Podcast
Questions and Answers
Which of the following scenarios would warrant the administration of anti-Rh immunoglobulin?
Which of the following scenarios would warrant the administration of anti-Rh immunoglobulin?
- An Rh-negative woman experiencing trauma during her first trimester. (correct)
- An Rh-negative woman during gestation carrying an Rh-negative fetus.
- An Rh-positive woman immediately after delivering an Rh-negative infant.
- An Rh-positive woman who experiences a fall during the second trimester.
The green color observed in bruises is primarily due to the presence of which pigment?
The green color observed in bruises is primarily due to the presence of which pigment?
- Bilirubin
- Stercobilin
- Urobilinogen
- Biliverdin (correct)
In heme synthesis, which enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step?
In heme synthesis, which enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step?
- Ferrochelatase
- ALA dehydratase
- Porphobilinogen deaminase
- ALA synthase (correct)
A patient presents with irrational behavior, abdominal pain, and reddish-purple urine. Lab results show elevated levels of 5-aminolevulinic acid and porphobilinogen. Which enzyme is most likely deficient in this patient?
A patient presents with irrational behavior, abdominal pain, and reddish-purple urine. Lab results show elevated levels of 5-aminolevulinic acid and porphobilinogen. Which enzyme is most likely deficient in this patient?
A child is diagnosed with lead poisoning. Which two enzymes involved in heme synthesis are directly inhibited by lead?
A child is diagnosed with lead poisoning. Which two enzymes involved in heme synthesis are directly inhibited by lead?
A patient presents with recurrent blistering and hyperpigmentation, and lab tests reveal elevated levels of uroporphyrinogen III in the skin. Which of the following enzymes is most likely deficient?
A patient presents with recurrent blistering and hyperpigmentation, and lab tests reveal elevated levels of uroporphyrinogen III in the skin. Which of the following enzymes is most likely deficient?
Heparin increases the activity of which of the following?
Heparin increases the activity of which of the following?
What is the primary mechanism of action of warfarin as an anticoagulant?
What is the primary mechanism of action of warfarin as an anticoagulant?
A patient on heparin therapy experiences a significant drop in platelet count 7 days after starting treatment. What is the most appropriate course of action?
A patient on heparin therapy experiences a significant drop in platelet count 7 days after starting treatment. What is the most appropriate course of action?
A patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What laboratory test is most appropriate for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin therapy?
A patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What laboratory test is most appropriate for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin therapy?
A patient with sickle cell disease presents with a sudden onset of severe pain in multiple locations. This is most likely due to:
A patient with sickle cell disease presents with a sudden onset of severe pain in multiple locations. This is most likely due to:
Which laboratory finding is characteristic of Hemolytic Anemia?
Which laboratory finding is characteristic of Hemolytic Anemia?
A patient with anemia also has chronic inflammation from rheumatoid arthritis. What is most likely the cause of the anemia?
A patient with anemia also has chronic inflammation from rheumatoid arthritis. What is most likely the cause of the anemia?
What finding is expected from a patient with aplastic anemia?
What finding is expected from a patient with aplastic anemia?
A patient being treated for TB is experiencing side effects. What is most likely the cause of sideroblastic anemia in this case?
A patient being treated for TB is experiencing side effects. What is most likely the cause of sideroblastic anemia in this case?
A patient presents with dark urine and displays a history of recent diarrheal illness. What is the most likely cause?
A patient presents with dark urine and displays a history of recent diarrheal illness. What is the most likely cause?
A patient exposed to nitrites presents with cyanosis and is unresponsive to oxygen therapy. What condition is most likely?
A patient exposed to nitrites presents with cyanosis and is unresponsive to oxygen therapy. What condition is most likely?
A patient presents with fatigue, weakness, and pallor. Lab results show low hemoglobin, low serum iron, and low ferritin levels. What is a likely cause?
A patient presents with fatigue, weakness, and pallor. Lab results show low hemoglobin, low serum iron, and low ferritin levels. What is a likely cause?
A patient who is of European decent has anemia, resulting in pigmented gallstones. Diagnosis shows a positive fragility test. What is the cause most likely?
A patient who is of European decent has anemia, resulting in pigmented gallstones. Diagnosis shows a positive fragility test. What is the cause most likely?
A 6 year old child has thumb abnormalities and short stature. What condition does this child most likely have?
A 6 year old child has thumb abnormalities and short stature. What condition does this child most likely have?
Which of the following physiological cell types is most susceptible to the effects of cytotoxic chemotherapeutic agents like 5-fluorouracil?
Which of the following physiological cell types is most susceptible to the effects of cytotoxic chemotherapeutic agents like 5-fluorouracil?
Why is it necessary to co-administer other drugs with 6-mercaptopurine (6-MP) and azathioprine for maximal efficacy?
Why is it necessary to co-administer other drugs with 6-mercaptopurine (6-MP) and azathioprine for maximal efficacy?
A researcher is studying the effects of a novel drug on DNA replication. Which enzyme should be targeted to inhibit Topoisomerase I?
A researcher is studying the effects of a novel drug on DNA replication. Which enzyme should be targeted to inhibit Topoisomerase I?
Which is the mechanism of action of methotrexate, trimethoprim and pyrimethamine?
Which is the mechanism of action of methotrexate, trimethoprim and pyrimethamine?
Which of the following best describes the mechanism by which doxorubicin causes dilated cardiomyopathy?
Which of the following best describes the mechanism by which doxorubicin causes dilated cardiomyopathy?
Immune checkpoint inhibitors such as pembrolizumab work by:
Immune checkpoint inhibitors such as pembrolizumab work by:
Increased expression of P-glycoprotein in tumor cells leads to drug resistance by which mechanism?
Increased expression of P-glycoprotein in tumor cells leads to drug resistance by which mechanism?
Monoclonal antibodies work by binding to immune cells to help get rid of a cell. Which cell type has been proven to help with antitumor treatment?
Monoclonal antibodies work by binding to immune cells to help get rid of a cell. Which cell type has been proven to help with antitumor treatment?
A young adult presents with a mediastinal mass, elevated AFP and Beta-hCG. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A young adult presents with a mediastinal mass, elevated AFP and Beta-hCG. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A patient presents with decreased platelets, recurrent nosebleeds, easy bruising and ecchymoses following a viral illness. All other cell lines are normal. Which condition is suspected?
A patient presents with decreased platelets, recurrent nosebleeds, easy bruising and ecchymoses following a viral illness. All other cell lines are normal. Which condition is suspected?
A patient experiences a thrombotic event and has pruritus, especially after hot showers. Lab results show increased levels of erythrocytes, platelets and WBCs. Which condition is most likely?
A patient experiences a thrombotic event and has pruritus, especially after hot showers. Lab results show increased levels of erythrocytes, platelets and WBCs. Which condition is most likely?
A patient diagnosed with Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP) has a deficiency in which enzyme?
A patient diagnosed with Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP) has a deficiency in which enzyme?
Which term describes monoclonal antibody directed against CD20 antigens?
Which term describes monoclonal antibody directed against CD20 antigens?
A patient experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI) could benefit from a thrombolytic medication with which mechanism of action?
A patient experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI) could benefit from a thrombolytic medication with which mechanism of action?
A patient undergoing chemotherapy with vincristine is most at risk for which side effect?
A patient undergoing chemotherapy with vincristine is most at risk for which side effect?
A patient presents with migratory superficial thrombophlebitis. Which condition is most likely associated with this presentation?
A patient presents with migratory superficial thrombophlebitis. Which condition is most likely associated with this presentation?
A cancer patient undergoing chemotherapy develops tumor lysis syndrome. Which electrolyte imbalances are expected?
A cancer patient undergoing chemotherapy develops tumor lysis syndrome. Which electrolyte imbalances are expected?
A adolescent presents with a large mediastinal mass and petechiae on the trunk. Which condition is most likely?
A adolescent presents with a large mediastinal mass and petechiae on the trunk. Which condition is most likely?
What genetic translocation is associated with Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APML)?
What genetic translocation is associated with Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APML)?
A blood smear shows lymphocytes (B cells) with cytoplasmic projections. Which condition is indicated by this blood smear?
A blood smear shows lymphocytes (B cells) with cytoplasmic projections. Which condition is indicated by this blood smear?
What is the underlying cause of avascular necrosis in sickle cell disease?
What is the underlying cause of avascular necrosis in sickle cell disease?
Where is von Willebrand factor (vWF) synthesized?
Where is von Willebrand factor (vWF) synthesized?
What is the expected finding in a ristocetin cofactor assay for a patient with von Willebrand disease?
What is the expected finding in a ristocetin cofactor assay for a patient with von Willebrand disease?
How does erythropoietin (EPO) stimulate red blood cell production?
How does erythropoietin (EPO) stimulate red blood cell production?
What causes a normocytic anemia in patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
What causes a normocytic anemia in patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
What is the physiological mechanism that explains paresthesia and muscle spasms in patients receiving high-volume blood transfusions?
What is the physiological mechanism that explains paresthesia and muscle spasms in patients receiving high-volume blood transfusions?
A patient who received a blood transfusion develops a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction (DHTR). What is the underlying mechanism?
A patient who received a blood transfusion develops a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction (DHTR). What is the underlying mechanism?
How does decreased vitamin K absorption in cystic fibrosis affect coagulation?
How does decreased vitamin K absorption in cystic fibrosis affect coagulation?
A patient presents with chronic disease, inflammation and high indirect bilirubin concentration. What type of anemia is most likely?
A patient presents with chronic disease, inflammation and high indirect bilirubin concentration. What type of anemia is most likely?
How does Pyruvate Kinase deficiency cause anemia?
How does Pyruvate Kinase deficiency cause anemia?
A patient has normal arterial PO2, but low arterial O2 content. What does this indicate?
A patient has normal arterial PO2, but low arterial O2 content. What does this indicate?
What is the type of inheritance associated with G6PD deficiency?
What is the type of inheritance associated with G6PD deficiency?
A patient is diagnosed with Thalassemia, and is found to have mutations in the Beta-globin gene. Which type of Thalassemia is indicated?
A patient is diagnosed with Thalassemia, and is found to have mutations in the Beta-globin gene. Which type of Thalassemia is indicated?
Why is it important to use blood transfusions from unrelated donors with matched HLA subtypes that do not possess a genomic defect?
Why is it important to use blood transfusions from unrelated donors with matched HLA subtypes that do not possess a genomic defect?
Why is Graft Versus Host Disease and Graft rejection is not a worry in autologous transplantation?
Why is Graft Versus Host Disease and Graft rejection is not a worry in autologous transplantation?
Flashcards
Rhesus alloimmunization makeup
Rhesus alloimmunization makeup
Anti-Rh immunoglobulin consists of anti-D IgG antibodies that bind to Rh-positive fetal erythrocytes.
When to give Anti-Rh immunoglobulin
When to give Anti-Rh immunoglobulin
Administer to Rh-negative women during gestation, immediately postpartum, or after trauma.
Bruise color: Green
Bruise color: Green
Green color in bruises caused by biliverdin, a product of heme catabolism.
Cause of Acute intermittent porphyria
Cause of Acute intermittent porphyria
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Presentation of Acute intermittent porphyria
Presentation of Acute intermittent porphyria
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Labs for Acute intermittent porphyria
Labs for Acute intermittent porphyria
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Treatment for Acute intermittent porphyria
Treatment for Acute intermittent porphyria
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Presentation of Lead Poisoning
Presentation of Lead Poisoning
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Heme synthesis effect of Lead Poisoning
Heme synthesis effect of Lead Poisoning
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Porphyria cutanea tarda
Porphyria cutanea tarda
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Heparin Uses
Heparin Uses
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Adverse effects of Heparin
Adverse effects of Heparin
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Warfarin MOA
Warfarin MOA
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Reversal of Warfarin
Reversal of Warfarin
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Autoimmune association with anemia
Autoimmune association with anemia
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Aplastic Anemia
Aplastic Anemia
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Requirement for Bone Marrow Transplant
Requirement for Bone Marrow Transplant
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Methemoglobinemia
Methemoglobinemia
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Drugs causing immune response
Drugs causing immune response
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Pyruvate Kinase deficiency
Pyruvate Kinase deficiency
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Cytotoxic Chemotherapy
Cytotoxic Chemotherapy
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6-Mercaptopurine & Azathioprine
6-Mercaptopurine & Azathioprine
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Methotrexate, Trimethoprim, Pyrimethamine
Methotrexate, Trimethoprim, Pyrimethamine
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Anthracyclines (Doxorubicin)
Anthracyclines (Doxorubicin)
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Pembrolizumab MOA
Pembrolizumab MOA
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Chemotherapy Resistance via P-glycoprotein
Chemotherapy Resistance via P-glycoprotein
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Monoclonal Antibody - Host Response
Monoclonal Antibody - Host Response
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Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura
Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura
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INR
INR
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Polycythemia Vera
Polycythemia Vera
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Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura
Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura
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Rituximab MOA
Rituximab MOA
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Thrombolytics/Fibrinolytics MOA
Thrombolytics/Fibrinolytics MOA
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Vinca Alkaloids
Vinca Alkaloids
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Thrombophlebitis
Thrombophlebitis
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Coagulation Cascade Pathway
Coagulation Cascade Pathway
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Tumor Lysis Syndrome
Tumor Lysis Syndrome
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Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)
Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)
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Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)
Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)
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Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)
Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)
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Avascular Necrosis
Avascular Necrosis
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Von Willebrand Factor (vWF)
Von Willebrand Factor (vWF)
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vWF Deficiency Presentation
vWF Deficiency Presentation
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Erythropoietin (EPO)
Erythropoietin (EPO)
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EPO Deficiencies
EPO Deficiencies
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Leukocytosis
Leukocytosis
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High volume blood transfusion side effects
High volume blood transfusion side effects
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Delayed Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction (DHTR)
Delayed Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction (DHTR)
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Anemia through O2 content
Anemia through O2 content
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Thalassemia
Thalassemia
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Autologous Transplantation
Autologous Transplantation
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Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)
Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)
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Mastocytosis
Mastocytosis
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Reticulocytes
Reticulocytes
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Study Notes
- Hematology & Oncology covers chemotherapy, monoclonal antibodies, mediastinal masses, immune thrombocytopenic purpura, and other conditions.
- Pharmacology (Heme/Onc) covers Rituximab, Thrombolytics / Fibrinolytics, Vinca Alkaloids, Thrombophlebitis, and Coagulation Cascade Pathway, leukemias, and other conditions.
Chemotherapy
- Cytotoxic chemotherapy, which includes 5-fluorouracil, irinotecan, and leucovorin, targets rapidly growing cells found in neoplasms and physiological cells, such as hair, bone marrow, and gut mucosa.
- 6-mercaptopurine (6-MP) & Azathioprine are immunosuppressants inactivated by xanthine oxidase and thiopurine methyltransferase.
- Administer 6-MP and Azathioprine with drugs that inhibit these enzymes for maximal efficacy.
- Topoisomerase I inhibitors include irinotecan and topotecan
- Topoisomerase II inhibitors include etoposide and teniposide
- Methotrexate, Trimethoprim, and Pyrimethamine inhibit dihydrofolate reductase.
- Anthracyclines (doxorubicin) generate free radicals to break DNA and lead to dilated cardiomyopathy, presenting as heart failure with dyspnea and orthopnea.
- Doxorubicin causes lipid peroxidation of myocyte membranes through free radicals.
- Pembrolizumab is a PD-1 (programmed-death receptor) inhibitor that acts as a checkpoint inhibitor, downregulating the cytotoxic T-cell response, therefore inhibiting it will restore the T cell response.
Chemotherapy Resistance
- Increased expression of P-glycoprotein, a transmembrane ATP-dependent efflux pump with broad specificity, contributes to chemotherapy resistance.
Monoclonal Antibody
- The Fc region of these antibodies binds with immune cells to remove cells and only NK cells with granzymes induce apoptosis.
- Macrophages and neutrophils engage in antibody-dependent cellular toxicity, however, their role in antitumor activity is unclear.
Mediastinal Masses
- Common causes (4 Ts): Thymoma, teratoma (and other germ cell tumors, "terrible" lymphoma, and thyroid neoplasm.
- Nonseminomatous germ cell tumors elevates AFP and Beta-hCG.
- Thymomas are associated with myasthenia gravis.
Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura
- Presentation: Decreased platelets, epistaxis (recurrent), easy bruising, ecchymoses, and can follow an upper respiratory tract infection (viral illness).
- Autoantibody-mediated destruction of platelets (ONLY PLATELETS, THERE WILL NOT BE ANEMIA OR FEVER SEEN AS SEEN IN THROMBOTIC THROMBOCYTOPENIC PURPURA)
Lab Tests
- INR (International Normalized Ratio) measures how fast blood clots.
Polycythemia Vera
- A myeloproliferative neoplasm with increased production of all cell lineages (erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes) secondary to a JAK2 mutation (which codes for a non-receptor tyrosine kinase)
- Presentation: Thrombotic event (this condition creates a hypercoagulable state) and pruritus, especially after hot showers (due to mast cell production and degranulation)
- Labs: Increased Erythrocytes (increased Hb and Hematocrit), Increased Platelets, and Increased WBCs.
Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic purpura
- A thrombotic microangiopathy caused by a clotting problem
- Pathophysiology: Decreased ADAMTS13 Enzyme (which breaks down von Willebrand factor) leads to excessive platelet clumping and low platelets.
Rituximab
- A monoclonal antibody directed against CD20 antigens.
- Infusion reaction: Occurs in nearly 50% of patients who receive rituximab for the first time
- It binds to the CD20 on B cells, this causes B cells to release cytokines which can attribute to myalgias, fever, and occasionally anaphylactic symptoms.
Thrombolytics / Fibrinolytics
- Name: End in "-plase" (alteplase, reteplase, tenecteplase).
- Act by converting plasminogen to plasmin to breakdown blood clots.
- Usage: Post-MI because of its role in reperfusion of the heart
Vinca Alkaloids
- Examples include vincristine and vinblastine
- MOA: Microtubule inhibitors
- Vincristine side effects: Neurotoxicity
- Vinblastine: Myelosuppression
Key Chemotoxicities
- Cisplatin, Carboplatin → ototoxicity
- Vincristine → peripheral neuropathy
- Bleomycin, Busulfan → pulmonary fibrosis
- Doxorubicin, Daunorubicin → cardiotoxicity
- Trastuzumab → cardiotoxicity
- Cisplatin, Carboplatin → nephrotoxicity
- CYclophosphamide → hemorrhagic cystitis
- Nonspecific common toxicities of nearly all cytotoxic chemotherapies include myelosuppression (neutropenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia), GI toxicity (nausea, vomiting, mucositis), and alopecia.
Thrombophlebitis
- Condition where blood clots form in veins, leading to inflammation and swelling.
- Multiple thrombi: Trousseau syndrome (migratory superficial thrombophlebitis).
- Associated with cancer.
Coagulation Cascade Pathway
- A series of reactions leading to thrombus formation through an intrinsic and extrinsic pathway.
Coagulation Cascade Pathway: Extrinsic
- Initiated by trauma and involves factors VII and tissue factor.
- Test: PT
Coagulation Cascade Pathway: Intrinsic
- Initiated by damaged surface and involves factors: NOT VII (but has the rest of them up to X).
- Test: PTT
Tumor Lysis Syndrome
- Large amounts of dying tumor cells that release intracellular contents into the bloodstream causes this.
- Cardiac effects (from increased K+ and decreased Ca2+) can result in arrhythmias and ECG changes.
- Brain (from decreased Ca2+) can cause seizures and tetany.
- Skeletal Muscle (from increased K+).
- Kidneys (from increased uric acid and Phosphorous) can result in AKI from calcium phosphate crystals and uric acid crystals.
- Uric acid precipitates (solidifies) in the DCT and CD (more acidic environment of nephron).
Leukemias: Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)
- Presentation: Adolescent with large mediastinal mass, petechiae present on trunk.
- Diagnosis: Flow cytometry identifying population of T lymphoblasts (CD3 and TdT).
Leukemias: Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)
- Cancer of the blood, lymphocytes, but specifically mature B cells.
- Therefore will have a lot of CD20.
- Presentation: Asymptomatic for a long time but then develops anemia, leukocytosis (obviously lots of B cells), and thrombocytopenia.
Leukemias: Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)
- Neoplasm of myeloid cell line
- If blasts are over 20% = AML
- Auer rods helpful for diagnosis (down to either AML or CML) .
- In CML, there are more mature cells and fewer blasts.
- AML is related to a deficiency in neutrophils after treatment
- Risk factors: benzene, alkylating chemotherapy, radiation.
Leukemias: Acute promyelocytic Leukemia
- An M3 variant of AML is associated with t(15;17) and will still have auer rods.
- Genetic Translocation: Retinoic acid receptor alpha (RARA) gene on chromosome 17 and promyelocytic leukemia (PML) gene on chromosome 5
- t(15;17) = APML
Leukemias: Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)
- Defined by the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome (translocation of chromosome 9 and 22) or BCR-ABL fusion gene or neoplasm of myeloid cell line
- Philadelphia chromosome can also be in ALL and AML, but it is still needed for diagnosis of CML
- Active tyrosine kinase helps cause the malignancy.
- Pathophysiology: Constitutive activation of the ABL1 tyrosine kinase
- Labs: leukocytosis and increased myeloid cells.
Mastocytosis
- Abnormal proliferation of mast cells correlated with increased histamine secretion.
- Diagnosis: Skin biopsy with large clusters of mast cells that are positive for KIT (CD117).
- Additional findings: Gastric hypersecretion
Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn
- Caused by a blood type mismatch between mother and fetus leading to antibodies against fetal RBCs, resulting in hemolysis.
- Rh Hemolytic Disease: Rh- mother and Rh+ fetus with first pregnancy.
- During delivery, the mother is exposed to fetal blood, leading to anti-D IgG antibodies. Subsequent pregnancies with the Anti-D IgG Abs cross the placenta and attack the baby, causing hemolysis.
- Symptoms include Kernicterus (deposition of unconjugated bilirubin in the brain, mostly at the basal ganglia, pons, and cerebellum).
- Yellow discoloration indicates hyperbilirubinemia.
Reticulocytes
- Immature RBCs
- Wright-Giemsa staining will show them bluish due to ribosomal RNA
Burkitt Lymphoma
- Rare, aggressive type of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma affecting mature B cells
- Associated with EBV infection
- Presentation: Jaw mass, rapidly enlarging, lymphadenopathy, African person
- Cause: Translocation of the MYC gene on chromosome 8 to chromosome 14 [t(8;14)], caused by MYC overexpression
- Histologically numerous mitotic figures and apoptotic bodies. Can be characterized by a "starry sky" appearance.
Hairy Cell Leukemia
- A mature B-cell tumor
- Presentation: Middle-aged men, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, dry bone marrow aspiration
- Blood smear: lymphocytes (B cells) with cytoplasmic projections
Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis
- Proliferation and accumulation of Langerhans cells
- Presentation: Child, lytic bone lesion (most commonly on the skull)
- Biopsy: langerhan cells and Eosinophils also present
- Markers: CD1, CD1a, S-100
Plasma Cell Dyscrasias: Multiple Myeloma
- Blood cancer affecting plasma cells (B cells)
- There are too many abnormal plasma cells
- Presentation: Bone pain, kidney issues/lesions, and hypercalcemia.
- Myeloma cells produce RANKL
- CRAB presentation is useful for this disease; hyperCalcemia, Renal insufficiency, Anemia, Bone lytic lesions.
- Pathophysiology: malignant Plasma cells secrete: IL-1, TNF-alpha, RANKL
- The light chains created by the plasma cells can misfold and form amyloid fibrils
- LAMBDA LIGHT CHAINS
-
10% plasma cells on bone marrow sample = multiple myeloma
- M Spike: Associated with overproduction of monoclonal immunoglobulins (use serum protein electrophoresis)
Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance
- Overproduction of any Ig type (but the M spike < 3 g/dL)
- Presentation: Asymptomatic
Cells of the Blood: Thrombocytes
- ADP effect on platelets causes rapid and irreversible aggregation through action on P2Y1 and P2Y12 receptors.
Sickle Cell Disease
Complications
- Avascular necrosis can occur, presenting with gradual onset (2hrs) of localized pain.
- Sickle cells occluding vasculature lead to vaso-occlusive crisis and avascular necrosis.
Coagulopathies
Von Willebrand Factor (vWF)
- The hemostatic glycoprotein, synthesized by endothelial cells and megakaryocytes, mediates platelet adherence.
- It binds to subendothelial collagen.
- Deficiency can manifest as easy bruising and prolonged mucocutaneous bleeding like gingival bleeding and heavy menses.
- Testing: An abnormal ristocetin cofactor assay indicates deficiency.
Erythropoietin (EPO)
- A glycoprotein hormone secreted by kidneys, increases RBC differentiation by acting in bone marrow.
- It works on JAK2/STAT
- Deficiencies: Chronic Kidney Disease can cause a normocytic anemia with decreased EPO secretion and therefore decreased RBC count.
- Secretion occurs in the kidney by peritubular fibroblast cells in renal cortex
Leukocytosis
- Leukocytosis is defined as increased leukocytes in the blood.
- Demarginalization of neutrophils from endothelial attachments occurs in leukocyte adhesion deficiency therefore causing leukocytosis.
- Infection leads to cytokine release, triggering increased release of immune cells and leukocytes from the bone marrow, increasing Leukocytes.
Blood Transfusion
High Volume Blood Transfusion Side Effects
-
Citrate anticoagulants chelate plasma calcium, can lead to hypocalcemia, causing peripheral neuromuscular excitability (paresthesia, muscle spasms).
-
Delayed Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction (DHTR): Patient previously exposed to a minor RBC antigen (D antigen, from pregnancy or prior transfusion), develop antibodies which causes a response when reintroduced
Cystic Fibrosis
- Often causes decreased absorption of fat-soluble vitamins (ADEK).
- Decreased vitamin K will decrease the ability of vitamin K dependent coagulation factors.
- Look for prolonged PT (extrinsic pathway).
Anemias
Extravascular Autoimmune
- Autoimmune conditions like SLE are associated with autoimmune hemolytic anemia which is extravascular and IgG mediated (warm).
- Presentation: Chronic disease (inflammation), causing a high indirect bilirubin concentration.
Pyruvate Kinase Deficiency
- Decreased ATP production causes a decreased ability for RBCs to maintain their structure allowing them to be removed by the spleen.
- Causes hyperplasia of the spleen (red pulp hyperplasia).
Anemia Through O2 Content
Labs
- Arterial PO2 reflects the amount of oxygen getting into the blood from the lungs.
- Arterial O2 content reflects the amount of oxygen in the blood (bound and unbound).
- Mixed Venous PO2 is the amount of oxygen dissolved in the blood after the blood has passed through the body (not including oxygen that is bound to Hb).
- Mixed Venous O2 is the total amount of oxygen in the blood, including free and bound to Hb.
Concept
- Normal arterial PO2 and low arterial O2 content means there is enough oxygen in the blood but there is not a lot bound to Hb implying deficient Hb and ultimately anemia.
G6PD Deficiency
- X-linked recessive inheritance.
Thalassemia
- Results in microcytic anemia.
Types and Differentiation
- A patient with HBA2 most likely has a mutation in the Beta-globin gene, inheritance is dependent on severity
Bone Marrow Transplant
- Requires matching HLA subtypes.
- Should they have genomic defects, administer blood transfusions from an unrelated donor.
Autologous Transplantation
- Transplant is from self.
Risks
- Reactivation of latent diseases may happen due to transient immunosuppression.
- No risk of graft versus host disease or graft rejection
Relationship to Partial Pressure of Arterial Oxygen
- PaO2 reflects the amount of dissolved oxygen in the blood plasma, not the amount of blood bound to hemoglobin.
- Hemoglobin binding of oxygen and iron oxidation do not change throughout the condition.
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