01_Database 1.pdf

Đề thi Quản trị Database Đề số 1 Thời gian làm bài 90 phút Tìm đáp án đúng cho các câu hỏi sau (mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 1.5 điểm) Question 1 Your enterprise must decide whether to use a...

Đề thi Quản trị Database Đề số 1 Thời gian làm bài 90 phút Tìm đáp án đúng cho các câu hỏi sau (mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 1.5 điểm) Question 1 Your enterprise must decide whether to use a database management system. Which of the following best describes the functionality of a DBMS? A. A DBMS provides the ability to control data access and limit the number of users at one time B. A DBMS provides the ability to maintain databases while providing increased security for the database. C. A DBMS allows users to access the database while allowing the database administrator to define views particular to individual sets of users. D. A DBMS provides the ability to define, create and maintain databases while providing controlled access to databases. Question 2 What is the most important service provided by a database management system? A. Provides support for a data manipulation language B. Allows users to store data in a distributed data repository C. Provides support for data formatting language commands D. Translates procedural commands into non-procedural commands Question 3 What is a relational database domain? A. A group of attributes B. A collection of related data items C. A set of permissible attribute values D. A set of permissibletuple values Question 4 You enterprise must decide whether to use a database management system. Which of the following lists four advantages of using a DBMS? A. Management of data redundancy, increased data integrity, increased data dependence, and increased application program flexibility. B. Consistency of data, adherence to standards, managed concurrency, and increased software complexity. C. Increased data access, increased data backup and recovery, data sharing, and consistency of data. D. Increased datasecriry, increased data integrity, increased data independence, and decreased data separation. Question 5 Which of the following occurs in a relation when records are added or removed? A. The number of domains changes. B. The attributes in the domain change. C. The cardinality of the relation is fixed but the degree varies D. The degree of the relation is fixed but the cardinality varies Question 6 Your enterprise is developing a database system that will contain highly sensitive data. Security of the data will take priority over database processing speed. Which database protection technique should be employed? A. Backups B. User views C. Encryption D. Integrity controls Question 7 Which of the following best describes a composite key? A. A composite key is a primary key that consists of the first two attributes of a relation. B. A composite key is a primary or foreign key defined by its parent keys. C. A composite key is a foreign key that consists of the same attributes as the primary key from a related table. D. A composite key is a primary or foreign key that consists of two or more attributes of a relation. Question 8 Which process is used to prevent the current database operation from reading or writing a data item while that data item is being accessed by another operation? A. Lock B. Deadlock C. Time stamp D. Transaction Question 9 Your company must choose which type of database to use for a new project. Which of the following lists three characteristics of file-based database systems? A. Repetition of data, application program flexibility, and data centralization B. Incompatibility of files, tabular data structures, and data dependence C. Separation of data, repetition of data, and data independence D. Application program inflexibility, data dependence, and separation of data Question 10 Consider the following four database design activities: 1 - Design user views. 2 - Select a DBMS. 3 - Apply normalization. 4 - Determine entities. Which choice shows the correct ordering of these activities, from first to last, by assigned numbers? A. 1,2,3,4 B. 3,4,1,2 C. 4,3,1,2 D. 4,2,3,1 Question 11 Which of the following definitions best describes an entity? A. A relation B. Data about data C. Data stored in a table column D. An item about which information is stored Question 12 Which subset of Structured Query Language (SQL) is used to limit access to a database or its data? A. Data Markup Language B. Data Control Language C. Data Formatting Language D. Data Manipulation Language Question 13 What is a data dictionary? A. A system catalog containing user data B. An area of the database that is directly accessible by the user C. Data that is stored in tables and is only accessible by the DBMS D. Metadata that is stored in tables and is only accessible by the DBMS Question 14 Which area of database security involves maintaining access to enterprise data? A. Theft B. Privacy C. Availability D. Confidentiality Question 15 Your database administrator has disallowed a group of users from making alterations to the Employees table in your corporate database. The users, known as Group_2, previously had full privileges with the Employees table. Which of the following SQL statements properly removes any alteration privileges from Group_2? A. REVOKE INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE ON Employees FROM Group_2; B. REVOKE UPDATE FOR Employees FROM Group_2; C. REVOKE INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE ON Employees FOR Group_2; D. REVOKE UPDATE, DELETE FOR Employees FROM Group_2; Question 16 Which mechanism provides database users with controlled access to the database through the use of virtual tables? A. View B. Data dictionary C. Database control language D. Database management system Question 17 Which database architecture is best suited to implementation in the World Wide Web environment? A. Two-tier using thin client B. Three-tier using fat client C. Three-tier using thin client D. Centralized mainframe with terminal client Question 18 Which subset of Structured Query Language (SQL) is used to create and name database entities? A. Data Query Language B. Database Entity Language C. Data Definition Language D. Data Manipulation Language Question 19 Which term describes an attribute or combination of attributes that uniquely identifies a row in a relation? A. Entity B. Domain C. Primary key D. Attribute group Question 20 Which term best defines a database system in which data records are stored in one or more files with no structured relationship? A. Flat-file database B. Relational database C. Distributed database D. Object-oriented database Question 21 Which of the following best describes the information contained in the data dictionary (or system catalog)? A. Metadata B. Data model C. Table data D. Metafile Question 22 Which characteristic is an advantage of a database management system? A. Data files are owned and maintained by the users. B. Database administration is simplified. C. A standard method can be used to access the database. D. Data is decentralized. Question 23 A foreign key maps to a: A. prime key. B. indirect key. C. parent key. D. composite key. Question 24 Which security technique limits access by unauthorized users to parts of an enterprise database? A. Views B. Concurrency C. Locking D. Integrity controls Question 25 To create a view, what are the minimal privileges that a user must have for the relations used to make the view? A. GRANT B. REVOKE C. SELECT D. CREATE VIEW Question 26 Which database security technique prevents invalid data from being entered into the database? A. File locking B. User authorization C. Parity checks D. Integrity controls Question 27 Which component in the three-tier database architecture handles the data-processing and business logic? A. Thin client B. Fat client C. Database server D. Application server Question 28 Which term describes the management of simultaneous transactions to prevent conflicts? A. Parallelism B. Serialization C. Database control D. Concurrency control Question 29 In which situation would the DBMS use a serial schedule to execute the transactions? A. Concurrent transactions read data from the same data structure. B. Concurrent transactions write data to different data structures. C. Concurrent transactions read or write the same data structure. D. Concurrent transactions read or write from different data structures. Question 30 Which of the following definitions applies to all types of databases? A. Data that is stored as tables B. Software that manipulates data C. Data that is stored in a structured manner D. Data recordsthat are stored sequentially in a file Question 31 Your enterprise has created a database and database application. The testing phase for the project has started. Which of the following best describes white-box testing of the projects software? A. The database designer tests the software because he or she is able to make necessary changes to the underlying code for the software. B. A user who has no knowledge of thesoftwares underlying code tests the software. C. Someone other than the database designer tests the software. This person has no access to the underlying code and attempts to use the software only in ways not considered by the software designers. D. A person tests the software and submits suggestions to the software's underlying code. This person is someone other than the database designer, but has access to thesoftwares underlying code. Question 32 Which subset of Structured Query Language (SQL) is used to perform operations such as data retrieval or deletion on the data contained in a database?  A. Data Control Language B. Data Definition Language C. Data Formatting Language D. Data Manipulation Language Question 33 Which of the following best describes the ON DELETE CASCADE referential integrity constraint? A. If a parent key is deleted, any child keys referenced by the parent key are automatically deleted. B. If any child key references a parent key, the record containing the parent key cannot be deleted. C. If a parent key isdeleted, all child keys are automatically set to a specified value. D. If a parent key is deleted, no test is made for referential integrity. Question 34 Which of the following best describes the ON DELETE NO ACTION referential integrity constraint? A. If a parent key is deleted, any child keys referenced by the parent key are automatically deleted. B. If a parent key is deleted, no test is made for referential integrity. C. If any child key references a parent key, the record containing the parent key cannot be deleted. D. If a parent key is deleted, all child keys are automatically set to a specified value. Question 35 Which term describes the rejoining of relations that have been decomposed? A. Normalization B. Denormalization C. Referential integrity D. Domain constraints Question 36 Which statement best describes a candidate key? A. It is the primary key for an entity. B. It uniquely identifies every instance of an entity. C. One or more keys are joined together to form a composite key. D. One or more keys may be used to form a primary key. Question 37 With regard to databases, what is normalization? A. The process of reducing the cardinality of a relation B. The process of organizing and refining relations C. The process of duplicating data to reduce the number of tables D. The process of limiting data stored in a table to a specific range of values Question 38 Your enterprise has reached the conceptual design phase for a database project. What is the desired goal at the end of this design phase? A. A set of normalized relations B. A reviewed entity-relationship (ER) model C. An entity-relationship (ER) model with no redundant data D. A set of denormalized relations Question 39 Which term describes one or more database operations that are executed as a single unit? A. Update B. Transaction C. Encapsulation D. Operational group Question 40 In general, it is a bad idea to write triggers that reference which one of the following? A. Temporary tables B. Mostly static tables C. Very large tables D. Non-indexed tables E. Lookup tables Question 41 Your customer wants to reduce backup volumes by not backing up older data on an ongoing basis. Which type of partitioning would you recommend for addressing this scenario? A. Range Partitioning B. Hash Partitioning C. List Partitioning D. RAC Question 42 Your customer wants you to design their data warehouse, and a highly available solution is their top priority. Giving emphasis to this, which feature would you omit from your design? A. Active Data Guard B. RAC C. Global nonpartitioned indexes D. Partitioning Question 43 Which two of the following features or options give you the ability to set fine-grained access control A. Advanced Security Option B. Oracle Database Vault C. Oracle Audit Vault D. Virtual Private Database E. Oracle Label Security Question 44 Your customer wants to add an additional level of security to their data, based on values in individual records. They can specify a group of records for access control with a simple WHERE clause. Which security feature or option will give them this capability for the lowest cost? A. Advanced Security Option B. Oracle Database Vault C. Oracle Audit Vault D. Oracle Data Masking Pack E. Virtual Private Database F. Oracle Label Security Question 45 The instance abnormally terminates because of a power outage. Which statement is true about redo log files during instance recovery? A. Inactive and current redo log files are required to accomplish recovery B. Online and archived redo files are required to accomplish instance recovery C. All redo log entries after the last checkpoint are applied from redo log files to data files D. All redo log entries recorded in the current log file until the checkpoint position are applied to data files Question 46 Examine the command: SQL>ALTER USR skd ACCOUNT LOCK; Which two statements are true after the command is executed? (Choose two.) A. The SKD user cannot log in to the database instance B. The objects owned by the SKD user are not accessible to any user C. The other users can access the objects owned by the SKD user, on which they have access D. The password for the SKD user expires and the user is forced to change the password at the next log in Question 47 For which database operation would you need the database to be in the MOUNT state? A. Renaming the control files B. Re-creating the control files C. Dropping a user in your database D. Dropping a tablespace in your database E. Configuring the database instance to operate in the ARCHIVELOG or NOARCHIVELOG modes Question 48 Which of the following is NOT a concept within the Access Management process? A. Identity B. Rights C. Access D. Possession Question 49 “A warning that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has occurred” describes which of the following? A. An Incident B. An Alert C. A Warning D. A Change Question 50 The creation of intermediate entities occurs during the logical database design phase for an enterprise. It is used to resolve which types of relationships? A. One-to-many and recursive B. Complex, recursive, and many-to-many C. Redundant, recursive, and one-to-many D. One-to-many and one-to-one Question 51 Which process is responsible for recording relationships between service components? A. Service Level Management B. Service Portfolio Management C. Service Asset and Configuration Management D. Incident Management Question 52 Learning and Improvement is the PRIMARY concern of which of the following phases of the Service Lifecycle? A. Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation, and Continual Service Improvement B. Service Strategy, Service Transition, and Service Operation C. Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement D. Continual Service Improvement Question 53 Plan, Do, Check, Act are the four stages of which quality improvement method? A. Business Knowledge Management Framework B. Benchmarking C. Continual Service Improvement D. The Deming Cycle Question 54 Which statement BEST describes the purpose of Event Management? A. The ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine the appropriate control action B. The ability to detect events, restore normal service as soon as possible and minimize the adverse impact on business operations C. The ability to monitor and control the activities of technical staff D. The ability to report on the successful delivery of services by checking the uptime of infrastructure devices Question 55 A technician uses a pre-defined technique to restore service as the incident has been seen before. This is an example of which of the following? A. A workaround B. A standard change C. A service capability D. An alert Question 56 Which of the following is a benefit of using an incident model? A. It will make problems easier to identify and diagnose B. It means known incident types never recur C. It provides pre-defined steps for handling particular types of incidents D. It ensures all incidents are easy to solve Question 57 Which of the following is NOT an objective of Service Operation? A. Thorough testing to ensure that services are designed to meet business needs B. To deliver and manage IT services C. To manage the technology used to deliver services D. To monitor the performance of technology and processes Question 58 Which of the following does Service Transition provide guidance on? Moving new and changed services into production Testing and Validation Transfer of services to or from an external service provider A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. All of the above D. 1 and 3 only Question 59 Which of the following best describes the relationship between CobiT and ITIL? A. CobiT is a model for IT governance, whereas ITIL is a model for corporate governance. B. CobiT provides a corporate governance roadmap, whereas ITIL is a customizable framework for IT service management. C. CobiT defines IT goals, whereas ITIL provides the process-level steps on how to achieve them. D. CobiT provides a framework for achieving security goals, whereas ITIL defines a framework for achieving IT service-level goals. Question 60 Which of the following is given the responsibility of the maintenance and protection of the data? A. Data owner B. Data custodian C. User D. Security administrator Question 61 Lacy's manager has tasked her with researching an intrusion detection system for a new dispatching center. Lacy identifies the top five products and compares their ratings. Which of the following are the evaluation criteria most in use today for these types of purposes? A. ITSEC B. Common Criteria C. Red Book D. Orange Book Question 62 Which of the following is not a common component of configuration management change control steps? A. Tested and presented B. Service-level agreement approval C. Report change to management D. Approval of the change Question 63 An organization is seeking to implement a hot site and wants to maintain a live database server at the backup site. Which of the following solutions will be the best for the organization? A. Electronic vaulting B. Remote journaling C. Remote mirroring D. Transaction logging Question 64 The ability for Service Operation to perform effective operational monitoring and control depends on data and information from which of the following processes? A. Incident Management B. Request Fulfilment C. Event Management D. Access ManagementPlan Question 65 Which of the following subphases are defined in the maintenance phase of the life cycle models? (choose 3) A. Change control B. Configuration control C. Request control D. Release control Question 66 Change Management is used to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient handling of all changes. Who decides the category of a change? A. The Problem Manager B. The Process Manager C. The Change Manager D. The Service Desk E. The Change Advisory Board Question 67 The goal of Change Management is to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient handling of all changes. Which of the following are Change Management terminologies? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three. A. Request for Change B. Service Request Management C. Change D. Forward Schedule of Changes