervical spine Which ligament is involved in stabilizing the odontoid D. Overextension of the thoracic region process? Answer: A A. Apical ligament THORACIC 9. What is the nerve supply of the diaphragm? ○ A. Intercostal nerves 1. What forms the anterior boundary of the thoracic ○ B. Phrenic nerves (C3–C5) cage? ○ C. Subcostal nerve ○ A. Ribs and intercostal spaces ○ D. Brachial plexus ○ B. Thoracic vertebrae 10. Which arteries supply the anterior thoracic wall? ○ C. Sternum and costal cartilages A. Posterior intercostal arteries ○ D. Diaphragm B. Internal thoracic artery and its branches 2. Which ribs are classified as floating ribs? C. Subclavian artery ○ A. Ribs 1–7 D. Thoracoacromial artery ○ B. Ribs 8–10 11. What movement is primarily associated with the ○ C. Ribs 11 and 12 external intercostal muscles? ○ D. Ribs 2 and 3 A. Rib elevation during inspiration 3. What type of joint is the costochondral joint? B. Rib depression during expiration ○ A. Synovial C. Stabilizing the intercostal spaces ○ B. Fibrous D. None of the above ○ C. Cartilaginous 12. What forms the suprapleural membrane? ○ D. Syndesmosis A. Endothoracic fascia 4. What is the significance of the costal groove on B. Pericardium a typical rib? C. Costal cartilage ○ A. It provides attachment for intercostal D. Visceral pleura muscles. 13. Which nerve runs between the internal and ○ B. It houses the intercostal nerve, artery, innermost intercostal muscles? and vein (VAN). A. Intercostal nerve ○ C. It allows for rib articulation with the B. Subcostal nerve vertebrae. C. Phrenic nerve ○ D. It serves as an anchor for the D. Vagus nerve diaphragm. 14. Where does the diaphragm reach during full 5. Which rib has close anatomical relations with the inspiration? brachial plexus and subclavian artery? A. Lower border of the 4th rib ○ A. First rib B. Upper border of the 5th rib ○ B. Second rib C. Lower border of the 5th rib ○ C. Eleventh rib D. Level of the 6th rib ○ D. Twelfth rib 15. What type of joint connects the ribs to the 6. What is the clinical importance of the sternal sternum for ribs 2–7? angle (Angle of Louis)? A. Synovial joint ○ A. It is the landmark for the second rib. B. Cartilaginous joint ○ B. It indicates the bifurcation of the C. Fibrous joint trachea. D. Plane joint ○ C. It aligns with the fourth thoracic 16. Which muscle depresses the ribs during vertebra. expiration? ○ D. All of the above. A. Serratus posterior superior 7. Which muscles form the deepest layer of the B. Serratus posterior inferior intercostal muscles? C. Levatores costarum ○ A. External intercostal muscles D. Scaleni muscles ○ B. Internal intercostal muscles 17. What causes paradoxical movement of the ○ C. Innermost intercostal muscles diaphragm? ○ D. Levatores costarum A. Phrenic nerve injury 8. Which part of the sternum articulates with the B. Intercostal nerve injury clavicles? C. Subclavian artery obstruction ○ A. Manubrium D. Pneumothorax ○ B. Body 18. Which structure is not transmitted through the ○ C. Xiphoid process esophageal opening of the diaphragm? ○ D. None of the above A. Vagus nerves  B. Esophageal branches of left gastric vessels Anatomy of the Thoracic Wall (Q1–15) C. Azygos vein D. Lymphatics from the esophagus 1. Which rib articulates directly with the manubrium 19. What does the medial arcuate ligament of the and no other ribs? diaphragm connect? ○ A. First rib A. First rib to the transverse process of T1 ○ B. Second rib B. Body of L2 to the transverse process of L1 ○ C. Seventh rib C. 7th rib to the sternum ○ D. Eleventh rib D. 12th rib to the xiphoid process 2. What is the role of the endothoracic fascia? 20. What is the clinical implication of a cervical rib? ○ A. Attaches the diaphragm to the A. Compression of the brachial plexus sternum B. Subclavian artery compression ○ B. Separates the parietal pleura from C. Thoracic outlet syndrome the thoracic wall D. All of the above ○ C. Provides an anchor for intercostal muscles ○ D. Prevents displacement of thoracic organs Clinical Cases (Q26–50) 3. Which ribs contribute to the costal margin? ○ A. Ribs 1–6 21. A patient presents with severe pain along the ○ B. Ribs 7–10 ribs, worsened by coughing. Imaging reveals a ○ C. Ribs 11 and 12 fractured rib with displacement. What is the most ○ D. All ribs likely complication? 4. What structure lies immediately inferior to the A. Pneumothorax first rib? B. Hemothorax ○ A. Subclavian artery C. Intercostal nerve injury ○ B. Thoracic duct D. All of the above ○ C. Brachial plexus 22. A penetrating injury to the thoracic cavity results ○ D. Both A and C in difficulty breathing. What layer is breached if 5. Which part of the rib articulates with the air enters the pleural cavity? transverse process of the vertebra? A. Endothoracic fascia ○ A. Head B. Visceral pleura ○ B. Neck C. Parietal pleura ○ C. Tubercle D. Diaphragm ○ D. Shaft 23. An elderly patient experiences pain and 6. How do the lower intercostal nerves differ from fractures at the sternum after a fall. Which part the upper intercostal nerves? of the sternum is most likely affected? ○ A. They exit the thoracic cavity to A. Xiphoid process innervate the abdominal wall. B. Body of sternum ○ B. They supply the diaphragm directly. C. Manubrium ○ C. They have a larger VAN D. Angle of Louis configuration. 24. A patient with advanced scoliosis reports ○ D. They lack motor fibers. difficulty breathing. What is the primary 7. What anatomical landmark is used to perform a mechanism behind this? thoracocentesis? A. Compression of the diaphragm ○ A. Just above the rib B. Reduced thoracic cavity volume ○ B. Just below the rib C. Injury to intercostal muscles ○ C. Middle of the intercostal space D. Altered rib movement ○ D. Junction of costal cartilage and rib 25. In thoracic outlet syndrome, what symptoms 8. Which ligament stabilizes the costovertebral arise due to subclavian artery compression? joint? A. Arm ischemia ○ A. Radiate ligament B. Numbness and tingling ○ B. Ligamentum flavum C. Weak radial pulse ○ C. Cruciate ligament D. All of the above ○ D. Supraspinous ligament  9. What is the action of the serratus posterior 16. A patient presents with pain and tingling along superior muscle? the chest wall after a herpes zoster outbreak. ○ A. Elevates the ribs during inspiration Which structure is most likely affected? ○ B. Depresses the ribs during expiration ○ A. Phrenic nerve ○ C. Stabilizes the thoracic cavity ○ B. Intercostal nerve ○ D. Moves the scapula laterally ○ C. Subcostal nerve 10. The caval opening of the diaphragm transmits ○ D. Brachial plexus the: 17. After blunt trauma to the chest, a patient ○ A. Esophagus and vagus nerves develops a flail chest. What is the primary ○ B. Aorta and azygos vein mechanism? ○ C. Inferior vena cava and right phrenic ○ A. Disrupted rib continuity causing nerve paradoxical movement ○ D. Thoracic duct and lymph vessels ○ B. Pneumothorax leading to respiratory 11. Where does the internal thoracic artery distress terminate? ○ C. Hemothorax impairing lung ○ A. At the subclavian vein expansion ○ B. In the musculophrenic and superior ○ D. Fractured clavicle compromising epigastric arteries diaphragm action ○ C. In the descending thoracic aorta 18. A penetrating injury to the left 5th intercostal ○ D. At the azygos system space at the midclavicular line is most likely to 12. Which thoracic vertebrae have demifacets for affect the: articulation with ribs? ○ A. Heart ○ A. T1–T2 only ○ B. Diaphragm ○ B. T1–T4 only ○ C. Left lung ○ C. T2–T9 ○ D. Thoracic duct ○ D. T10–T12 19. A patient with thoracic outlet syndrome has 13. What is the main function of the central tendon difficulty performing overhead tasks. What is the of the diaphragm? likely cause? ○ A. Facilitates rib elevation during ○ A. Compression of the brachial plexus inspiration ○ B. Subclavian vein thrombosis ○ B. Provides attachment for the ○ C. Costoclavicular ligament strain pericardium ○ D. Rib fracture ○ C. Acts as a sphincter for the 20. In a case of pneumothorax, which pleura is esophagus breached? ○ D. Prevents downward displacement of ○ A. Visceral pleura the liver ○ B. Parietal pleura 14. Which structure passes posterior to the medial ○ C. Both visceral and parietal pleura arcuate ligament? ○ D. Endothoracic fascia ○ A. Thoracic duct 21. A fractured 12th rib may injure which underlying ○ B. Sympathetic trunks structure? ○ C. Superior epigastric vessels ○ A. Spleen ○ D. Inferior vena cava ○ B. Liver 15. The intercostal muscles are active during: ○ C. Kidney ○ A. Forced expiration only ○ D. Stomach ○ B. Forced inspiration and expiration 22. A patient with severe dyspnea has an elevated ○ C. Quiet inspiration only right hemidiaphragm. What is the most likely ○ D. Maintaining thoracic pressure at rest cause? ○ A. Right phrenic nerve paralysis ○ B. Left phrenic nerve compression ○ C. Pneumothorax on the left side Clinical Cases and Manifestations ○ D. Herniation of abdominal contents 23. In a patient with COPD, why might accessory (Q16–25) muscles of respiration become hypertrophied?  ○ A. To compensate for weakened 1. A diaphragm movement 2. B ○ B. Due to chronic increased work of 3. B breathing 4. D ○ C. Because of rib fractures 5. C ○ D. To aid in swallowing difficulties 6. A 24. What is the primary concern in a sternum 7. A fracture due to chest trauma? 8. A ○ A. Injury to the aorta 9. A ○ B. Compression of the trachea 10. C ○ C. Disruption of the mediastinal contents 11. B ○ D. All of the above 12. C 25. A patient undergoing thoracentesis complains of 13. B numbness along the chest wall. Which structure 14. B might be inadvertently injured? 15. B ○ A. Subclavian artery ○ B. Intercostal nerve Clinical Cases and Manifestations ○ C. Phrenic nerve 16. B ○ D. Lymphatic vessels 17. A 18. A 19. A 20. A 21. C Answers 22. A 23. B Anatomy of the Thoracic Wall 24. D 25. B 1. C 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. C 8. A 9. B 10. B 11. A 12. A 13. A 14. C 15. A 16. B 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. D Clinical Cases 21. D 22. C 23. B 24. B 25. D  8. What is the significance of the pulmonary ligament? THORACIC CAVITY ○ A. Stabilizes the heart in the thoracic cavity ○ B. Facilitates the movement of Anatomy and Physiology (Q1–30) pulmonary vessels during respiration ○ C. Anchors the diaphragm to the lungs 1. What forms the lateral boundary of the ○ D. Provides a passage for the mediastinum? esophagus ○ A. Sternum 9. The cardiac notch is located on: ○ B. Pleurae ○ A. The right lung ○ C. Thoracic vertebrae ○ B. The left lung ○ D. Diaphragm ○ C. Both lungs 2. Which structure is located in the superior ○ D. The mediastinum mediastinum? 10. Bronchopulmonary segments are functionally ○ A. Heart independent because they have their own: ○ B. Thymus ○ A. Arterial supply and lymphatic ○ C. Esophagus drainage ○ D. Pulmonary trunk ○ B. Venous drainage only 3. What is the function of the pleural fluid? ○ C. Cartilaginous support ○ A. Provides nutrition to the lungs ○ D. Connection to the pulmonary trunk ○ B. Permits frictionless movement 11. Which layer of the pericardium restricts between pleural layers excessive movements of the heart? ○ C. Supplies oxygen to the pleura ○ A. Visceral pericardium ○ D. Creates negative pressure in the ○ B. Fibrous pericardium lungs ○ C. Serous pericardium 4. The costodiaphragmatic recess is a potential ○ D. Epicardium space located: 12. What is the purpose of the chordae tendineae? ○ A. Between the ribs and lungs ○ A. Prevent valve prolapse during ○ B. Between the diaphragm and the base ventricular contraction of the lung ○ B. Anchor the heart to the diaphragm ○ C. In the superior mediastinum ○ C. Facilitate blood flow between ○ D. Around the heart chambers 5. Which nerves supply the parietal pleura? ○ D. Create turbulence to assist valve ○ A. Intercostal and phrenic nerves closure ○ B. Vagus nerve 13. Which structure is NOT found in the posterior ○ C. Sympathetic trunk mediastinum? ○ D. Recurrent laryngeal nerve ○ A. Esophagus 6. The trachea bifurcates into the primary bronchi ○ B. Descending thoracic aorta at the level of: ○ C. Trachea ○ A. T4 vertebra ○ D. Sympathetic trunk ○ B. T6 vertebra 14. The pulmonary veins carry: ○ C. T2 vertebra ○ A. Deoxygenated blood to the lungs ○ D. T12 vertebra ○ B. Oxygenated blood from the lungs to 7. Why is the right principal bronchus more prone the heart to foreign body aspiration? ○ C. Deoxygenated blood from the heart ○ A. It is narrower, shorter, and more to the lungs vertical than the left ○ D. Oxygenated blood to the systemic ○ B. It is wider, shorter, and more vertical circulation than the left 15. The heart’s apex is formed by: ○ C. It is narrower, longer, and more ○ A. Right atrium horizontal than the left ○ B. Left atrium ○ D. It is wider, longer, and more ○ C. Right ventricle horizontal than the left ○ D. Left ventricle  16. The interventricular septum is most associated 34. During inspiration, a pneumothorax occurs. with which artery? What happens to the affected lung? ○ A. Right coronary artery ○ A. Lung expands ○ B. Left coronary artery ○ B. Lung collapses ○ C. Circumflex artery ○ C. Lung inflates partially ○ D. Anterior interventricular artery ○ D. Lung remains static 17. Which structure passes through the esophageal 35. An esophageal tumor compressing the trachea hiatus of the diaphragm? would most likely present with: ○ A. Aorta ○ A. Cough and wheezing ○ B. Inferior vena cava ○ B. Difficulty swallowing ○ C. Esophagus and vagus nerves ○ C. Hoarseness ○ D. Thoracic duct ○ D. Chest pain 18. The SA node is located: 36. A patient with a dissecting aortic aneurysm ○ A. At the apex of the heart develops back pain radiating between the ○ B. In the interventricular septum scapulae. Which mediastinal structure is most ○ C. At the superior part of the right atrium involved? ○ D. In the left atrium ○ A. Superior vena cava 19. Which vessel arises from the anterior aortic ○ B. Pulmonary trunk sinus? ○ C. Descending thoracic aorta ○ A. Right coronary artery ○ D. Esophagus ○ B. Left coronary artery 37. Which clinical sign is associated with cardiac ○ C. Pulmonary trunk tamponade? ○ D. Left circumflex artery ○ A. Pulsus paradoxus 20. What is the role of the thoracic duct? ○ B. Hypertension ○ A. Drain cerebrospinal fluid ○ C. Increased cardiac output ○ B. Transport oxygenated blood ○ D. Enlarged left atrium ○ C. Collect lymph from most of the body 38. A newborn with cyanosis is diagnosed with ○ D. Remove pleural fluid Tetralogy of Fallot. Which feature is NOT part of this condition? ○ A. Pulmonary stenosis ○ B. Overriding aorta Clinical Manifestations and Cases ○ C. Patent foramen ovale ○ D. Right ventricular hypertrophy (Q31–50) 39. Which condition is characterized by air entering the pleural cavity? 31. A patient develops hoarseness due to left vocal ○ A. Hemothorax cord paralysis. Which structure is most likely ○ B. Pneumothorax compressed? ○ C. Pleural effusion ○ A. Left vagus nerve ○ D. Atelectasis ○ B. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve 40. What is the most likely complication of a ○ C. Right recurrent laryngeal nerve fractured rib at the midclavicular line? ○ D. Phrenic nerve ○ A. Heart injury 32. A stab wound to the right 4th intercostal space ○ B. Spleen rupture damages the right lung. What area is most likely ○ C. Pneumothorax affected? ○ D. Pericardial tamponade ○ A. Cardiac notch ○ B. Apex of the lung ○ C. Middle lobe ○ D. Inferior lobe 33. A patient with advanced tuberculosis develops Answers pleuritis. Which pleura layer is sensitive to pain? ○ A. Parietal pleura Anatomy and Physiology ○ B. Visceral pleura 1. B ○ C. Both parietal and visceral pleura 2. B ○ D. Pleural cavity  3. B 4. B 5. A 6. A 7. B 8. B 9. B 10. A 11. B 12. A 13. C 14. B 15. D 16. D 17. C 18. C 19. A 20. C Clinical Manifestations and Cases 31. B 32. C 33. A 34. B 35. A 36. C 37. A 38. C 39. B 40. C Multiple-Choice Questions 7. Camper's fascia is best described as: ○ A) A membranous layer Anatomy of the Abdominal Wall ○ B) A fatty superficial layer ○ C) Part of the deep fascia 1. Which structure forms the superior boundary of ○ D) A continuation of lumbar fascia the abdomen? 8. Scarpa's fascia becomes continuous with which ○ A) Pelvic inlet structure in the perineum? ○ B) Lumbar vertebra ○ A) Rectus sheath ○ C) Diaphragm ○ B) Linea alba ○ D) Xiphoid process ○ C) Colle’s fascia 2. Which of the following is NOT part of the anterior ○ D) Camper’s fascia abdominal wall structure? 9. Which fascia is immediately deep to the ○ A) Skin membranous layer of superficial fascia? ○ B) Lumbar vertebra ○ A) Deep fascia ○ C) Deep fascia ○ B) Scarpa's fascia ○ D) Muscles ○ C) Camper's fascia 3. The linea alba is formed by: ○ D) Transversalis fascia ○ A) Rectus abdominis muscles ○ B) Fusion of aponeuroses and muscles Muscles ○ C) Costal cartilage ○ D) Lumbar fascia 10. The fibers of the external oblique muscle run: ○ A) Horizontally Regions of the Abdomen ○ B) In the shape of a "V" ○ C) Vertically 4. What is found in the right lower quadrant of the ○ D) At right angles to the internal oblique abdomen? 11. The conjoint tendon is formed by which two ○ A) Liver muscles? ○ B) Appendix ○ A) External oblique and transversus ○ C) Spleen abdominis ○ D) Stomach ○ B) Internal oblique and transversus 5. The epigastric abdominis ○ C) Rectus abdominis and pyramidalis You said: ○ D) Psoas major and iliacus continue 12. The rectus abdominis muscle is responsible for: ○ A) Lateral trunk flexion ChatGPT said: ○ B) Trunk rotation ChatGPT ○ C) Trunk flexion ○ D) Hip flexion Regions of the Abdomen (Continued) 13. Which muscle is often absent in the abdominal wall? 5. The epigastric region is located: ○ A) External oblique ○ A) Below the umbilical region ○ B) Internal oblique ○ B) Above the umbilical region ○ C) Pyramidalis ○ C) In the left iliac fossa ○ D) Transversus abdominis ○ D) Near the sigmoid colon 6. Which structure is found in the left Inguinal Canal hypochondriac region? ○ A) Liver 14. The deep inguinal ring is located in which ○ B) Stomach fascia? ○ C) Gallbladder ○ A) Camper's fascia ○ D) Appendix ○ B) Scarpa's fascia ○ C) Transversalis fascia Fascia ○ D) Lumbar fascia  15. The inguinal canal allows the passage of which ○ B) Right external oblique and left structure in males? internal oblique ○ A) Round ligament of the uterus ○ C) Right rectus abdominis and left ○ B) Spermatic cord transversus abdominis ○ C) Inferior epigastric artery ○ D) Right pyramidalis and left rectus ○ D) Femoral nerve abdominis 16. Which is the strongest part of the anterior wall of 23. Weakness in which muscle would impair the inguinal canal? compression of abdominal contents? ○ A) Aponeurosis of the external oblique ○ A) Rectus abdominis ○ B) Fascia transversalis ○ B) Pyramidalis ○ C) Internal oblique origin ○ C) Transversus abdominis ○ D) Rectus sheath ○ D) Psoas major 24. A direct inguinal hernia involves a weakness in Vascular Supply which part of the abdominal wall? ○ A) Fascia transversalis 17. The superior epigastric artery is a branch of the: ○ B) Conjoint tendon ○ A) External iliac artery ○ C) External oblique aponeurosis ○ B) Abdominal aorta ○ D) Rectus sheath ○ C) Internal thoracic artery ○ D) Inferior vena cava Multiple-Choice Questions 18. Which artery supplies the lateral lower part of the abdominal wall? Posterior Abdominal Wall ○ A) Superior epigastric artery ○ B) Inferior epigastric artery 25. Which of the following muscles is responsible for ○ C) Deep circumflex iliac artery lateral flexion of the trunk? ○ D) Posterior intercostal arteries ○ A) Psoas major 19. The inferior epigastric artery anastomoses with ○ B) Iliacus the superior epigastric artery within: ○ C) Quadratus lumborum ○ A) Transversalis fascia ○ D) Pyramidalis ○ B) Inguinal canal 26. The psoas major inserts on the: ○ C) Rectus sheath ○ A) Pubic crest ○ D) Umbilical region ○ B) Lesser trochanter of the femur ○ C) Transverse process of lumbar Lymphatic Drainage vertebrae ○ D) Iliac crest 20. Superficial lymphatics above the umbilicus drain 27. The nerve supply to the iliacus muscle is into: provided by the: ○ A) Superficial inguinal nodes ○ A) Iliohypogastric nerve ○ B) Para-aortic nodes ○ B) Lumbar plexus ○ C) Anterior thoracic axillary nodes ○ C) Femoral nerve ○ D) Posterior mediastinal nodes ○ D) Ilioinguinal nerve 21. Deep lymphatics of the abdominal wall drain into 28. Which muscle is often absent in the posterior all EXCEPT: abdominal wall? ○ A) Internal thoracic nodes ○ A) Psoas major ○ B) External iliac nodes ○ B) Psoas minor ○ C) Para-aortic nodes ○ C) Iliacus ○ D) Axillary nodes ○ D) Quadratus lumborum Cases and Manifestations Rectus Sheath 22. A patient has difficulty bringing the right elbow to 29. The rectus sheath encloses which muscle(s)? the left knee. Which muscles are likely weak? ○ A) External oblique ○ A) Right internal oblique and left ○ B) Internal oblique and transversus external oblique abdominis  ○ C) Rectus abdominis and pyramidalis 37. The nerve responsible for sensation in the lower ○ D) Quadratus lumborum anterior abdominal wall is the: 30. Which structure is found within the rectus ○ A) Ilioinguinal nerve sheath? ○ B) Femoral nerve ○ A) Inferior epigastric artery ○ C) Iliohypogastric nerve ○ B) Round ligament of the uterus ○ D) Subcostal nerve ○ C) Deep circumflex iliac vein ○ D) Lumbar plexus Case-Based Questions 31. The linea semilunaris corresponds to the lateral margin of the: 38. A patient complains of weakness in trunk flexion. ○ A) Linea alba Which muscle is likely affected? ○ B) Rectus abdominis ○ A) Transversus abdominis ○ C) External oblique ○ B) Rectus abdominis ○ D) Transversus abdominis ○ C) External oblique ○ D) Quadratus lumborum Inguinal Canal Mechanics 39. A midline incision is most likely to damage which structure? 32. Which part of the inguinal canal compresses its ○ A) Linea alba contents during straining? ○ B) Linea semilunaris ○ A) Conjoint tendon ○ C) Inguinal ligament ○ B) Roof formed by internal oblique and ○ D) Fascia transversalis transversus abdominis 40. Difficulty in forced expiration is likely caused by ○ C) Posterior wall of fascia transversalis weakness in: ○ D) Anterior wall of the external oblique ○ A) Psoas major 33. The inguinal canal is a site of potential ○ B) Rectus abdominis weakness because: ○ C) External oblique ○ A) Its anterior wall lacks reinforcement ○ D) Transversus abdominis ○ B) It contains the superficial and deep 41. Weakness in the conjoint tendon may result in inguinal rings close together which condition? ○ C) It transmits only one structure ○ A) Direct inguinal hernia ○ D) The rings are located at a distance ○ B) Umbilical hernia from each other ○ C) Epigastric hernia ○ D) Incisional hernia Clinical Correlation: Hernias Miscellaneous 34. An indirect inguinal hernia passes through which structure? 42. The umbilicus marks the attachment of the: ○ A) Superficial inguinal ring ○ A) Linea alba to the pubic symphysis ○ B) Deep inguinal ring ○ B) Round ligament of the uterus ○ C) Conjoint tendon ○ C) Umbilical cord in the fetus ○ D) Linea alba ○ D) Inferior epigastric artery 35. A femoral hernia occurs: 43. Which abdominal layer is directly superficial to ○ A) Above the inguinal ligament the muscles? ○ B) Through the deep inguinal ring ○ A) Camper's fascia ○ C) Below the inguinal ligament ○ B) Deep fascia ○ D) Through the linea alba ○ C) Transversalis fascia ○ D) Scarpa’s fascia Nerve Supply 44. Which vessel drains into the internal thoracic vein? 36. The iliohypogastric nerve primarily supplies: ○ A) Inferior epigastric vein ○ A) Psoas major and minor ○ B) Posterior intercostal vein ○ B) External oblique and internal oblique ○ C) Superior epigastric vein ○ C) Iliacus muscle ○ D) Lumbar vein ○ D) Quadratus lumborum  45. The lateral arcuate ligament is formed by the thickening of: ○ A) Fascia over the iliacus muscle ○ B) Fascia over the quadratus lumborum ○ C) Fascia over the psoas major ○ D) Fascia over the transversus abdominis 46. The action of the rectus abdominis does NOT include: ○ A) Trunk flexion ○ B) Compression of abdominal contents ○ C) Lateral flexion of the trunk ○ D) Accessory role in expiration 47. A triangular defect in the external oblique aponeurosis is called the: ○ A) Superficial inguinal ring ○ B) Deep inguinal ring ○ C) Conjoint tendon ○ D) Linea semilunaris 48. The inferior wall of the inguinal canal is formed by the: ○ A) Conjoint tendon ○ B) Inguinal ligament ○ C) Transversalis fascia ○ D) Linea alba 49. What does the pyramidalis muscle tense? ○ A) Inguinal ligament ○ B) Linea alba ○ C) Linea semilunaris ○ D) Rectus sheath 50. During inspiration, which abdominal muscle assists the diaphragm? ○ A) Rectus abdominis ○ B) Transversus abdominis ○ C) External oblique ○ D) Internal oblique Answer Key 1: C, 2: B, 3: B, 4: B, 5: B 6: B, 7: B, 8: C, 9: A, 10: B 11: B, 12: C, 13: C, 14: C, 15: B 16: A, 17: C, 18: C, 19: C, 20: C 21: D, 22: B, 23: C, 24: A; 25: C, 26: B, 27: C, 28: B, 29: C; 30: A, 31: B, 32: B, 33: D, 34: B 35: C, 36: B, 37: A, 38: B, 39: A 40: C, 41: A, 42: C, 43: B, 44: C 45: B, 46: C, 47: A, 48: B, 49: B, 50: C ABDOMINAL CAVITY ○ D) Splenic artery 9. Which vein directly drains into the portal vein? ○ A) Right gastroepiploic vein Multiple-Choice Questions ○ B) Short gastric vein ○ C) Left gastric vein Peritoneum ○ D) Inferior mesenteric vein 10. The duodenum curves around which organ? 1. The peritoneum is a: ○ A) Liver ○ A) Muscular layer ○ B) Spleen ○ B) Serous membrane ○ C) Pancreas ○ C) Connective tissue ○ D) Gall bladder ○ D) Cartilaginous structure 2. The parietal peritoneum lines: Small and Large Intestines ○ A) Abdominal organs ○ B) Pelvic organs 11. The jejunum comprises which fraction of the ○ C) Abdominal and pelvic walls small intestine? ○ D) The diaphragm only ○ A) Upper 1/3 3. The space between the parietal and visceral ○ B) Upper 2/5 layers of the peritoneum is the: ○ C) Lower 3/5 ○ A) Peritoneal ligament ○ D) Lower 1/3 ○ B) Epiploic foramen 12. Which artery supplies the ileum? ○ C) Peritoneal cavity ○ A) Superior mesenteric artery ○ D) Mesentery ○ B) Inferior mesenteric artery 4. Which structure connects the stomach to the ○ C) Ileiocolic artery transverse colon? ○ D) Middle colic artery ○ A) Lesser omentum 13. The ileocecal valve is located between the ileum ○ B) Greater omentum and: ○ C) Falciform ligament ○ A) Appendix ○ D) Transverse mesocolon ○ B) Cecum 5. The epiploic foramen is located: ○ C) Ascending colon ○ A) Between the greater and lesser sacs ○ D) Transverse colon ○ B) Between the stomach and diaphragm 14. The appendix is located at: ○ C) Between the liver and pancreas ○ A) McBurney’s point ○ D) Between the small intestine and ○ B) Umbilical region sigmoid colon ○ C) ASIS ○ D) Hypogastric region Gastrointestinal Tract 15. Which artery supplies the transverse colon? ○ A) Middle colic artery 6. The stomach's main function is: ○ B) Right colic artery ○ A) Absorption of nutrients ○ C) Left colic artery ○ B) Storage and mixing of food with ○ D) Ileiocolic artery gastric juices ○ C) Absorption of water Accessory Organs of Digestion ○ D) Production of digestive enzymes 7. The pyloric sphincter is located at the junction of 16. The liver's porta hepatis contains all EXCEPT: the stomach and: ○ A) Hepatic arteries ○ A) Esophagus ○ B) Portal vein ○ B) Duodenum ○ C) Bile ducts ○ C) Jejunum ○ D) Pancreatic duct ○ D) Ileum 17. Which duct drains bile directly from the liver to 8. The main artery supplying the fundus of the the gall bladder? stomach is the: ○ A) Common bile duct ○ A) Right gastric artery ○ B) Cystic duct ○ B) Left gastroepiploic artery ○ C) Right hepatic duct ○ C) Short gastric artery  ○ D) Left hepatic duct ○ C) Diaphragm 18. Which is NOT a part of the gall bladder? ○ D) Greater omentum ○ A) Fundus 28. Mesenteries primarily function to: ○ B) Body ○ A) Store fat ○ C) Isthmus ○ B) Attach intestines to the posterior ○ D) Neck abdominal wall 19. The pancreas produces which of the following? ○ C) Transport bile ○ A) Bile ○ B) Insulin ○ D) Cover organs with peritoneum ○ C) Pepsin ○ D) Gastric juice Gastrointestinal Tract 20. The spleen is located near which organ? 29. Which structure prevents reflux from the ○ A) Right kidney stomach into the esophagus? ○ B) Pancreas ○ A) Pyloric sphincter ○ C) Liver ○ B) Cardiac orifice ○ D) Duodenum ○ C) Gastroesophageal sphincter Kidney and Ureters ○ D) Duodenal cap 30. Which of the following is part of the stomach's 21. The kidney's primary function is: pylorus? ○ A) Blood filtration ○ A) Fundus ○ B) Bile production ○ B) Incisura angularis ○ C) Insulin secretion ○ C) Pyloric antrum ○ D) Protein metabolism ○ D) Cardiac orifice 22. The renal pelvis is part of the: 31. The majority of nutrient absorption occurs in the: ○ A) Ureter ○ A) Duodenum ○ B) Nephron ○ B) Stomach ○ C) Medulla ○ C) Jejunum ○ D) Cortex ○ D) Ileum 23. Which artery supplies the kidneys? 32. The large intestine is responsible for: ○ A) Splenic artery ○ A) Nutrient absorption ○ B) Inferior mesenteric artery ○ B) Mixing chyme with bile ○ C) Renal artery ○ C) Water and electrolyte absorption ○ D) Suprarenal artery ○ D) Hormone production 24. The right kidney is lower than the left because of the: Accessory Organs ○ A) Liver 33. The liver's primary role in digestion is: ○ B) Stomach ○ A) Enzyme secretion ○ C) Pancreas ○ B) Production of bile ○ D) Heart ○ C) Absorption of fats 25. Suprarenal glands produce which hormone? ○ D) Detoxification ○ A) Insulin 34. Which condition refers to inflammation of the gall ○ B) Bile bladder? ○ C) Epinephrine ○ A) Cholelithiasis ○ D) Glucagon ○ B) Cholangitis 26. The greater omentum attaches to the: ○ C) Cholecystitis ○ A) Lesser curvature of the stomach ○ D) Cholesterolosis ○ B) Greater curvature of the stomach 35. The pancreas is both an endocrine and exocrine ○ C) Duodenojejunal flexure organ because it: ○ D) Sigmoid colon ○ A) Produces bile and insulin 27. The falciform ligament connects the liver to the: ○ B) Produces digestive enzymes and ○ A) Stomach hormones ○ B) Spleen ○ C) Stores glycogen and secretes glucagon  ○ D) Filters blood and secretes bile ○ B) Bile salts 36. Which of the following conditions is associated ○ C) Epinephrine and norepinephrine with decreased bile flow? ○ D) Insulin and glucagon ○ A) Cholestasis ○ B) Cholangitis Hepatic Portal System ○ C) Cholelithiasis ○ D) Cholesterolosis 45. The portal vein drains blood from all EXCEPT: ○ A) Small intestine Spleen ○ B) Liver ○ C) Spleen 37. The spleen is involved in which function? ○ D) Pancreas ○ A) Hormone secretion 46. Which vein drains into the inferior mesenteric ○ B) Blood filtration and immune response vein? ○ C) Protein metabolism ○ A) Left gastric vein ○ D) Detoxification ○ B) Superior rectal vein 38. The blood supply to the spleen comes from the: ○ C) Right colic vein ○ A) Superior mesenteric artery ○ D) Ileocolic vein ○ B) Inferior mesenteric artery 47. Tributaries of the splenic vein include: ○ C) Splenic artery ○ A) Right gastric vein ○ D) Hepatic artery ○ B) Left gastroepiploic vein 39. The spleen is connected to the stomach by the: ○ C) Superior mesenteric vein ○ A) Splenorenal ligament ○ D) Inferior pancreaticoduodenal vein ○ B) Gastrosplenic omentum 48. The portal vein divides into right and left ○ C) Transverse mesocolon branches at the: ○ D) Falciform ligament ○ A) Hepatic flexure ○ B) Porta hepatis Kidneys and Ureters ○ C) Duodenojejunal junction ○ D) Inferior vena cava 40. Ureters convey urine from the: ○ A) Bladder to the urethra Clinical Correlations ○ B) Kidney to the bladder ○ C) Renal pelvis to the nephron 49. A perforated ulcer in the posterior wall of the ○ D) Renal cortex to the bladder stomach may involve which structure? 41. Nephrolithiasis is a condition involving: ○ A) Duodenum ○ A) Inflammation of the kidney ○ B) Spleen ○ B) Kidney stones ○ C) Lesser sac ○ C) Ureteral obstruction ○ D) Greater omentum ○ D) Fluid accumulation in the kidney 50. Pain at McBurney’s point is most indicative of: 42. Which artery supplies blood to the ureters? ○ A) Gall bladder inflammation ○ A) Renal artery ○ B) Appendicitis ○ B) Testicular or ovarian artery ○ C) Kidney stones ○ C) Superior vesical artery ○ D) Diverticulitis ○ D) All of the above Suprarenal Glands Answer Key 43. The cortex of the suprarenal gland produces: ○ A) Epinephrine and norepinephrine 1: B, 2: C, 3: C, 4: B, 5: A ○ B) Insulin and glucagon 6: B, 7: B, 8: C, 9: C, 10: C; 11: B, 12: C, 13: B, 14: A, ○ C) Mineralocorticoids and 15: A; 16: D, 17: C, 18: C, 19: B, 20: B; 21: A, 22: A, 23: glucocorticoids C, 24: A, 25: C 26: B, 27: C, 28: B, 29: C, 30: C; 31: C, ○ D) Bile 32: C, 33: B, 34: C, 35: B; 36: A, 37: B, 38: C, 39: B, 40: 44. The medulla of the suprarenal gland secretes: B; 41: B, 42: D, 43: C, 44: C,; 45: B ○ A) Cortisol and aldosterone 46: B, 47: B, 48: B, 49: C, 50: B PELVIC WALL 9. The sacroiliac joint primarily functions to: ○ A) Allow movement between the spine and pelvis ○ B) Transmit weight from the spine to the Multiple-Choice Questions pelvis ○ C) Allow for pelvic rotation Pelvis and Its Divisions ○ D) Connect the coccyx to the sacrum 10. The sacrotuberous ligament extends from the 1. The pelvis is located: sacrum to the: ○ A) Superior to the abdomen ○ A) Ischial tuberosity ○ B) Inferior to the abdomen ○ B) Pubic symphysis ○ C) At the same level as the abdomen ○ C) Iliac crest ○ D) Within the thoracic cavity ○ D) Ischial spine 2. Which structure divides the pelvis into true and 11. The pubic symphysis is classified as a: false pelvis? ○ A) Synovial joint ○ A) Iliac crest ○ B) Cartilaginous joint ○ B) Pelvic brim ○ C) Fibrous joint ○ C) Sacral promontory ○ D) Ball-and-socket joint ○ D) Ischial tuberosities 3. The true pelvis is located: Foramina ○ A) Above the pelvic inlet ○ B) Between the pelvic inlet and outlet 12. The obturator foramen is partially covered by: ○ C) Below the pelvic outlet ○ A) Piriformis muscle ○ D) In the abdominal cavity ○ B) Obturator membrane 4. Which structure forms the posterior boundary of ○ C) Sacrotuberous ligament the pelvic outlet? ○ D) Pelvic diaphragm ○ A) Pubic arch 13. Which structure passes through the greater ○ B) Sacral promontory sciatic foramen? ○ C) Coccyx ○ A) Obturator nerve ○ D) Ischial tuberosities ○ B) Pudendal nerve ○ C) Sciatic nerve Bones of the Pelvis ○ D) Internal iliac vein 14. The lesser sciatic foramen allows the passage of 5. The ilium, ischium, and pubis meet at the: the: ○ A) Iliac crest ○ A) Sciatic nerve ○ B) Acetabulum ○ B) Pudendal nerve ○ C) Sacroiliac joint ○ C) Femoral artery ○ D) Pubic tubercle ○ D) Quadratus femoris 6. Which of the following is part of the ilium? ○ A) Ischial spine Pelvic Wall and Diaphragm ○ B) Iliac fossa ○ C) Pubic crest 15. The pelvic diaphragm includes which muscle? ○ D) Ischial tuberosity ○ A) Piriformis 7. The ischial tuberosity serves as the origin for: ○ B) Obturator internus ○ A) Piriformis muscle ○ C) Levator ani ○ B) Hamstring muscles ○ D) Gluteus maximus ○ C) Gluteus maximus 16. The posterior pelvic wall is formed by the: ○ D) Obturator internus ○ A) Sacrum, coccyx, and piriformis 8. The pubic arch is formed by: muscle ○ A) Sacral promontory ○ B) Pubic bones and symphysis pubis ○ B) Superior pubic rami ○ C) Ilium and ischium ○ C) Inferior pubic rami ○ D) Obturator membrane and ligaments ○ D) Iliopectineal line 17. The levator ani supports which structures? ○ A) Pelvic viscera Joints and Ligaments  ○ B) Lower limbs ○ A) Pudendal nerve ○ C) Abdominal viscera ○ B) Sciatic nerve ○ D) Spinal column ○ C) Obturator nerve ○ D) Superior gluteal nerve Nerve Supply Foramina and Ligaments 18. The pudendal nerve arises from spinal levels: ○ A) L2-L4 26. The sciatic nerve exits the pelvis through the: ○ B) S2-S4 ○ A) Obturator foramen ○ C) L4-S1 ○ B) Lesser sciatic foramen ○ D) S1-S3 ○ C) Greater sciatic foramen 19. The sacral plexus is located on the: ○ D) Sacroiliac joint ○ A) Posterior pelvic wall 27. The sacrospinous ligament attaches to the: ○ B) Lateral pelvic wall ○ A) Ischial tuberosity ○ C) Anterior pelvic wall ○ B) Ischial spine ○ D) Pelvic floor ○ C) Iliac crest 20. Which nerve innervates the piriformis muscle? ○ D) Obturator membrane ○ A) Obturator nerve 28. The obturator canal allows the passage of: ○ B) Superior gluteal nerve ○ A) Pudendal nerve and vessels ○ C) Sciatic nerve ○ B) Sciatic nerve ○ D) Nerve to piriformis ○ C) Obturator nerve and vessels ○ D) Superior gluteal artery Arterial Supply 29. Which of the following is NOT associated with the greater sciatic foramen? 21. The internal iliac artery divides into: ○ A) Piriformis muscle ○ A) Common iliac and external iliac ○ B) Sciatic nerve arteries ○ C) Obturator nerve ○ B) External and anterior iliac arteries ○ D) Superior gluteal artery ○ C) Anterior and posterior divisions ○ D) Superior and inferior gluteal arteries Muscles of the Pelvic Wall and Diaphragm 22. Which artery supplies the upper part of the bladder? 30. The coccygeus muscle assists in: ○ A) Inferior vesical artery ○ A) Hip flexion ○ B) Superior vesical artery ○ B) Sphincter control of the rectum ○ C) Umbilical artery ○ C) Supporting pelvic viscera ○ D) Obturator artery ○ D) Lateral rotation of the thigh 23. The uterine artery is a branch of the: 31. The puborectalis forms a sling around the: ○ A) Superior gluteal artery ○ A) Urethra ○ B) Vaginal artery ○ B) Rectum and anal canal ○ C) Internal iliac artery ○ C) Prostate ○ D) Inferior vesical artery ○ D) Iliococcygeus 32. Which muscle covers the lateral pelvic wall? Clinical Correlations and Cases ○ A) Levator ani ○ B) Piriformis 24. A female patient experiences prolapse of pelvic ○ C) Obturator internus organs. Weakness in which muscle is likely ○ D) Coccygeus involved? 33. Weakness of the levator ani can lead to: ○ A) Obturator internus ○ A) Urinary incontinence ○ B) Piriformis ○ B) Pelvic fractures ○ C) Levator ani ○ C) Abdominal hernias ○ D) Gluteus maximus ○ D) Nerve compression syndromes 25. A male patient complains of pain radiating from the lower back to the leg. Compression of which Arteries and Veins nerve might cause this symptom?  34. The external iliac artery continues as the: ○ D) Femoral nerve ○ A) Femoral artery 43. Weakness in the pubococcygeus muscle may ○ B) Internal iliac artery cause: ○ C) Inferior gluteal artery ○ A) Rectal prolapse ○ D) Pudendal artery ○ B) Sciatica 35. The middle rectal artery is a branch of the: ○ C) Sacroiliac joint dysfunction ○ A) Inferior mesenteric artery ○ D) Hip instability ○ B) External iliac artery 44. Injury to the pudendal nerve may result in: ○ C) Internal iliac artery ○ A) Loss of sensation in the perineum ○ D) Superior mesenteric artery ○ B) Weakness in thigh adduction 36. Which artery supplies the anal canal and ○ C) Hip drop during walking perineum? ○ D) Paralysis of the gluteus maximus ○ A) Middle rectal artery 45. Which condition may result from a sacroiliac ○ B) Superior vesical artery joint dysfunction? ○ C) Internal pudendal artery ○ A) Lower back pain ○ D) Uterine artery ○ B) Loss of bladder control 37. The superior gluteal artery is a branch of the: ○ C) Sciatica ○ A) Posterior division of the internal iliac ○ D) Uterine prolapse artery ○ B) Anterior division of the internal iliac Miscellaneous artery ○ C) External iliac artery 46. The pelvic diaphragm is incomplete anteriorly to ○ D) Inferior mesenteric artery allow for the passage of: 38. Which vein drains into the external iliac vein? ○ A) Sciatic nerve and vessels ○ A) Inferior rectal vein ○ B) Urethra and vagina ○ B) Superior gluteal vein ○ C) Obturator nerve and vessels ○ C) Femoral vein ○ D) External iliac artery ○ D) Median sacral vein 47. The lumbosacral trunk is formed by which spinal nerves? Nerve Supply ○ A) L1-L3 ○ B) L4-L5 39. The sciatic nerve is a branch of the: ○ C) S1-S3 ○ A) Sacral plexus ○ D) S2-S4 ○ B) Lumbar plexus 48. The coccyx is attached to the sacrum by the: ○ C) Coccygeal plexus ○ A) Sacrotuberous ligament ○ D) Pudendal plexus ○ B) Sacrospinous ligament 40. The inferior gluteal nerve supplies the: ○ C) Sacrococcygeal joint ○ A) Gluteus maximus ○ D) Ischial spine ○ B) Gluteus medius 49. The parametrium refers to pelvic fascia in the ○ C) Gluteus minimus region of the: ○ D) Tensor fascia lata ○ A) Bladder 41. The obturator nerve innervates: ○ B) Uterine cervix ○ A) Lateral rotators of the hip ○ C) Rectum ○ B) Adductors of the thigh ○ D) Obturator foramen ○ C) Flexors of the knee 50. The primary function of the pelvic floor is to: ○ D) Extensors of the hip ○ A) Stabilize the hip joint ○ B) Support pelvic organs and control Clinical Correlations intrapelvic pressure ○ C) Facilitate venous return from the 42. Pain radiating to the posterior thigh may indicate lower limbs compression of the: ○ D) Allow for weight transmission to the ○ A) Obturator nerve lower limbs ○ B) Sciatic nerve ○ C) Pudendal nerve Answer Key 1: B, 2: B, 3: B, 4: C, 5: B 6: B, 7: B, 8: C, 9: B, 10: A 11: B, 12: B, 13: C, 14: B, 15: C 16: A, 17: A, 18: B, 19: A, 20: D 21: C, 22: B, 23: C, 24: C, 25: B 26: C, 27: B, 28: C, 29: C, 30: C 31: B, 32: C, 33: A, 34: A, 35: C 36: C, 37: A, 38: D, 39: A, 40: A 41: B, 42: B, 43: A, 44