β-Lactam Antibiotics
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Questions and Answers

Which factor primarily dictates the spectrum of activity for β-lactam antibiotics across different bacterial species?

  • The rate of renal elimination of the specific β-lactam antibiotic.
  • The varying affinities of different bacterial species' Penicillin Binding Proteins (PBPs) for the β-lactam antibiotic. (correct)
  • The presence or absence of β-lactamase enzymes produced by the bacteria.
  • The concentration of the β-lactam antibiotic achieved in different tissues.

A patient with a severe penicillin allergy requires treatment for a Gram-positive bacterial infection. Which β-lactam antibiotic would be the LEAST appropriate to consider, given the potential for cross-reactivity?

  • Aztreonam, a monobactam.
  • Ceftriaxone, a cephalosporin.
  • Nafcillin, a penicillin. (correct)
  • Meropenem, a carbapenem.

Why is continuous infusion sometimes preferred over intermittent bolus dosing for β-lactam antibiotics?

  • To minimize the risk of nephrotoxicity associated with high peak concentrations.
  • To reduce the development of bacterial resistance by limiting exposure to sub-MIC concentrations.
  • To enhance the penetration of the antibiotic into specific tissues, such as the central nervous system.
  • To ensure that the drug concentration remains above the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) for a prolonged period. (correct)

Which of the following β-lactam antibiotics does NOT undergo primary renal elimination, necessitating dosage adjustments in patients with renal impairment?

<p>Cefoperazone (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of action of β-lactam antibiotics at the molecular level, leading to bacterial cell death?

<p>Inhibiting the transpeptidation reaction in peptidoglycan synthesis by binding to Penicillin Binding Proteins (PBPs). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed a beta-lactam antibiotic. Which resistance mechanism would NOT be overcome by combining it with a beta-lactamase inhibitor?

<p>Modification of the target penicillin-binding protein (PBP). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known penicillin allergy requires treatment for a confirmed Staphylococcus aureus infection. Considering the spectrum of activity and potential cross-reactivity, which of the following antibiotics would be MOST appropriate?

<p>Vancomycin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a severe hospital-acquired pneumonia is suspected of being infected with a multidrug-resistant Pseudomonas aeruginosa strain. Which beta-lactam/beta-lactamase inhibitor combination would provide the broadest spectrum of activity against this pathogen?

<p>Piperacillin/Tazobactam (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ceftriaxone is known to have a longer half-life compared to other beta-lactam antibiotics. This extended half-life MOST likely affects which of the following pharmacokinetic parameters?

<p>Frequency of dosing (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A microbiology lab reports that a bacterial isolate demonstrates resistance to penicillin due to an efflux pump mechanism. Which of the following strategies would MOST likely overcome this resistance?

<p>Using a penicillin with a modified chemical structure that is not recognized by the efflux pump. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with neurosyphilis. Considering the known properties of penicillin antibiotics, which of the following is MOST likely to influence the choice of penicillin G as the preferred treatment?

<p>Penetration into inflamed meninges. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A previously healthy individual develops acute bacterial meningitis. Initial CSF analysis suggests a Gram-positive bacterial infection. Empiric treatment with which of the following antibiotic regimens would provide the MOST comprehensive coverage?

<p>Ampicillin plus ceftriaxone. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Oral formulations are available for several penicillins; however, some are more susceptible to degradation in the acidic environment of the stomach. Which structural characteristic would likely contribute MOST to a penicillin's improved acid stability and oral bioavailability?

<p>The addition of a bulky acyl side chain. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following distinguishes ureidopenicillins from other penicillin types?

<p>Enhanced activity against <em>Pseudomonas aeruginosae</em>. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which β-lactamase inhibitors enhance the effectiveness of certain antibiotics?

<p>Protecting β-lactam antibiotics from degradation by bacterial enzymes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are cephalosporins categorized into 'generations?'

<p>To loosely classify their spectrum of activity and resistance to β-lactamases. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which bacterial species is commonly targeted by first-generation cephalosporins?

<p><em>Staphylococcus aureus</em> (MSSA) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which infections are commonly treated by first-generation cephalosporins?

<p>Skin and soft tissue infections. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key advantage of second-generation cephalosporins over first-generation cephalosporins?

<p>Broader spectrum of activity including some Gram-negative and anaerobic bacteria. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of third-generation cephalosporins?

<p>Enhanced activity against Gram-negative bacteria but less Gram-positive and anaerobic activity. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic distinguishes fourth and fifth-generation cephalosporins from earlier generations?

<p>Good activity against both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed a quinolone antibiotic. Considering the mechanism of action of quinolones, which cellular process is most directly affected?

<p>Interference with DNA replication by inhibiting topoisomerase and DNA gyrase. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a severe infection is being treated with ciprofloxacin. After a few days, the patient's condition worsens, and resistant bacteria are suspected. Which mechanism most likely contributes to the acquired resistance of the bacteria to ciprofloxacin?

<p>Mutations in the genes encoding topoisomerase or DNA gyrase. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of seizures is prescribed an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection. Considering the side effect profiles of different quinolones, which quinolone should be avoided or used with caution?

<p>Nalidixic acid, due to its association with central nervous system effects. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is investigating the antibacterial activity of a novel quinolone derivative. In comparison to earlier quinolones, what structural modification would most likely broaden its spectrum of activity to include Gram-positive bacteria such as Streptococcus pneumoniae?

<p>Modification to enhance binding affinity to both topoisomerase IV and DNA gyrase. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with a community-acquired pneumonia caused by a strain of Streptococcus pneumoniae exhibiting resistance to penicillin. Which quinolone would be the MOST appropriate choice for treatment, considering spectrum of activity and potential adverse effects?

<p>Levofloxacin, due to its enhanced activity against <em>Streptococcus pneumoniae</em>. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is aztreonam primarily reserved for penicillin-allergic patients?

<p>Aztreonam possesses a unique structure that minimizes cross-reactivity, offering a safer option for those with penicillin allergies. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known penicillin allergy requires treatment for a Gram-negative bacterial infection. Which of the following antibiotics would be the MOST appropriate choice, considering the information provided?

<p>Aztreonam (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements BEST describes the coverage of ertapenem compared to other carbapenems?

<p>Ertapenem does not cover <em>Pseudomonas aeruginosa</em> or enterococcus, limiting its use in certain polymicrobial infections. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) infection caused by an ESBL-producing Klebsiella pneumoniae strain is suspected in a patient. Considering the characteristics of carbapenems, which of the following would be the LEAST appropriate choice for empiric therapy?

<p>Ertapenem (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of mononucleosis develops a maculopapular rash after starting amoxicillin for a secondary bacterial infection. Which of the following BEST explains the likely cause of this reaction?

<p>The patient's mononucleosis may have altered their immune response, increasing the likelihood of a rash when exposed to amoxicillin. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports a previous allergic reaction to amoxicillin, describing a mild rash that appeared several days after starting the medication. How should this information MOST accurately guide antibiotic selection in the future?

<p>The patient should undergo allergy testing to confirm the amoxicillin allergy and assess cross-reactivity with other beta-lactams before using them. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the rationale for the statement that cross-reactivity rates among beta-lactam antibiotics have been overestimated?

<p>Earlier cross-reactivity estimates may have been inflated due to inaccuracies in patient reports and impurities in antibiotic manufacturing processes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the PRIMARY reason that doripenem and ertapenem are typically not the preferred carbapenems for treating hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP)?

<p>Doripenem and ertapenem lack reliable activity against <em>Pseudomonas aeruginosa</em>, a common pathogen in HAP infections. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor contributes LEAST to the risk of Torsades de Pointes (TdP) in patients receiving QT-prolonging medications?

<p>Hyperkalemia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with advanced age and known cardiac disease is prescribed an antimicrobial. Which consideration is MOST critical to minimize the risk of QT prolongation?

<p>Selecting an antimicrobial known to have minimal P450 interactions. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might azithromycin be considered the safest macrolide regarding QT prolongation?

<p>It has no significant P450 interactions, minimizing the potential for drug-induced QT prolongation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which fluoroquinolone antibiotic has the MOST evidence from testing regarding its potential to prolong the QT interval?

<p>Moxifloxacin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the PRIMARY mechanism by which certain antibiotics exert an epileptogenic effect?

<p>Antagonism of GABAA receptors, leading to reduced inhibitory neurotransmission. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which clinical manifestation is LEAST likely to be associated with antibiotic-induced seizure activity?

<p>Bradycardia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Among the penicillin class of antibiotics, which is recognized as having the GREATEST epileptogenic potential?

<p>Penicillin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with renal insufficiency receiving a penicillin antibiotic, what is the MOST important intervention to prevent seizures?

<p>Reducing the dose of the penicillin antibiotic. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

β-Lactams MOA

Inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to Penicillin Binding Proteins (PBPs), thus blocking transpeptidation and cross-linking.

β-Lactam Classes

Penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, and monobactams.

β-Lactam Efficacy

Time above the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) is the key factor for effectiveness.

β-Lactam Elimination

Most beta-lactams are eliminated through the kidneys.

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β-Lactam Spectrum of Activity

They bind to different PBPs, explaining their varying effectiveness against different bacteria.

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Drug holiday

Restoring drug hypersensitivity by stopping drug use for a period.

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Quinolones Mechanism

Inhibition of topoisomerase (Gram-negative bacteria) and DNA gyrase (Gram-positive bacteria).

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Quinolone Activity

Gram-negative bacteria; newer agents have some Gram-positive activity.

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Respiratory Quinolones

Levofloxacin, Moxifloxacin, and Gemifloxacin.

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Common Coverage

Enterobacteriaceae, Neisseria sp., Moraxella sp., Haemophilus sp.

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Cephalosporins

Broader spectrum due to stability against β-lactamases. NOT active against ESBLs, enterococci, and Listeria.

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First Generation Cephalosporins

Narrow spectrum, mainly gram(+) cocci. Good for MSSA, streptococci, E. coli, Klebsiella.

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Second Generation Cephalosporins

Enhanced gram(-) and anaerobic activity, retaining some gram(+). Good for H. influenzae and Bacteroides.

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Third Generation Cephalosporins

Enhanced gram(-) activity, less gram(+) and anaerobic activity.

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SPACE bugs

Serratia, Pseudomonas, Acinetobacter, Citrobacter, Enterobacter ('SPACE bugs')

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Ceftriaxone and Cefotaxime

Good CNS penetration, used for meningitis.

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Ceftazidime (Fortaz®)

Primarily broad-spectrum gram(-), more stable against 'SPACE bugs'.

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Fourth and Fifth Generation Cephalosporins

Good gram(-) AND gram(+) activity.

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Renal Function & Antibiotics

Monitor kidney function when administering these antibiotics.

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Pharmacokinetics of Many Antibiotics

Many have poor oral absorption and require frequent dosing due to short half-lives (except ceftriaxone).

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Antibiotic Resistance Mechanisms

Enzymatic inactivation, target modification, impaired penetration, and efflux pumps.

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β-Lactamase Inhibitors

Adding a beta-lactamase inhibitor prevents bacteria from breaking down the antibiotic.

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Limitations of β-Lactamase Inhibitors

β-lactamase inhibitors can overcome resistance mediated by β-lactamase, but may have less activity with overproduction.

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Natural Penicillins

Penicillin G, benzathine penicillin, and penicillin VK are effective against staph and strep, but resistance emerged quickly.

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Antistaphylococcal Penicillins

Nafcillin, oxacillin, methicillin, and dicloxacillin are used against MSSA and strep.

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Aminopenicillins Spectrum

Ampicillin and amoxicillin are effective against Strep, Enterococcus, Listeria, Salmonella, Shigella, and some gram-negative bacteria.

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Cefepime (Maxipime®)

4th generation cephalosporin; some stability against ESBL and Amp-C producers.

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Ceftaroline (Teflaro®)

5th generation cephalosporin effective against MRSA.

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Carbapenems

Antibiotics with the broadest spectrum; effective against MSSA, ESBL producers, and more.

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Ertapenem (Invanz)

Does NOT cover Pseudomonas aeruginosa (PSAE) or enterococcus.

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Aztreonam (Azactam®)

Reserved for penicillin-allergic patients; active against gram-negative bacteria only.

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Aztreonam

IV-only monobactam with activity against gram(-) bacteria.

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Bactrim (Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole) and HIV

HIV patients have a higher hypersensitivity to this antibiotic (20-80%).

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Antibiotic Allergy Overestimation

Allergic reactions may be overestimated due to patient reporting accuracy.

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QT Prolongation

Prolongation of the QT interval on an ECG, indicating a potential risk for dangerous heart rhythms.

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Risk Factors for TdP

Multiple factors increasing the risk of QT prolongation and Torsades de Pointes.

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Torsades de Pointes (TdP)

A type of ventricular tachycardia that can be caused by QT prolongation.

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Macrolides and TdP

Macrolide antibiotics have been linked to Torsades de Pointes.

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Safest Macrolide (QT)

The macrolide with the fewest drug interactions and thus considered the safest re: QT prolongation.

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Quinolones & QT Prolongation

Moxifloxacin has the most evidence of QT prolongation.

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Antibiotics: Epileptogenic Effect

Antagonizing GABA activity in the brain.

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Proconvulsant Antibiotics

Penicillins, cephalosporins, aztreonam, carbapenems and fluoroquinolones.

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Study Notes

  • The presentation discusses antibacterial pharmacology.
  • Specifically B-Lactams, Quinolones, Macrolides
  • The presentation reviews the adverse effects associated with commonly used antimicrobials
  • Adverse effects include seizure and QT prolongation.

B-Lactams

  • First discovered over 75 years ago by Flemming in 1929.
  • The largest antimicrobial class
  • Includes penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, and monobactams.
  • General structure is fused thiazolidine and ẞ-lactam rings (aka. "house and garage").
  • Inhibits cell wall synthesis by binding to Penicillin Binding Proteins (PBPs) at active site.
  • Binding to PBPs inhibits transpeptidation (cross-linking).
  • Bactericidal, except for enterococcus, and is effective when cells are not actively growing.
  • Quicker kill rate than vancomycin for streptococcus.
  • Time above the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) determines efficacy.
  • Primarily eliminated renally, except for nafcillin, oxacillin, ceftriaxone, and cefoperazone.
  • Most have poor oral absorption.
  • Short half-life (< 2 hours); ceftriaxone is an exception.
  • Poor CNS penetration, except for ceftriaxone and cefotaxime.
  • Resistance occurs by 4 general mechanisms.
    • Enzymatic inactivation of antibiotic
    • Modification of target PBP
    • Impaired penetration into cell
    • Efflux pumps.
  • B-Lactamase production is the most common mechanism of resistance.
  • Over 100 B-lactamases have been identified to date.
  • Some are specific to penicillin and not cephalosporins.

B-Lactamase Inhibitors

  • Strategy: Add beta lactamase inhibitor to beta lactam antibiotic to prevent resistance.
  • The bacteria cannot deactivate the antibiotic being administered
  • Couple antimicrobial to a B-lactamase inhibitor where there is enzymatic resistance.
  • Only overcomes resistance mediated by B-lactamase.
  • If there's overproduction of B-lactamase, the inhibitor may have less activity.

Penicillin Classification

  • Natural penicillins include Penicillin G, benzathine and VK.
    • These are decent against staph/strep; resistance rates quick.
  • Antistaphylococcal penicillins include nafcillin, oxacillin, methicillin, and dicloxacillin.
  • Aminopenicillins include ampicillin and amoxicillin.
  • Carboxypenicillins include ticarcillin.
  • Ureidopenicillins include piperacillin.
  • Beta-lactamase inhibitor combinations include Amp/clav, amp/sulb, ticar/clav, and pip/tazo.
  • Oral formulations exist for VK, dicloxacillin, amoxicillin, and Amp/clav,

Classification Spectrum of Activity

  • Penicillins are effective against Streptococci and T. pallidum.
  • Antistaphylococcal penicillins are effective against MSSA and strep.
  • Aminopenicillins are effective against Strep, enterococcus, Listeria, Salmonella sp., and Shigella sp.
  • Considered effective against “wimpy” Gram-Negative Bacteria (GNB).
  • Carboxys are effective against Gram(-) bacteria.
  • Includes PSAE, E. coli, and Proteus sp.
  • Considered effective against Enterobacter sp.
  • Less effective against Gram(+) bacteria
  • Ureidopenicillins are effective against Enhanced GNB (PSAE) and Serratia.
  • Streptococci and Gram(+) are not as effective against it.
  • Beta-lactamase inhibitors are effective against B-lactamase producing strains such as E.coli, Proteus sp., MSSA, H.flu, Neisseria, and Bacteroides sp.

Cephalosporins

  • Introduced in 1960's
  • Categorized into “generations”
  • "Generations" are loose classifications for spectrum of activity
  • More stable against B-lactamases.
  • Therefore have a broader spectrum of activity.
  • Not active against most Extended-Spectrum B-lactamase (ESBL's), enterococci AND Listeria.
    • Cefepime has some stability against ESPLs

First Generation Cephalosporins

  • Activity is narrow; primarily gram-positive cocci.
  • These cocci mostly cause skin infections
  • Effective against S. aureus (MSSA), streptococci, E. coli, and Klebsiella
  • Used for skin/skin-structure treatment, surgical prophylaxis, UTI, and endocarditis.
  • Includes cefazolin (Ancef®) cephalexin* (Keflex®), and cefadroxil* (Duricef®)
  • Oral formulation

Second Generation Cephalosporins

  • Have enhanced gram-negative and anaerobic activity while retaining some gram-positive activity
  • Effective against H. influenza and M. catarrhalis
  • Effective against Neisseria sp. and Bacteroides sp., including B. frag.
  • Treats colorectal and urogenital infections
  • Can treat lower/upper Respiratory Tract Infections (RTI)
  • Includes Cefotetan, cefoxitin, cefmetazole, and cefuroxime (Ceftin®*).
  • Cefoxitin can cover anaerobes below the waist.
  • Treats polymicrobial infections: Intra-abdominal, gynecologic.

Third Generation Cephalosporins

  • Have enhanced gram-negative activity with less gram-positive and anaerobic activity.
  • Variable activity to AMP-C hydrolysis.
    • Includes Serratia, Pseudomonas, Acinetobacter, Citrobacter, and Enterobacter.
    • Can treat NGPR meningitis, gram(-) sepsis/UTI/RTI (HAP), and SSTI
  • Only caftazidime has activity against PSAE (“Tasmanian Devil").
  • Treats Meningitis
    • Ceftriaxone and cefotaxime
    • Good CNS penetration
  • Have primarily broad-spectrum gram(-) activity.
  • Drugs include ceftriaxone (Rocephin®), ceftazidime (Fortaz®), cefdinir (Omnicef®), cefixime (Suprax®), and cefotaxime (Claforan®).
    • Ceftazidime offers more stability versus "SPACE bugs”.

Fourth and Fifth Generation Cephalosporins

  • Good gram(-) AND gram (+) activity.
  • Effective against MSSA, strep, Enterobacteriaceae, Citrobacter, and Enterobacter.
  • No activity against Stenotrophomonas and Burkholderia.
  • Some stability against ESBL and Amp-C producers.
  • Cefepime (Maxipime®) is a 4th generation
  • Ceftaroline (Teflaro®) – 5th generation
    • Like cefepime BUT can treat MRSA

Allergic Reactions to Antimicrobials

  • Drug surveillance data indicated 2.2% of cutaneous drug reactions are due to amoxicillin, ampicillin, or trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole.
  • Maculopapular rash is the most common reaction, occurring days to weeks later.
  • Reactions appear in minutes to hours.
  • Patients have a higher frequency of allergic reactions:
  • HIV - (20 to 80%) hypersensitive to Bactrim.
  • CF – Immune hyperresponsiveness and repeated exposure.
  • Mononucleosis – Unclear alteration in host IR.

Allergic Reactions to B-Lactams

  • May overestimate allergic frequency based on patient reporting accuracy.
  • Caused by impurities in the manufacturing process.
  • Cross-reactivity between different B-Lactams appears to be between 1 and 10%.
  • Closer to 1% in reality.
  • Cross-reactivity appears higher in individuals with more serious reactions.
  • Cross-reactivity increases with severity; more antibody activity.
  • Aztreonam is missing reactive “house portion"
    • Reserved for those with a serious allergy.
  • Meropenem may be safer than imipenem.
    • However, few documented cases exist.
    • Would use caution.
    • (Also concerns around seizure story)

Antimicrobial Desensitization

  • Relatively safe procedure.
  • Allows administration of antibiotics to patients with severe allergic reactions
  • Effective for Type I, IgE mediated hypersensitivity.
  • Converts patient from hyperactive state to a tolerant state.
  • Allows controlled degranulation of mast cells
  • To initiate desensitization:
  • Start antibiotic dose at 1/10,000 to 1/100,000 of full dose.
  • Increase antibiotic concentration and infusion rate over time.
  • Slow degranulation produces low or undetectable levels of inflammatory mediators.

Quinolones

  • All are derivatives of nalidixic acid and cinoxacin.
  • Original compounds fluorinated to improve activity
  • Mechanism of action (MOA) – Topoisomerase (gram negative) and DNA gyrase (gram positive) inhibition.
  • All have high bioavailability (if gut works, use PO)
  • Have activity against gram negative and gram positive.
  • Newer agents perform better against gram positive
  • Considered bactericidal against susceptible bugs

Quinolone Agents

  • Nalidixic acid: First generation
  • Norfloxacin: Used to treat UTIs.
  • Ofloxacin (Oflox®)
  • Ciprofloxacin (Cipro®)
  • Levofloxacin: L isomer (Levaquin®)
  • Lomefloxacin: Gone (P)
  • Clinafloxacin: Gone (P)
  • Temafloxacin: Gone (G)
  • Grepafloxacin: Gone (C)
  • Sparfloxacin: Gone (P/C)
  • Trovafloxacin (Trovan®): Gone (H)
  • Moxifloxacin (Avelox®)
  • Gatifloxacin (Tequin): Gone (G)
  • Gemifloxacin (Factive®)
    • C = QT-prolongation
    • G = Glucose abnormality
    • H = Hepatotoxicity
    • P = Phototoxicity

Spectrum of Activity for Quinolones

  • All cover Enterobacteriaceae, Neisseria sp., Moraxella sp., and Haemophilus sp.
    • Considered Good against Gram-Negative bacteria.
  • MSSA and pneumococci are covered by levofloxacin, moxi, and gemiflox
    • Streptococcus.pneumoniae not covered by Cipro.
  • Ciprofloxacin works better than Levofloxacin for Pseudomonas.
  • Moxi and gemiflox do NOT work against Pseudomonas.
  • Moxifloxacin considered good against anaerobes.
  • Atypicals work well against Cipro, levo, moxi, and gemiflox

Spectrum and Indications for Quinolones

  • Community-Acquired Pneumonia (CAP): Levo, moxi, gemi
  • Hospital-Acquired Pneumonia/Ventilator-Associated Pneumonia (HAP/VAP): Levo and Cipro
    • NO MOXI OR GEMI!
  • Intraabdominal: Moxifloxacin only (anaerobes)
  • Skin and Soft Tissue Infections (SSTI): Levo, moxi
    • Urinary Tract Infection (UTI): Cipro, Levo – NO MOXI
  • Gonorrhea: was used to be the agent of choice
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Precautions to Quinolone Use:

  • Arthropathy/tendonopathy
    • Juvenile animal studies (beagles) show signs of this.
    • Increase in renal failure/transplant patients, age>50, steroid use, M>F -Achilles' tendon most common (50% rupture
    • Requires 1 to 2 months rest and immobilization
  • QT – prolongation
  • Glucose homeostasis
  • CNS – Headache, dizziness, altered mental status, seizure
  • Phototoxicity (<0.1% in available agents
  • Do not administer with divalent cations (physically binds)
  • Magnesium, Iron, Calcium, and Zinc
  • Requires dose separation
  • Be careful with tube feeds Separately administer cations from quinolones due to binding for medications given orally (IV not affected)

Macrolides vs Ketolides

  • C11-C12 Carbamate increases potency and overcomes macrolide resistance.
  • A methoxy group increases acid stability
  • A Keto Group increases acid stability and overcomes macrolide resistance.

Macrolides and Ketolides

  • Erythromycin is the prototype member of this family.
  • Targets activity against 50S ribosome.
  • Bacteriostatic.
  • Metabolized in the liver.
  • Adjust the dose of clarithromycin for renal impairment
  • P450 drug interactions.
    • Azithromycin is an exception.
    • It does not have CYP interactions
    • a computer will still flag this because it's a macrolide.

Agents within Macrolides and Ketolides

  • Erythromycin's features:
  • Acid labile.
  • GI intolerance
  • The narrow spectrum of activity. -Low dose use as a prokinetic agent
  • Clarithromycin, azithromycin, and telithromycin features:
  • Synthetic derivatives.
  • Stable in acid.
  • Offer a longer half-life (especially azithromycin).
  • Penetrate well into most tissues, especially pulmonary tissue.
  • Distribute in a “dump-truck" mechanism

Activity Spectrum within Macrolides and Ketolides

  • The efficacy against Gram+: Telith > clarith> eryth > azith
  • Effective against MSSA, S.pneumonia (PSSP), S.pyogenes, and viridans streptococci.
  • The efficacy against Gram (-): Azith > clarith > eryth > telith
  • Effective against M. catarrhalis, H.influenza, and Neisseria sp.
  • Not Effective against Enterobacteriaceae (gut bugs).
  • Effective vs Atypicals
  • Effective vs Others: Mycobacterium avium, T. pallidum, Borellia, and Bordetella.

Uses for Macrolides and Ketolides

  • Respiratory tract infection
  • Sinusitis/CAP/Pharyngitis
  • Mycobacterium avium
  • Skin and skin-structure
  • STD'S
  • Anti-inflammatory in treatment of CF and panbronchiolitis
  • Inhibit oxidative burst in neutrophils/MØ
  • Inhibit NFKB which ↓ IL-8 and other chemokines

Monitoring Parameters for Macrolides and Ketolides

  • Drug interactions
  • All except azithromycin
  • GI intolerance Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
  • Ototoxicity Rare, but seen with high dose erythro
  • QT prolongation (erythr > clarith > telith > azith)
  • Hepatic (telithro).
    • Seen in 1-2 weeks
    • Includes increased transaminases with eosinophilia (75%)

QT Prolongation with Certain Antibiotics

  • Seen with macrolides, quinolones, azole antifungals, and pentamidine.
  • Most information from post-marketing studies.
  • Defining a QTC change is difficult:
  • Some patients are more susceptible to the effects.
  • Analysis of patients experiencing QT-prolongation revealed multiple risk factors.
    • Of the 69 cases of Torsades de Pointes (TdP), patients had on average at least 2 risk factors including: -- Female sex (64.5%) -- Heart disease (52.6%) -- Hypokalemia (30.6%) -- Drug interactions / excess drug dose
  • The FDA post-marketing reports showed that macrolides account for (77%) of TdP
  • Multifactorial including:
    • Concurrent administration of other QT prolonging agents
    • Electrolyte abnormalities
  • Advanced age -Cardiac disease
  • Organ dysfunction
  • Conclusions, to avoid QT prolongation
  • Azithromycin appears to be the safest macrolide because it has no P450 interactions.
  • Cipro appears the safest Quinolone
  • Watch for dose adjustments when treating renal impairment and in the setting of drug interactions.

Seizures Resulting from Antibiotic Use

  • Epileptogenic effect of antibiotics-based on alterations in GABA activity.
  • Antibiotics appear to antagonize GABAA.

  • Seizure activity characterized by:
  • Myoclonus, confusion, twitching.
  • Proconvulsant antibiotics include: -Penicillins, cephalosporins, aztreonam, carbapenems, and fluoroquinolones.
  • Penicillin most extensively studied.
  • Penicillin has the greatest epileptogenic effect among other penicillins.
  • Large inpatient study showed incidence around 0.32%.
  • Renal insufficiency and high doses were the most underlying cause of seizures.
  • Neonates (<7 months) appear to have an increased risk of penicillin-induced seizures.
  • Patients treated for meningitis may be predisposed to a seizure.
  • Newer carbapenems (doripenem) excluded patients with active seizure from the hx trials.

Risk Factors for Antibiotic Induced Seizures

  • Age <7 months, >60 years.
  • Renal insufficiency.
  • Pre-existing CNS diagnosis.
  • Cardiopulmonary bypass.
  • Sepsis and endocarditis.
  • Administration site.
  • Onset usually 12 to 36 hours after initiation of antibiotic administration.

Summary of Considerations for Seizures and Antibiotic Use

  • Stop the drug causing a seizure
  • Benzos (1st) and barbs (pheno 2nd) appear more efficacious than phenytoin (don't use).
  • Remember the risk factors and adjust treatment accordingly.
  • Keppra may provide some benefit because it can modulate the GABA channel.
  • Allows concentration of epileptogenic agent to decline most effectively.

Treatment for Gram Positive infections

  • Multidrug-Resistant Gram Positives are resistant to the classes of drugs
  • Vancomycin
  • Linezolid
  • Daptomycin Dalbavancin
  • Old and New Gram-
  • New agents in clinical trials and development for multidrug-resistant GNB.

Old and New Gram- Antibiotics

  • Targeting Multidrug-resistant Pseudo, Acinetobacter, and ESBL's
  • Talk about using Colistin
  • Extended-spectrum cephalosporins in combination with B-lactamase inhibitors.
    • Use Ceftolozane/Tazobactam
    • Use Ceftazidime/Avibactam

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Explore the mechanism, spectrum of activity, and resistance mechanisms of β-lactam antibiotics. Understand their clinical use, including appropriate selection, dosing strategies, and managing resistance.

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