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Questions and Answers

Which of the following scenarios would warrant the administration of anti-Rh immunoglobulin?

  • An Rh-negative woman experiencing trauma during her first trimester. (correct)
  • An Rh-negative woman during gestation carrying an Rh-negative fetus.
  • An Rh-positive woman immediately after delivering an Rh-negative infant.
  • An Rh-positive woman who experiences a fall during the second trimester.

The green color observed in bruises is primarily due to the presence of which pigment?

  • Bilirubin
  • Stercobilin
  • Urobilinogen
  • Biliverdin (correct)

In heme synthesis, which enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step?

  • Ferrochelatase
  • ALA dehydratase
  • Porphobilinogen deaminase
  • ALA synthase (correct)

A patient presents with irrational behavior, abdominal pain, and reddish-purple urine. Lab results show elevated levels of 5-aminolevulinic acid and porphobilinogen. Which enzyme is most likely deficient in this patient?

<p>Porphobilinogen deaminase (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child is diagnosed with lead poisoning. Which two enzymes involved in heme synthesis are directly inhibited by lead?

<p>ALA dehydratase and ferrochelatase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with recurrent blistering and hyperpigmentation, and lab tests reveal elevated levels of uroporphyrinogen III in the skin. Which of the following enzymes is most likely deficient?

<p>Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Heparin increases the activity of which of the following?

<p>Antithrombin III (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of action of warfarin as an anticoagulant?

<p>Inhibiting vitamin K epoxide reductase (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on heparin therapy experiences a significant drop in platelet count 7 days after starting treatment. What is the most appropriate course of action?

<p>Stop heparin and consider an alternative anticoagulant. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What laboratory test is most appropriate for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin therapy?

<p>Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with sickle cell disease presents with a sudden onset of severe pain in multiple locations. This is most likely due to:

<p>Sickle cells occluding vasculature (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which laboratory finding is characteristic of Hemolytic Anemia?

<p>Low Hemoglobin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with anemia also has chronic inflammation from rheumatoid arthritis. What is most likely the cause of the anemia?

<p>Increased hepcidin production (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What finding is expected from a patient with aplastic anemia?

<p>Pancytopenia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient being treated for TB is experiencing side effects. What is most likely the cause of sideroblastic anemia in this case?

<p>B6 Deficiency Induced By Isoniazid (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with dark urine and displays a history of recent diarrheal illness. What is the most likely cause?

<p>E. coli O157:H or Shigella Infection (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient exposed to nitrites presents with cyanosis and is unresponsive to oxygen therapy. What condition is most likely?

<p>Methemoglobinemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with fatigue, weakness, and pallor. Lab results show low hemoglobin, low serum iron, and low ferritin levels. What is a likely cause?

<p>Iron Deficiency Anemia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient who is of European decent has anemia, resulting in pigmented gallstones. Diagnosis shows a positive fragility test. What is the cause most likely?

<p>Mutation in the ankyrin gene (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 6 year old child has thumb abnormalities and short stature. What condition does this child most likely have?

<p>Fanconi Anemia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following physiological cell types is most susceptible to the effects of cytotoxic chemotherapeutic agents like 5-fluorouracil?

<p>Hair follicle cells (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it necessary to co-administer other drugs with 6-mercaptopurine (6-MP) and azathioprine for maximal efficacy?

<p>To inhibit xanthine oxidase and thiopurine methyltransferase, enzymes that inactivate these drugs (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is studying the effects of a novel drug on DNA replication. Which enzyme should be targeted to inhibit Topoisomerase I?

<p>Irinotecan (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is the mechanism of action of methotrexate, trimethoprim and pyrimethamine?

<p>Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the mechanism by which doxorubicin causes dilated cardiomyopathy?

<p>Generating free radicals that cause lipid peroxidation of myocyte membranes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Immune checkpoint inhibitors such as pembrolizumab work by:

<p>Blocking the interaction between PD-1 and its ligand, thereby restoring T-cell response (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Increased expression of P-glycoprotein in tumor cells leads to drug resistance by which mechanism?

<p>Increased efflux of the drug out of the cell (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Monoclonal antibodies work by binding to immune cells to help get rid of a cell. Which cell type has been proven to help with antitumor treatment?

<p>NK cells with granzymes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A young adult presents with a mediastinal mass, elevated AFP and Beta-hCG. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

<p>Nonseminomatous germ cell tumor (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with decreased platelets, recurrent nosebleeds, easy bruising and ecchymoses following a viral illness. All other cell lines are normal. Which condition is suspected?

<p>Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient experiences a thrombotic event and has pruritus, especially after hot showers. Lab results show increased levels of erythrocytes, platelets and WBCs. Which condition is most likely?

<p>Polycythemia Vera (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient diagnosed with Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP) has a deficiency in which enzyme?

<p>ADAMTS13 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which term describes monoclonal antibody directed against CD20 antigens?

<p>Rituximab (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI) could benefit from a thrombolytic medication with which mechanism of action?

<p>Helping conversion of plasminogen to plasmin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoing chemotherapy with vincristine is most at risk for which side effect?

<p>Neurotoxicity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with migratory superficial thrombophlebitis. Which condition is most likely associated with this presentation?

<p>Cancer (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A cancer patient undergoing chemotherapy develops tumor lysis syndrome. Which electrolyte imbalances are expected?

<p>Hyperkalemia and hypocalcemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A adolescent presents with a large mediastinal mass and petechiae on the trunk. Which condition is most likely?

<p>Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What genetic translocation is associated with Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APML)?

<p>t(15;17) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A blood smear shows lymphocytes (B cells) with cytoplasmic projections. Which condition is indicated by this blood smear?

<p>Hairy Cell Leukemia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the underlying cause of avascular necrosis in sickle cell disease?

<p>Sickle cells occluding vasculature (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where is von Willebrand factor (vWF) synthesized?

<p>Endothelial cells and megakaryocytes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the expected finding in a ristocetin cofactor assay for a patient with von Willebrand disease?

<p>Deficient (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does erythropoietin (EPO) stimulate red blood cell production?

<p>By increasing RBC differentiation via the JAK2/STAT pathway in the bone marrow (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What causes a normocytic anemia in patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

<p>Decreased EPO secretion (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the physiological mechanism that explains paresthesia and muscle spasms in patients receiving high-volume blood transfusions?

<p>Hypocalcemia due to citrate chelation of calcium (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient who received a blood transfusion develops a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction (DHTR). What is the underlying mechanism?

<p>Development of antibodies against minor RBC antigens from a prior exposure (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does decreased vitamin K absorption in cystic fibrosis affect coagulation?

<p>It decreases the production of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with chronic disease, inflammation and high indirect bilirubin concentration. What type of anemia is most likely?

<p>Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does Pyruvate Kinase deficiency cause anemia?

<p>Decreased ATP results in RBC lysis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has normal arterial PO2, but low arterial O2 content. What does this indicate?

<p>Anemia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the type of inheritance associated with G6PD deficiency?

<p>X-linked recessive (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with Thalassemia, and is found to have mutations in the Beta-globin gene. Which type of Thalassemia is indicated?

<p>Beta-Thalassemia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to use blood transfusions from unrelated donors with matched HLA subtypes that do not possess a genomic defect?

<p>Avoiding exacerbation of the patient's underlying genomic defect (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is Graft Versus Host Disease and Graft rejection is not a worry in autologous transplantation?

<p>The cells are from the patients self (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Rhesus alloimmunization makeup

Anti-Rh immunoglobulin consists of anti-D IgG antibodies that bind to Rh-positive fetal erythrocytes.

When to give Anti-Rh immunoglobulin

Administer to Rh-negative women during gestation, immediately postpartum, or after trauma.

Bruise color: Green

Green color in bruises caused by biliverdin, a product of heme catabolism.

Cause of Acute intermittent porphyria

Deficiency in porphobilinogen deaminase

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Presentation of Acute intermittent porphyria

Irrational behavior, abdominal pain, burgundy urine, tingling of the limbs

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Labs for Acute intermittent porphyria

Increased 5-aminolevulinic acid & porphobilinogen

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Treatment for Acute intermittent porphyria

Intravenous heme or glucose resolves the symptoms by downregulating ALA synthase, stopping the buildup of 5-ALA and porphobilinogen

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Presentation of Lead Poisoning

Old house!

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Heme synthesis effect of Lead Poisoning

Stops ALA dehydratase & Ferrochelatase

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Porphyria cutanea tarda

Defective enzyme (uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase) in heme synthesis that causes photosensitivity and hyperpigmentation

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Heparin Uses

DVT, PE, acute coronary syndrome

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Adverse effects of Heparin

This is when platelets drop more than 50% within 5-10 days of starting therapy

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Warfarin MOA

Inhibit Vit K epoxide reductase by competing with Vit K which depletes prothrombin and factors VII, IX, X.

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Reversal of Warfarin

Vitamin K (slower) & Fresh frozen plasma (faster)

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Autoimmune association with anemia

Autoimmune conditions are associated with autoimmune hemolytic anemia which is extravascular and IgG mediated (warm)

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Aplastic Anemia

Failure or destruction of hematopoietic stem cells

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Requirement for Bone Marrow Transplant

Matching HLA subtypes

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Methemoglobinemia

Nitrite exposure pushes methemoglobin formation by causing iron to be Fe3+

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Drugs causing immune response

Penicillins and cephalosporins

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Pyruvate Kinase deficiency

Decreased ATP production causes a decreased ability for RBCs to maintain their structure. This causes RBCs to be removed by spleen.

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Cytotoxic Chemotherapy

Attacks rapidly progressing cells, including physiological cells like hair, bone marrow, and gut mucosa.

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6-Mercaptopurine & Azathioprine

Inactivated by xanthine oxidase and thiopurine methyltransferase; administer with inhibitors for efficacy.

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Methotrexate, Trimethoprim, Pyrimethamine

Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase.

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Anthracyclines (Doxorubicin)

Generates free radicals to break DNA, leading to dilated cardiomyopathy.

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Pembrolizumab MOA

PD-1 inhibitor that restores the cytotoxic T-cell response.

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Chemotherapy Resistance via P-glycoprotein

Increased expression pumps drugs out, reducing effectiveness.

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Monoclonal Antibody - Host Response

Fc region binds immune cells; NK cells with granzymes induce apoptosis.

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Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura

Autoantibody-mediated destruction of platelets; look for decreased platelets, bruising and nosebleeds.

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INR

International normalized ratio that measures how fast blood clots.

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Polycythemia Vera

Increased production of all cell lineages due to JAK2 mutation; causes thrombotic events and pruritus.

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Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura

Decreased ADAMTS13 causes excessive platelet clumping and low platelets.

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Rituximab MOA

Monoclonal antibody directed against CD20 antigens; causes cytokine release.

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Thrombolytics/Fibrinolytics MOA

Help in converting plasminogen to plasmin which breaks down clots; used post-MI.

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Vinca Alkaloids

Microtubule inhibitors; Vincristine causes neurotoxicity, Vinblastine causes myelosuppression.

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Thrombophlebitis

Condition where blood clots form in veins.

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Coagulation Cascade Pathway

Series of reactions leading to thrombus formation involving intrinsic and extrinsic pathways.

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Tumor Lysis Syndrome

Large amount of tumor cells die and release intracellular contents into the bloodstream.

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Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)

Mediastinal mass, petechiae, identified by flow cytometry (CD3, TdT).

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Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)

Cancer of mature B cells with lots of CD20, causing anemia and thrombocytopenia.

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Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)

Neoplasm of myeloid cell line which will have auer rods if its over 20% of the cells.

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Avascular Necrosis

A gradual process where bone tissue dies due to insufficient blood supply, often in sickle cell disease.

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Von Willebrand Factor (vWF)

Hemostatic glycoprotein mediating platelet adherence. Synthesized by endothelial cells and megakaryocytes. Binds to subendothelial collagen.

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vWF Deficiency Presentation

Easy bruising, prolonged mucocutaneous bleeding, like gingival bleeding and heavy menses.

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Erythropoietin (EPO)

Glycoprotein hormone secreted by kidneys; increases RBC differentiation by acting on the bone marrow, works on JAK2/STAT

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EPO Deficiencies

CKD can cause a normocytic anemia due to decreased EPO secretion.

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Leukocytosis

Increase in leukocytes (white blood cells) in the blood.

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High volume blood transfusion side effects

Citrate anticoagulants chelate plasma calcium, leading to hypocalcemia which can show up as paresthesia.

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Delayed Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction (DHTR)

Patient previously exposed to a minor RBC antigen (like D antigen) develops antibodies.

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Anemia through O2 content

Arterial PO2 measures the oxygen getting into the blood from the lungs, while arterial O2 content measure the oxygen in the blood (bound and unbound).

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Thalassemia

Microcytic anemia; if patient has HBA2 then they most likely have a mutation in the Beta-globin gene.

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Autologous Transplantation

Transplant from self, avoids graft versus host disease and graft rejection.

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Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)

Neoplasm of myeloid cell line defined by the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome (translocation of chromosome 9 and 22) or BCR-ABL fusion gene.

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Mastocytosis

Abnormal proliferation of mast cells, correlated with increased histamine secretion. Diagnosis via skin biopsy.

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Reticulocytes

Immature RBCs; Wright-Giemsa stain shows bluish color due to ribosomal RNA.

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Study Notes

  • Hematology & Oncology covers chemotherapy, monoclonal antibodies, mediastinal masses, immune thrombocytopenic purpura, and other conditions.
  • Pharmacology (Heme/Onc) covers Rituximab, Thrombolytics / Fibrinolytics, Vinca Alkaloids, Thrombophlebitis, and Coagulation Cascade Pathway, leukemias, and other conditions.

Chemotherapy

  • Cytotoxic chemotherapy, which includes 5-fluorouracil, irinotecan, and leucovorin, targets rapidly growing cells found in neoplasms and physiological cells, such as hair, bone marrow, and gut mucosa.
  • 6-mercaptopurine (6-MP) & Azathioprine are immunosuppressants inactivated by xanthine oxidase and thiopurine methyltransferase.
  • Administer 6-MP and Azathioprine with drugs that inhibit these enzymes for maximal efficacy.
  • Topoisomerase I inhibitors include irinotecan and topotecan
  • Topoisomerase II inhibitors include etoposide and teniposide
  • Methotrexate, Trimethoprim, and Pyrimethamine inhibit dihydrofolate reductase.
  • Anthracyclines (doxorubicin) generate free radicals to break DNA and lead to dilated cardiomyopathy, presenting as heart failure with dyspnea and orthopnea.
  • Doxorubicin causes lipid peroxidation of myocyte membranes through free radicals.
  • Pembrolizumab is a PD-1 (programmed-death receptor) inhibitor that acts as a checkpoint inhibitor, downregulating the cytotoxic T-cell response, therefore inhibiting it will restore the T cell response.

Chemotherapy Resistance

  • Increased expression of P-glycoprotein, a transmembrane ATP-dependent efflux pump with broad specificity, contributes to chemotherapy resistance.

Monoclonal Antibody

  • The Fc region of these antibodies binds with immune cells to remove cells and only NK cells with granzymes induce apoptosis.
  • Macrophages and neutrophils engage in antibody-dependent cellular toxicity, however, their role in antitumor activity is unclear.

Mediastinal Masses

  • Common causes (4 Ts): Thymoma, teratoma (and other germ cell tumors, "terrible" lymphoma, and thyroid neoplasm.
  • Nonseminomatous germ cell tumors elevates AFP and Beta-hCG.
  • Thymomas are associated with myasthenia gravis.

Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura

  • Presentation: Decreased platelets, epistaxis (recurrent), easy bruising, ecchymoses, and can follow an upper respiratory tract infection (viral illness).
  • Autoantibody-mediated destruction of platelets (ONLY PLATELETS, THERE WILL NOT BE ANEMIA OR FEVER SEEN AS SEEN IN THROMBOTIC THROMBOCYTOPENIC PURPURA)

Lab Tests

  • INR (International Normalized Ratio) measures how fast blood clots.

Polycythemia Vera

  • A myeloproliferative neoplasm with increased production of all cell lineages (erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes) secondary to a JAK2 mutation (which codes for a non-receptor tyrosine kinase)
  • Presentation: Thrombotic event (this condition creates a hypercoagulable state) and pruritus, especially after hot showers (due to mast cell production and degranulation)
  • Labs: Increased Erythrocytes (increased Hb and Hematocrit), Increased Platelets, and Increased WBCs.

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic purpura

  • A thrombotic microangiopathy caused by a clotting problem
  • Pathophysiology: Decreased ADAMTS13 Enzyme (which breaks down von Willebrand factor) leads to excessive platelet clumping and low platelets.

Rituximab

  • A monoclonal antibody directed against CD20 antigens.
  • Infusion reaction: Occurs in nearly 50% of patients who receive rituximab for the first time
  • It binds to the CD20 on B cells, this causes B cells to release cytokines which can attribute to myalgias, fever, and occasionally anaphylactic symptoms.

Thrombolytics / Fibrinolytics

  • Name: End in "-plase" (alteplase, reteplase, tenecteplase).
  • Act by converting plasminogen to plasmin to breakdown blood clots.
  • Usage: Post-MI because of its role in reperfusion of the heart

Vinca Alkaloids

  • Examples include vincristine and vinblastine
  • MOA: Microtubule inhibitors
  • Vincristine side effects: Neurotoxicity
  • Vinblastine: Myelosuppression

Key Chemotoxicities

  • Cisplatin, Carboplatin → ototoxicity
  • Vincristine → peripheral neuropathy
  • Bleomycin, Busulfan → pulmonary fibrosis
  • Doxorubicin, Daunorubicin → cardiotoxicity
  • Trastuzumab → cardiotoxicity
  • Cisplatin, Carboplatin → nephrotoxicity
  • CYclophosphamide → hemorrhagic cystitis
  • Nonspecific common toxicities of nearly all cytotoxic chemotherapies include myelosuppression (neutropenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia), GI toxicity (nausea, vomiting, mucositis), and alopecia.

Thrombophlebitis

  • Condition where blood clots form in veins, leading to inflammation and swelling.
  • Multiple thrombi: Trousseau syndrome (migratory superficial thrombophlebitis).
  • Associated with cancer.

Coagulation Cascade Pathway

  • A series of reactions leading to thrombus formation through an intrinsic and extrinsic pathway.

Coagulation Cascade Pathway: Extrinsic

  • Initiated by trauma and involves factors VII and tissue factor.
  • Test: PT

Coagulation Cascade Pathway: Intrinsic

  • Initiated by damaged surface and involves factors: NOT VII (but has the rest of them up to X).
  • Test: PTT

Tumor Lysis Syndrome

  • Large amounts of dying tumor cells that release intracellular contents into the bloodstream causes this.
  • Cardiac effects (from increased K+ and decreased Ca2+) can result in arrhythmias and ECG changes.
  • Brain (from decreased Ca2+) can cause seizures and tetany.
  • Skeletal Muscle (from increased K+).
  • Kidneys (from increased uric acid and Phosphorous) can result in AKI from calcium phosphate crystals and uric acid crystals.
  • Uric acid precipitates (solidifies) in the DCT and CD (more acidic environment of nephron).

Leukemias: Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)

  • Presentation: Adolescent with large mediastinal mass, petechiae present on trunk.
  • Diagnosis: Flow cytometry identifying population of T lymphoblasts (CD3 and TdT).

Leukemias: Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)

  • Cancer of the blood, lymphocytes, but specifically mature B cells.
  • Therefore will have a lot of CD20.
  • Presentation: Asymptomatic for a long time but then develops anemia, leukocytosis (obviously lots of B cells), and thrombocytopenia.

Leukemias: Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)

  • Neoplasm of myeloid cell line
  • If blasts are over 20% = AML
  • Auer rods helpful for diagnosis (down to either AML or CML) .
  • In CML, there are more mature cells and fewer blasts.
  • AML is related to a deficiency in neutrophils after treatment
  • Risk factors: benzene, alkylating chemotherapy, radiation.

Leukemias: Acute promyelocytic Leukemia

  • An M3 variant of AML is associated with t(15;17) and will still have auer rods.
  • Genetic Translocation: Retinoic acid receptor alpha (RARA) gene on chromosome 17 and promyelocytic leukemia (PML) gene on chromosome 5
  • t(15;17) = APML

Leukemias: Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)

  • Defined by the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome (translocation of chromosome 9 and 22) or BCR-ABL fusion gene or neoplasm of myeloid cell line
  • Philadelphia chromosome can also be in ALL and AML, but it is still needed for diagnosis of CML
  • Active tyrosine kinase helps cause the malignancy.
  • Pathophysiology: Constitutive activation of the ABL1 tyrosine kinase
  • Labs: leukocytosis and increased myeloid cells.

Mastocytosis

  • Abnormal proliferation of mast cells correlated with increased histamine secretion.
  • Diagnosis: Skin biopsy with large clusters of mast cells that are positive for KIT (CD117).
  • Additional findings: Gastric hypersecretion

Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn

  • Caused by a blood type mismatch between mother and fetus leading to antibodies against fetal RBCs, resulting in hemolysis.
  • Rh Hemolytic Disease: Rh- mother and Rh+ fetus with first pregnancy.
  • During delivery, the mother is exposed to fetal blood, leading to anti-D IgG antibodies. Subsequent pregnancies with the Anti-D IgG Abs cross the placenta and attack the baby, causing hemolysis.
  • Symptoms include Kernicterus (deposition of unconjugated bilirubin in the brain, mostly at the basal ganglia, pons, and cerebellum).
  • Yellow discoloration indicates hyperbilirubinemia.

Reticulocytes

  • Immature RBCs
  • Wright-Giemsa staining will show them bluish due to ribosomal RNA

Burkitt Lymphoma

  • Rare, aggressive type of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma affecting mature B cells
  • Associated with EBV infection
  • Presentation: Jaw mass, rapidly enlarging, lymphadenopathy, African person
  • Cause: Translocation of the MYC gene on chromosome 8 to chromosome 14 [t(8;14)], caused by MYC overexpression
  • Histologically numerous mitotic figures and apoptotic bodies. Can be characterized by a "starry sky" appearance.

Hairy Cell Leukemia

  • A mature B-cell tumor
  • Presentation: Middle-aged men, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, dry bone marrow aspiration
  • Blood smear: lymphocytes (B cells) with cytoplasmic projections

Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis

  • Proliferation and accumulation of Langerhans cells
  • Presentation: Child, lytic bone lesion (most commonly on the skull)
  • Biopsy: langerhan cells and Eosinophils also present
  • Markers: CD1, CD1a, S-100

Plasma Cell Dyscrasias: Multiple Myeloma

  • Blood cancer affecting plasma cells (B cells)
  • There are too many abnormal plasma cells
  • Presentation: Bone pain, kidney issues/lesions, and hypercalcemia.
  • Myeloma cells produce RANKL
  • CRAB presentation is useful for this disease; hyperCalcemia, Renal insufficiency, Anemia, Bone lytic lesions.
  • Pathophysiology: malignant Plasma cells secrete: IL-1, TNF-alpha, RANKL
  • The light chains created by the plasma cells can misfold and form amyloid fibrils
  • LAMBDA LIGHT CHAINS
  • 10% plasma cells on bone marrow sample = multiple myeloma

  • M Spike: Associated with overproduction of monoclonal immunoglobulins (use serum protein electrophoresis)

Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance

  • Overproduction of any Ig type (but the M spike < 3 g/dL)
  • Presentation: Asymptomatic

Cells of the Blood: Thrombocytes

  • ADP effect on platelets causes rapid and irreversible aggregation through action on P2Y1 and P2Y12 receptors.

Sickle Cell Disease

Complications

  • Avascular necrosis can occur, presenting with gradual onset (2hrs) of localized pain.
  • Sickle cells occluding vasculature lead to vaso-occlusive crisis and avascular necrosis.

Coagulopathies

Von Willebrand Factor (vWF)

  • The hemostatic glycoprotein, synthesized by endothelial cells and megakaryocytes, mediates platelet adherence.
  • It binds to subendothelial collagen.
  • Deficiency can manifest as easy bruising and prolonged mucocutaneous bleeding like gingival bleeding and heavy menses.
  • Testing: An abnormal ristocetin cofactor assay indicates deficiency.

Erythropoietin (EPO)

  • A glycoprotein hormone secreted by kidneys, increases RBC differentiation by acting in bone marrow.
  • It works on JAK2/STAT
  • Deficiencies: Chronic Kidney Disease can cause a normocytic anemia with decreased EPO secretion and therefore decreased RBC count.
  • Secretion occurs in the kidney by peritubular fibroblast cells in renal cortex

Leukocytosis

  • Leukocytosis is defined as increased leukocytes in the blood.
  • Demarginalization of neutrophils from endothelial attachments occurs in leukocyte adhesion deficiency therefore causing leukocytosis.
  • Infection leads to cytokine release, triggering increased release of immune cells and leukocytes from the bone marrow, increasing Leukocytes.

Blood Transfusion

High Volume Blood Transfusion Side Effects

  • Citrate anticoagulants chelate plasma calcium, can lead to hypocalcemia, causing peripheral neuromuscular excitability (paresthesia, muscle spasms).

  • Delayed Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction (DHTR): Patient previously exposed to a minor RBC antigen (D antigen, from pregnancy or prior transfusion), develop antibodies which causes a response when reintroduced

Cystic Fibrosis

  • Often causes decreased absorption of fat-soluble vitamins (ADEK).
  • Decreased vitamin K will decrease the ability of vitamin K dependent coagulation factors.
  • Look for prolonged PT (extrinsic pathway).

Anemias

Extravascular Autoimmune

  • Autoimmune conditions like SLE are associated with autoimmune hemolytic anemia which is extravascular and IgG mediated (warm).
  • Presentation: Chronic disease (inflammation), causing a high indirect bilirubin concentration.

Pyruvate Kinase Deficiency

  • Decreased ATP production causes a decreased ability for RBCs to maintain their structure allowing them to be removed by the spleen.
  • Causes hyperplasia of the spleen (red pulp hyperplasia).

Anemia Through O2 Content

Labs

  • Arterial PO2 reflects the amount of oxygen getting into the blood from the lungs.
  • Arterial O2 content reflects the amount of oxygen in the blood (bound and unbound).
  • Mixed Venous PO2 is the amount of oxygen dissolved in the blood after the blood has passed through the body (not including oxygen that is bound to Hb).
  • Mixed Venous O2 is the total amount of oxygen in the blood, including free and bound to Hb.

Concept

  • Normal arterial PO2 and low arterial O2 content means there is enough oxygen in the blood but there is not a lot bound to Hb implying deficient Hb and ultimately anemia.

G6PD Deficiency

  • X-linked recessive inheritance.

Thalassemia

  • Results in microcytic anemia.

Types and Differentiation

  • A patient with HBA2 most likely has a mutation in the Beta-globin gene, inheritance is dependent on severity

Bone Marrow Transplant

  • Requires matching HLA subtypes.
  • Should they have genomic defects, administer blood transfusions from an unrelated donor.

Autologous Transplantation

  • Transplant is from self.

Risks

  • Reactivation of latent diseases may happen due to transient immunosuppression.
  • No risk of graft versus host disease or graft rejection

Relationship to Partial Pressure of Arterial Oxygen

  • PaO2 reflects the amount of dissolved oxygen in the blood plasma, not the amount of blood bound to hemoglobin.
  • Hemoglobin binding of oxygen and iron oxidation do not change throughout the condition.

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