Test 2-1

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Questions and Answers

When calculating performance for a wet or contaminated runway, what is the net flight path clearance of obstacles?

  • 25 ft instead of 45 ft on a dry runway
  • 15 ft instead of 50 ft on a dry runway
  • 35 ft instead of 50 ft on a dry runway
  • 15 ft instead of 35 ft on a dry runway (correct)

What ratio defines the 'climb gradient'?

  • Increase of altitude to distance over ground, expressed as a percentage
  • True airspeed to rate of climb
  • Rate of climb to true airspeed
  • Increase of altitude to horizontal air distance, expressed as a percentage (correct)

What is the definition of total air temperature?

  • Static air temperature plus adiabatic compression rise (correct)
  • Static air temperature plus isothermal compression rise
  • Highest temperature in a specified volume
  • Static air temperature plus isobaric compression rise

Which statement regarding braking and landing is correct?

<p>Deployment of lift dumpers increases the effectiveness of the wheel brakes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum certified altitude for the A321 aircraft?

<p>39800 ft (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If the optimum altitude is FL340, what is the approximate extra fuel burn if cruising at FL360 and FL320? (VVCR to VVNB)

<p>OPT + 2000 (F360): 2.4%; OPT – 2000 (FL320): 1.5% (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When calculating take-off field length, what percentages of headwind and tailwind components are considered?

<p>50% headwind and 150% tailwind (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the alpha speed lock function operate?

<p>Inhibits slat retraction during inadvertent movement of the flap selector at high AOA or low speeds (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In normal operation, where are the thrust levers positioned after reaching the thrust reduction altitude?

<p>CLB (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the standard procedure for calling a Flight Attendant from the cockpit?

<p>Using an overhead FWD or AFT call push button. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are Mmo and Vmo limits indicated on the Primary Flight Display (PFD) in normal law?

<p>None of the above. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If the LOWER ECAM display unit (DU) fails, how can the information be retrieved?

<p>Both A and B are correct. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is oxygen provided to the crew?

<p>Single bottle. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

With the autopilot engaged, what happens when either sidestick is moved?

<p>False, moving either sidestick will cause the autopilot(s) to disengage. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When selected ON, the APU START push button will:

<p>Start the APU if the APU MASTER SW was previously selected ON. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

While in-flight, operating in Normal law, what occurs in the Alpha prot range?

<p>The sidestick controller and flight controls revert to the AOA mode, and side stick deflection is proportional to AOA. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After a single DMC failure, how can a crewmember recover the affected display?

<p>Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC with DMC #3. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When the EMER EXIT LT selector is in the ARM position, what triggers the activation of the emergency lights and exit signs?

<p>DC ESS SHED bus unpowered (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Normal law during flight, what is commanded by sidestick movement followed by a return to neutral?

<p>A load factor proportional to stick deflection, then maintain one G flight corrected for pitch attitude. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Holding the instinctive disconnect push button for more than 15 seconds will:

<p>Disengage the A/THR (including A.Floor) for the remainder of the flight. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

With only the accumulator as a pressure source, how many brake applications are available on the alternate brake system?

<p>Seven applications of the brake pedals. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the status of the pack flow control valves during engine start?

<p>They automatically close. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When does the oil quantity indication begin to pulse?

<p>Decreasing below 5 qts. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which action does the HORN SHUTOFF button on the EVAC panel perform?

<p>Silences EVAC signal in cockpit. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an automatic start, what components does the FADEC control?

<p>The start valves, igniters, HP and LP fuel valves, and fuel flow. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

To start the APU:

<p>BAT 1 and 2 push buttons must be selected to ON. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When should the Ram Air valve by used?

<p>Must be manually activated. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a Bleed Monitoring Computer (BMC) detects a bleed leak, which action occurs?

<p>All valves that could supply pneumatic air to the area of the bleed leak will automatically close. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What functions are performed with each turn of the gravity gear extension handle?

<p>Shutoff hydraulic pressure, open doors, unlock gear. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

With the APU running, the APU BLEED push button selected ON, and the X BLEED selector in AUTO, how is bleed air supplied?

<p>Supply pneumatic air to both sides of the aircraft because the pneumatic crossbleed valve automatically opens. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

While flying with A/THR active, if the speed knob is pulled and a speed slower than Alpha prot is selected, what speed will the aircraft decelerate to?

<p>Vls. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After performing a gravity extension of the landing gear, can normal landing gear operation be restored if green hydraulic pressure is available?

<p>It may be possible if the gravity extension was not caused by a failure of the landing gear mechanism. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What abnormal engine conditions will cause the FADEC to automatically abort a start?

<p>A hot start, an overtemp, a stalled start or no lightup. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

On the FMA, what is the difference between '-FD2' and '2FD-'?

<p>1 off, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 inop. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the event an aft cargo compartment smoke detector detects smoke, what will be generated?

<p>A MASTER WARN, CRC and an ECAM message will be generated. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When are the Takeoff Inhibit and Landing Inhibit functions active?

<p>TO 1500 feet AGL, LND below 750 feet AGL. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If, during a normal flight, the BUS TIE push button is depressed to OFF, what will happen to the electrical power supply?

<p>None. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For flight crew, when are quick-donning oxygen masks required on pressurized aircraft?

<p>25000 ft (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What must the pilot in command ensure in icing conditions?

<p>Ensure holdover time has not exceeded the time since de-icing started. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should the pilot in control call the cabin crew in the event of pilot incapacitation?

<p>PA: 'Cockpit speaking, Purser required in the cockpit' (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the lowest Minimum Descent Height (MDH) allowed for a non-precision approach based on VOR?

<p>300ft. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What planning minima are applied to alternate airports for the different types of approaches?

<p>CAT II, III: CAT I minima; CAT I: NPA minima; NPA: minima plus 200ft/1000m; Circling: Circlining minima (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rescue and firefighting airport category for the A321?

<p>7 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does MSA stand for?

<p>Minimum sector altitude (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the meteorological term for an increase in temperature with altitude through a layer?

<p>An inversion. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of tropospheric heating?

<p>Heating from the ground below. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the abbreviation NSC stand for in aviation weather reports?

<p>Nil Significant cloud. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Despite maintaining a constant altimeter reading, an aircraft is losing altitude. What could be the cause?

<p>Flying towards low pressure. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about dew point is correct?

<p>The dew point of a sample of air varies with the temperature of the sample. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The amount of water vapor which air can hold largely depends on:

<p>Air temperature. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Net flight path on a wet/contaminated runway

The net flight path must clear obstacles by 15 ft instead of 35 ft on a dry runway.

Climb Gradient

The ratio of the increase in altitude to the horizontal air distance.

Total Air Temperature

The static air temperature plus adiabatic compression rise.

Wheel brake effectiveness

Deployment of lift dumpers will increase wheel brake effectiveness.

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Max altitude for A321

39800 feet

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Extra fuel burnt VVCR to VVNB

OPT + 2000 (F360): 2.4%; OPT – 2000 (FL320): 1.5%

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Headwind/tailwind for takeoff

50% headwind and 150% tailwind

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Alpha speed lock function

Inhibits slat retraction during inadvertent flap selector movement at high AOA or low speeds.

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Thrust lever position after reduction

CLB

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Calling a Flight Attendant

Using an overhead FWD or AFT call push button.

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Mmo and Vmo depiction

None of the above.

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Retrieving Lower ECAM DU info

Both pressing/holding systems page pb and rotating the ECAM/ND XFER switch.

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Crew Oxygen

Single bottle.

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Autopilot engaged, sidestick movement

False, moving either sidestick will cause the autopilot(s) to disengage.

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APU START push button

Start the APU if the APU MASTER SW was previously selected ON.

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Alpha prot range in Normal Law

The sidestick controller and flight controls revert to the AOA mode, and side stick deflection is proportional to AOA.

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DMC failure recovery

Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC with DMC #3.

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EMER EXIT LT Activation

DC ESS SHED bus unpowered.

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Normal Law, Sidestick Movement

A load factor proportional to stick deflection, then maintain one G flight corrected for pitch attitude.

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Instinctive disconnect push button

Disengage the A/THR (including A.Floor) for the remainder of the flight.

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Alternate brake system accumulator

Seven applications of the brake pedals.

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Pack Flow Control Valves Behavior

They automatically close.

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Oil Quantity Pulsing

Decreasing below 5 qts.

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HORN SHUTOFF function

Silences EVAC signal in cockpit.

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FADEC controls in automatic start

The start valves, igniters, HP and LP fuel valves, and fuel flow.

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APU Start Requirement

BAT 1 and 2 push buttons must be selected to ON.

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Ram Air Valve Activation

Must be manually activated.

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BMC detects a bleed leak

All valves that could supply pneumatic air to the area of the bleed leak will automatically close.

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Gravity gear extension handle

Shut off hydraulic pressure, open doors, unlock gear.

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APU BLEED and X BLEED

Supply pneumatic air to both sides of the aircraft because the pneumatic cross-bleed valve automatically opens.

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A/THR active, speed knob pulled

Vls.

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Restore landing gear after gravity extension

It may be possible if the gravity extension was not caused by a failure of the landing gear mechanism.

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FADEC abort a start

A hot start, an overtemp, a stalled start or no lightup.

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-FD2 and 2FD- difference

1 off, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 inop.

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Aft cargo smoke detection

A MASTER WARN, CRC and an ECAM message will be generated.

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T.O. INHIBIT and LDG INHIBIT active

TO 1500 feet AGL, LND below 750 feet AGL.

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BUS TIE push button to OFF

None.

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Quick-fit Oxygen Masks Required

25000 ft

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Icing conditions

Ensure holdover time has not exceeded the time since de-icing started.

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Pilot Incapacitation Protocol

PA: "Cockpit speaking, Purser required in the cockpit"

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Non-precision Approach MDH

300ft.

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Study Notes

Performance Calculations for Wet or Contaminated Runways

  • The net flight path clears obstacles by 15 ft instead of 35 ft on dry runway when calculating performance.

Climb Gradient Definition

  • Climb gradient signifies the increase of altitude to horizontal air distance, expressed as a percentage.

Total Air Temperature

  • Total air temperature, also known as TAT is the static air temperature plus adiabatic compression rise.

Correct Statement Regarding Wheel Brakes

  • Deploying life dumpers will increase the effectiveness of the wheel brakes.

Maximum Altitude for A321

  • The maximim altitude for the A321 is 39800ft.

Extra Fuel Consumption

  • When flying between VVCR and VVNB, with OPT ALT at F340, cruising at F360 results in OPT + 2000 (F360): 2.4% fuel burn. Cruising at FL320 results in OPT – 2000 (FL320): 1.5% fuel burn.

Take-off Field Length Calculation

  • When calculating take-off field length, 50% of the headwind and 150% of the tailwind are taken into account.

Alpha Speed Lock Function

  • The Alpha speed lock, inhibits slat retraction during inadvertent flap selector movement at high AOA (Angle of Attack) or low speeds

Thrust Levers After Thrust Reduction Altitude

  • The thrust levers are positioned in the CLB detent during normal operation after thrust reduction altitude.

Calling a Flight Attendant

  • Use an overhead FWD or AFT call push button to call a flight attendant.

Mmo and Vmo Limits

  • Mmo and Vmo limits are not depicted with any specific indicators on each PFD in normal law.

Retrieving Information After Lower ECAM DU Failure

  • In the event of a LOWER ECAM DU failure, information can be retrieved by pressing and holding the related systems page push button on the ECAM control panel to display the page on the UPPER ECAM, or rotating the ECAM/ND XFER switch to transfer the LOWER ECAM page to the Captain or First Officer's ND.

Crew Oxygen Provision

  • Crew oxygen is provided via single bottle.

Autopilot and Sidestick Movement

  • Autopilot will disengage if either sidestick is moved while autopilot is engaged.

APU START Push Button Function

  • When selected ON, the APU START push button initiates the APU if the APU MASTER SW was previously selected ON.

In-Flight Normal Law & Alpha Prot

  • In Alpha prot range, the sidestick controller and flight controls revert to AOA mode, with side stick deflection proportional to AOA.

Crew Recovery After DMC Failure

  • After a single DMC failure, rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC with DMC #3 to recover the display.

Emergency Exit Lights Activation

  • The emergency lights and exit signs activate when the DC ESS SHED bus is unpowered with the EMER EXIT LT selector in the ARM position.

Sidestick Command in Normal Law

  • Movement of the sidestick and subsequent return to neutral commands a load factor proportional to stick deflection, then maintain one G flight corrected for pitch attitude while in flight operating in Normal Law.

A/THR Disengagement

  • Holding the instinctive disconnect push button for more than fifteen seconds disengages the A/THR (including A.Floor) for the remainder of the flight.

Alternate Brake System Accumulator

  • If the accumulator on the alternate brake system is your only pressure source, the system will provide seven applications of the brake pedals

Pack Flow Control Valves

  • The pack flow control valves automatically close during engine start.

Oil Quantity Indication

  • Oil quantity indication begins to pulse when decreasing below 5 qts.

HORN SHUTOFF on EVAC Panel

  • The HORN SHUTOFF on the EVAC panel silences the EVAC signal in the cockpit.

FADEC Controls During Automatic Start

  • During an automatic start, the FADEC controls the start valves, igniters, HP and LP fuel valves, and fuel flow.

APU Start Procedure

  • To start the APU, BAT 1 and 2 push buttons must be selected to ON.

Ram Air Valve

  • The Ram Air valve must be manually activated.

BMC Detects a Bleed Leak

  • If a BMC detects a bleed leak, all valves that could supply pneumatic air to the area of the bleed leak will automatically close.

Gravity Gear Extension Handle

  • Each turn of the gravity gear extension handle shuts off hydraulic pressure, opens doors, and unlocks gear.

APU with X BLEED to AUTO

  • With the APU running, the APU BLEED push button selected ON and the X BLEED selector to AUTO, APU will supply pneumatic air to both sides of the aircraft because the pneumatic crossbleed valve automatically opens.

A/THR Active with Speed Knob Pulled

  • When flying with A/THR active, pulling and turning the speed knob to a speed slower than Alpha prot, the aircraft will slow to Vls.

Restoring Landing Gear After Gravity Extension

  • If green hydraulic pressure is available, normal landing gear operation may be restored after a gravity extension. It might be possible, if the gravity extension was not caused by a failure of the landing gear mechanism.

FADEC Automatically Aborts Start

  • The FADEC automatically aborts a start due to a hot start, overtemp, stalled start, or no lightup.

FMA Differences

  • The difference between -FD2 and 2FD- on the FMA is 1 off, 2 engaged versus 2 engaged, 1 inop.

Aft Cargo Compartment Smoke Detection

  • In the event of smoke detection in the aft cargo compartment, a MASTER WARN, CRC, and an ECAM message will be generated.

T.O. INHIBIT and LDG INHIBIT

  • T.O. INHIBIT and LDG INHIBIT are active from TO 1500 feet AGL to LND below 750 feet AGL.

BUS TIE Button to OFF

  • During a normal flight, if the BUS TIE push button is depressed to 'OFF', there is no effect on power to the busses.

Oxygen Mask Requirements

  • Flight crew members are required to use quickly-fitted oxygen masks on any pressurized aircraft flying at a pressure altitude greater than 25000 ft.

Icing Conditions

  • The pilot in command confirms holdover time has not exceeded the time since de-icing started during icing conditions.

Pilot Incapacitation Protocol

  • A pilot should use the PA: "Cockpit speaking, Purser required in the cockpit." to call the cabin crew in case of pilot incapacitation.

Minimum Descent Height for VOR Approach

  • An operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a non-precision approach procedure which is based upon the use of a VOR; it should be 300ft.

Planning Minima for Alternates

  • CAT II, III: CAT I minima, CAT I: NPA minima, NPA: minima plus 200ft/1000m, and Circling: Circling minima are the planning minima for alternates for destination and enroute airports.

Rescue and Firefighting Airport Category for A321

  • The rescue and firefighting airport category for the A321 is 7.

Meaning of MSA

  • MSA means Minimum sector altitude.

Temperature Inversion

  • Occurs when the temperature increases with altitude through a layer.

Troposphere Heating Source

  • The majority of troposphere heating results from heating from the ground below.

NSC Definition

  • NSC stands for Nil Significant cloud.

Altimeter Reading and Altitude Loss

  • Aircraft losing altitude with a constant altimeter reading is caused by flying towards low pressure.

Dew Point

  • The dew point of a sample of air varies with the temperature of the sample.

Air's Water Vapour Capacity

  • The amount of water vapour in the air largely depends on its air temperature.

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