H&H module 8:3

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Questions and Answers

Which medication class is known to decrease automaticity of the SA node and reduce atrial and ventricular contractility?

  • Class III: Potassium channel blockers
  • Class II: β-Adrenergic blockers (correct)
  • Class IV: Calcium channel blockers
  • Class I: Sodium channel blockers

A patient with sustained ventricular tachycardia (VT) is hemodynamically stable and has preserved left ventricular function. Which medication would be the MOST appropriate initial treatment?

  • IV lidocaine (correct)
  • Oral digoxin
  • Transcutaneous pacing
  • IV amiodarone

Which of the following rhythms requires the operator to ensure the defibrillator is in synchronized mode?

  • Asystole
  • Pulseless ventricular tachycardia
  • Ventricular fibrillation
  • Supraventricular tachycardia (correct)

A patient presents with a third-degree AV block. What hemodynamic consequence is MOST likely to result from this condition?

<p>Decreased cerebral blood flow (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is in atrial fibrillation for longer than 48 hours. Which intervention is essential prior to cardioversion to minimize the risk of stroke?

<p>Anticoagulation therapy with warfarin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of treatment for atrial fibrillation?

<p>Prevention of cerebral embolic events (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is experiencing symptomatic bradycardia. If medications are ineffective, what intervention is MOST likely to be used as a first-line treatment?

<p>Transcutaneous pacemaker (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST important nursing consideration when caring for a patient with premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)?

<p>Assessing the patient's hemodynamic status (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended energy level for initial shocks when using a biphasic defibrillator?

<p>150-200 J (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You are providing discharge instructions to a patient with a newly implanted permanent pacemaker. Which activity should you instruct the patient to avoid for several weeks after the procedure?

<p>Lifting the operative-side arm above shoulder level (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's ECG shows a prolonged PR interval of 0.24 seconds. This finding is MOST indicative of which type of AV block?

<p>First-degree AV block (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of atrial fibrillation is scheduled for cardioversion. The patient asks why they need to take anticoagulants before the procedure. What is the MOST appropriate response?

<p>Anticoagulants reduce the risk of blood clots forming in your atria and causing a stroke. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When performing synchronized cardioversion, what is the MOST important action to take after the procedure?

<p>Monitor the patient for signs of recurrent dysrhythmias (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with ventricular fibrillation. What is the FIRST-line treatment for this dysrhythmia?

<p>Defibrillation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement BEST describes the action of Class IA antiarrhythmic drugs on the ECG?

<p>Widen QRS and Prolong QT interval (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What teaching should be included for a patient and caregiver following the placement of an implantable cardioverter defibrillator(ICD)

<p>Report any signs of possible infection to the incision site, such as redness (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a sudden onset of a wide-complex tachycardia. Determining the patient’s stability guides subsequent interventions. What assessment finding BEST indicates the patient’s instability?

<p>A blood pressure of 80/60 mm HG (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient who has chronic atrial fibrillation is scheduled for an elective cardioversion. Which medication should the nurse anticipate the patient being prescribed prior to the procedure?

<p>An anticoagulant medication (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

As you are preparing your patient for synchronized cardioversion, what is a critical step?

<p>Select the defibrillator's synchronize mode. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following the successful insertion of a temporary transvenous pacemaker, for what potential complication should the nurse MOST closely monitor?

<p>Bleeding or hematoma formation at the insertion site (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Synchronized Cardioversion

Therapy for patients with hemodynamically unstable ventricular or supraventricular tachydysrhythmias.

Premature Ventricular Contraction (PVC)

A contraction originating in an ectopic focus in the ventricles; premature occurrence of a wide, distorted QRS complex.

Ventricular Tachycardia

When three or more consecutive PVCs occur.

VT without a pulse

A life-threatening situation that needs treatment in the same manner as ventricular fibrillation; CPR and defibrillation are first-line treatments.

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Ventricular Fibrillation

A severe derangement of heart rhythm characterized by irregular undulations of varying shapes/amplitude, ventricle is simply "quivering".

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Asystole

The total absence of ventricular electrical activity; patients are unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic.

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Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA)

Electrical activity observed on the ECG, but there is no mechanical activity of the ventricles and the patient has no pulse.

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Sudden Cardiac Death (SCD)

Death from a cardiac cause; most result specifically from VT or ventricular fibrillation.

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Defibrillation

Most effective method of terminating VF and pulseless VT. Must be done rapidly for successful outcome.

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Transcutaneous Pacemaker (TCP)

Consists of a power source and rate and voltage control that is attached to two multifunction electrode pads.

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Artificial Cardiac Pacemaker

An electronic device used to pace the heart when the conduction pathway is damaged/diseased.

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Implantable Cardioverter-Defibrillator (ICD)

Pulse generator placed subcutaneously over the pectoral muscle that monitors heart rate and rhythm to identify VT and VF.

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Radiofrequency Ablation Therapy

Radiofrequency energy used to ablate areas of the conduction system, treating tachyarrhythmias.

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First-Degree AV Block

Every impulse is conducted to ventricles, but duration of AV conduction is prolonged; PR interval is prolonged.

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Second-Degree AV Black Type II Mobitz II Heart Block

Some impulses from the SA node are not conducted to the ventricles; can have ratios of 2:1, 3:1, etc.

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Third-Degree AV Block

No impulses from the atria are conducted to the ventricles; the atria/ventricles contract independently.

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Study Notes

Vector Space Definition

  • A vector space is a non-empty set V of objects called vectors.
  • Two operations are defined: addition and scalar multiplication.
  • Ten axioms must be satisfied for V to be a vector space.

Axioms of a Vector Space

  • Closure under addition: If vectors u and v are in V, then u + v is also in V.
  • Commutativity of addition: u + v = v + u.
  • Associativity of addition: (u + v) + w = u + (v + w).
  • Additive identity: There exists a zero vector 0 in V such that u + 0 = u.
  • Additive inverse: For each u in V, there exists -u in V such that u + (-u) = 0.
  • Closure under scalar multiplication: If u is in V and c is a scalar, then cu is in V.
  • Distributivity: c(u + v) = cu + cv.
  • Distributivity: (c + d)u = cu + du.
  • Associativity of scalar multiplication: c(du) = (cd)u.
  • Scalar identity: 1u = u.

Key Remarks

  • V must be closed under both addition and scalar multiplication.
  • Scalar multiplication must be well-behaved, adhering to distributive and associative properties.

Vector Space Examples

  • $\mathbb{R}^n$ (n-dimensional real coordinate space) is a vector space.
  • $M_{m \times n}$ (the set of all $m \times n$ matrices with real entries) is a vector space.
  • $\mathbb{P}_n$, the set of polynomials of degree at most n (including the zero polynomial), having real coefficients, is a vector space.

Properties of Vector Spaces

  • For a vector space V, vector u in V, and scalar c:
  • 0u = 0 (Zero scalar times a vector equals the zero vector).
  • c0 = 0 (Scalar times the zero vector equals the zero vector).
  • (-1)u = -u (Multiplying a vector by -1 results in its additive inverse).
  • If cu = 0, then either c = 0 or u = 0 (If a scalar times a vector equals zero, then either the scalar or the vector must be zero).

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