A 55-year-old man had a myocardial infarction 6 days before. He suddenly develops dyspnea, cough, and frothy sputum. For the first time, a harsh systolic murmur is heard over the p... A 55-year-old man had a myocardial infarction 6 days before. He suddenly develops dyspnea, cough, and frothy sputum. For the first time, a harsh systolic murmur is heard over the precordium. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this development? A. Ruptured aortic cusp B. Pulmonary embolism C. Tricuspid regurgitation D. Ruptured papillary muscle
Understand the Problem
The question describes a medical case involving a 55-year-old man who experienced a myocardial infarction and subsequently developed symptoms like dyspnea and a harsh systolic murmur. It asks which of the provided options is the most likely cause of his condition following the heart attack.
Answer
D. Ruptured papillary muscle
The final answer is D. Ruptured papillary muscle
Answer for screen readers
The final answer is D. Ruptured papillary muscle
More Information
Ruptured papillary muscle post-myocardial infarction can cause sudden mitral regurgitation, leading to dyspnea, pulmonary edema, and a harsh systolic murmur.
Tips
A common mistake is confusing the symptoms with those of a pulmonary embolism, which would not typically cause a harsh systolic murmur.
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