Podcast
Questions and Answers
What is the appropriate vaccination schedule for a non-pregnant, non-immunocompromised person aged 2 months?
What is the appropriate vaccination schedule for a non-pregnant, non-immunocompromised person aged 2 months?
- HPV, Pneumo PCV13, Polio Salk
- HepB, Polio Salk, Pneumo PCV13, DPT, HiB, rotavirus (correct)
- MMR, Varicella, DPT, HepB
- Pneumo PCV13, PPSV23, HiB
At what age should the second dose of the MMR vaccine be administered?
At what age should the second dose of the MMR vaccine be administered?
- 6-14 months
- 12-15 months
- 2 years
- 4-6 years (correct)
Which condition is characterized by a circular lesion in the pancreas associated with pancreatitis?
Which condition is characterized by a circular lesion in the pancreas associated with pancreatitis?
- Pseudoabscess (correct)
- Pseudocyst
- Pancreatic cancer
- Abscess
Which of the following lung issues is associated with centri-acinar emphysema?
Which of the following lung issues is associated with centri-acinar emphysema?
What is true about FEV1/FVC ratios in restrictive lung disease?
What is true about FEV1/FVC ratios in restrictive lung disease?
What is the most common cause of otitis media?
What is the most common cause of otitis media?
What treatment is recommended for recurrent otitis media?
What treatment is recommended for recurrent otitis media?
What is the initial treatment approach for rheumatoid arthritis?
What is the initial treatment approach for rheumatoid arthritis?
Which of the following treatments is appropriate for otitis externa?
Which of the following treatments is appropriate for otitis externa?
What type of joint involvement is characteristic of osteoarthritis compared to rheumatoid arthritis?
What type of joint involvement is characteristic of osteoarthritis compared to rheumatoid arthritis?
What laboratory findings indicate iron deficiency anemia?
What laboratory findings indicate iron deficiency anemia?
What is the mechanism of action of methotrexate?
What is the mechanism of action of methotrexate?
In a patient with anemia of chronic disease, what is the treatment if the cause is renal failure?
In a patient with anemia of chronic disease, what is the treatment if the cause is renal failure?
What is the best approach for reducing stroke risk in a hypertensive smoker with a history of TIA?
What is the best approach for reducing stroke risk in a hypertensive smoker with a history of TIA?
Which of the following patients is most likely to develop septic arthritis?
Which of the following patients is most likely to develop septic arthritis?
What is the diagnosis method for thalassemia?
What is the diagnosis method for thalassemia?
What are the common side effects associated with methotrexate?
What are the common side effects associated with methotrexate?
What is the most common finding in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
What is the most common finding in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
Which finding is associated with thalassemia rather than iron deficiency anemia?
Which finding is associated with thalassemia rather than iron deficiency anemia?
Which drug is considered the first-line disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) for early rheumatoid arthritis?
Which drug is considered the first-line disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) for early rheumatoid arthritis?
In patients with osteoarthritis taking NSAIDs, what causes the peripheral edema?
In patients with osteoarthritis taking NSAIDs, what causes the peripheral edema?
What is the most specific antibody for Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?
What is the most specific antibody for Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?
Which histological pattern is characteristic of diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis (DPGN) in lupus nephritis?
Which histological pattern is characteristic of diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis (DPGN) in lupus nephritis?
What is the initial treatment for an immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) episode?
What is the initial treatment for an immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) episode?
In a patient with bleeding, which finding is indicative of a platelet problem?
In a patient with bleeding, which finding is indicative of a platelet problem?
Which of the following drugs is associated with drug-induced lupus?
Which of the following drugs is associated with drug-induced lupus?
What is the mechanism of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)?
What is the mechanism of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)?
What is the classic presentation of hemophilia in a child?
What is the classic presentation of hemophilia in a child?
What is the next best step in diagnosis for viral-induced aplastic anemia?
What is the next best step in diagnosis for viral-induced aplastic anemia?
What is the secondary function of von Willebrand factor (vWF)?
What is the secondary function of von Willebrand factor (vWF)?
Which symptoms are indicative of a platelet problem in von Willebrand disease (vWD)?
Which symptoms are indicative of a platelet problem in von Willebrand disease (vWD)?
What is the main cause of vitamin K deficiency in adults?
What is the main cause of vitamin K deficiency in adults?
What mutation leads to sickle cell disease?
What mutation leads to sickle cell disease?
What is a common presentation of agranulocytosis in patients?
What is a common presentation of agranulocytosis in patients?
Which antibiotics are examples of broad-spectrum agents used for febrile neutropenia?
Which antibiotics are examples of broad-spectrum agents used for febrile neutropenia?
What is the strongest indication for anticoagulation therapy?
What is the strongest indication for anticoagulation therapy?
What is an appropriate use for ganciclovir?
What is an appropriate use for ganciclovir?
Which organism is associated with bloody diarrhea after poultry consumption?
Which organism is associated with bloody diarrhea after poultry consumption?
What is the first-line treatment for Clostridium difficile infection?
What is the first-line treatment for Clostridium difficile infection?
In a patient with community-acquired pneumonia presenting with bilateral infiltrates on chest X-ray, which organism is most likely implicated?
In a patient with community-acquired pneumonia presenting with bilateral infiltrates on chest X-ray, which organism is most likely implicated?
What is the characteristic triad of symptoms indicating cardiac tamponade?
What is the characteristic triad of symptoms indicating cardiac tamponade?
What is the most appropriate screening method for pulmonary embolism in a pregnant patient?
What is the most appropriate screening method for pulmonary embolism in a pregnant patient?
Which of the following acid-base disturbances is expected in a patient with pulmonary embolism?
Which of the following acid-base disturbances is expected in a patient with pulmonary embolism?
Which organism is typically responsible for pneumonia in patients with exposure to rabbits?
Which organism is typically responsible for pneumonia in patients with exposure to rabbits?
When treating a pulmonary embolism in a patient who is already on warfarin, what is the next step?
When treating a pulmonary embolism in a patient who is already on warfarin, what is the next step?
Flashcards
Pseudoabscess in Pancreatitis
Pseudoabscess in Pancreatitis
A circular lesion in the pancreas, often seen in pancreatitis, that may indicate the presence of a pseudoabscess. This finding suggests the need for ERCP (Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography) to drain the abscess internally.
Radiographic Features of Emphysema
Radiographic Features of Emphysema
Emphysema is characterized by the abnormal enlargement of air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles, often caused by destruction of alveolar walls. On a chest X-ray, this is seen as bullous changes or expanded lungs with hyperlucency.
Centri-acinar Emphysema
Centri-acinar Emphysema
Centri-acinar emphysema, the most common type of emphysema, is primarily located in the respiratory bronchioles and is strongly associated with cigarette smoking.
Pan-acinar Emphysema
Pan-acinar Emphysema
Pan-acinar emphysema, a less common type, involves the entire acinus (all parts of the respiratory bronchiole) and is typically caused by alpha-1 anti-trypsin deficiency.
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FEV1/FVC in Restrictive Lung Disease
FEV1/FVC in Restrictive Lung Disease
A restrictive lung disease is characterized by a decrease in lung volume, leading to difficulties in expanding the lungs. This results in a normal or even increased FEV1/FVC ratio, because the lung's ability to exhale is not significantly impaired.
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Traveler's Diarrhea
Traveler's Diarrhea
A bacterial infection causing watery diarrhea, typically acquired while traveling. The most common cause is enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC) producing heat-labile (HL) or heat-stable (HS) toxins.
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C. difficile Colitis
C. difficile Colitis
Caused by Clostridioides difficile, this infection manifests as bloody diarrhea, often following antibiotic use. It is diagnosed through stool toxin testing, not culture.
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Toxic Megacolon
Toxic Megacolon
A serious complication of C. difficile colitis characterized by fever, abdominal distension, and potential bowel perforation. Requires emergency surgery.
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Entamoeba histolytica Infection
Entamoeba histolytica Infection
A protozoan parasite causing bloody diarrhea, often acquired through contaminated food or water, especially in travel settings.
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Cardiac Tamponade
Cardiac Tamponade
A condition characterized by a build-up of fluid in the space between the heart and the sac that surrounds it. Symptoms include muffled heart sounds, low blood pressure, and distended neck veins (JVD).
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Mycoplasma Pneumonia
Mycoplasma Pneumonia
A common cause of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP), characterized by bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray. Often presents with milder symptoms compared to other pneumonia types.
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Streptococcus pneumoniae Pneumonia (Lobar Pneumonia)
Streptococcus pneumoniae Pneumonia (Lobar Pneumonia)
A severe form of pneumonia caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, usually affecting a specific lobe of the lung (e.g., right lower lobe). Presents with consolidation on chest x-ray, dullness to percussion.
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Pulmonary Embolism (PE)
Pulmonary Embolism (PE)
A life-threatening blood clot in the lungs, often arising from a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the legs. Presents with shortness of breath, chest pain, and leg swelling.
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What is otitis media caused by?
What is otitis media caused by?
A common cause of fluid buildup in the middle ear, often leading to pain and discomfort in children.
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How is otitis media treated?
How is otitis media treated?
The treatment for otitis media is typically oral amoxicillin for a short duration.
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What is otitis externa?
What is otitis externa?
A condition characterized by inflammation of the outer ear canal, often caused by water exposure or irritation.
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How is otitis externa treated?
How is otitis externa treated?
Topical ciprofloxacin and hydrocortisone drops are commonly used to treat otitis externa, addressing both infection and inflammation.
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What are the main types of microcytic anemia?
What are the main types of microcytic anemia?
Iron deficiency anemia, thalassemia, and anemia of chronic disease are all types of microcytic anemia.
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What are the characteristics of anemia of chronic disease?
What are the characteristics of anemia of chronic disease?
Anemia of chronic disease is characterized by low hematocrit, low MCV, and low iron, but normal or high ferritin levels. It's often associated with conditions like chronic kidney disease, rheumatoid arthritis, and lupus.
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How is anemia of chronic disease treated if it is caused by renal failure?
How is anemia of chronic disease treated if it is caused by renal failure?
Erythropoietin (EPO) is a hormone that stimulates the production of red blood cells. In cases of anemia of chronic disease caused by renal failure, EPO treatment can be effective.
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What is thalassemia, and how is it diagnosed?
What is thalassemia, and how is it diagnosed?
Thalassemia is a genetic disorder that affects the production of hemoglobin, leading to microcytic anemia. It's often diagnosed through hemoglobin electrophoresis.
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What is the mechanism behind autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
What is the mechanism behind autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
A condition where antibodies attack the body's own hematologic cells, often with a focus on thrombocytopenia (low platelet count). Seen in autoimmune diseases like SLE.
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How do you treat a flare of SLE?
How do you treat a flare of SLE?
Steroids are the primary treatment for exacerbations (flares) of SLE.
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What is the histological pattern of Diffuse Proliferative Glomerulonephritis (DPGN)?
What is the histological pattern of Diffuse Proliferative Glomerulonephritis (DPGN)?
This type of lupus nephritis is characterized by the presence of "wire looping" capillaries on histology.
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What is the first-line treatment for lupus nephritis?
What is the first-line treatment for lupus nephritis?
Mycophenolate mofetil is the primary drug used to treat lupus nephritis.
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What's a common treatment for discoid lupus?
What's a common treatment for discoid lupus?
Hydroxychloroquine is a primary treatment for discoid lupus.
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Which antibody is most associated with SLE?
Which antibody is most associated with SLE?
This specific antibody, unlike others, is highly associated with SLE.
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Which antibody rises in acute SLE flares?
Which antibody rises in acute SLE flares?
Anti-dsDNA levels rise during SLE flare-ups, while C3 levels decrease.
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What kind of antibodies are associated with drug-induced lupus?
What kind of antibodies are associated with drug-induced lupus?
Anti-histone antibodies are often found in patients with drug-induced lupus (DIL).
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What is pseudogout?
What is pseudogout?
A condition that causes joint pain and swelling, similar to gout but caused by calcium pyrophosphate crystals instead of uric acid. It is treated similarly to gout, with medications to reduce inflammation and pain. Chronic cases may require treatment of the underlying condition.
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What is the biggest risk factor for osteoarthritis?
What is the biggest risk factor for osteoarthritis?
Obesity is a significant risk factor for osteoarthritis, increasing the load on joints and contributing to cartilage breakdown.
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How do NSAIDs lead to peripheral edema in patients with osteoarthritis?
How do NSAIDs lead to peripheral edema in patients with osteoarthritis?
NSAID medication decreases blood flow to the kidneys, which perceive a lower volume status. To compensate, the kidneys reabsorb more sodium, leading to water retention and peripheral edema.
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What are the two main goals of rheumatoid arthritis treatment?
What are the two main goals of rheumatoid arthritis treatment?
Treatment for rheumatoid arthritis involves both symptom relief and disease-modifying therapy. NSAIDs are used initially for pain relief, followed by steroids if needed. However, neither slows disease progression. Methotrexate, followed by other DMARDs, is the key for slowing down RA.
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How does methotrexate work in rheumatoid arthritis?
How does methotrexate work in rheumatoid arthritis?
Methotrexate is a dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor, interrupting the production of tetrahydrofolic acid, crucial for DNA synthesis. This impacts rapidly dividing cells, including those contributing to the inflammation of rheumatoid arthritis.
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What are the most specific antibodies for identifying rheumatoid arthritis?
What are the most specific antibodies for identifying rheumatoid arthritis?
Anti-CCP (cyclic citrullinated peptide) antibodies are more specific to rheumatoid arthritis than rheumatoid factor (RF). While RF is present in a significant number of patients with RA, anti-CCP antibodies are more strongly linked to the diagnosis.
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What should be done for any patient with a red, warm, and tender knee?
What should be done for any patient with a red, warm, and tender knee?
Septic arthritis is a serious infection of the joint, and any red, warm, and tender joint should be aspirated to rule it out.
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What is juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA)?
What is juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA)?
Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) is a chronic inflammatory condition affecting joints in children. Recurrent joint pain, inflammation, high ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate), and sometimes a rash could be indicative of this condition.
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What is the primary function of vWF in platelet adhesion?
What is the primary function of vWF in platelet adhesion?
von Willebrand factor (vWF) binds to platelet GpIb and collagen, facilitating platelet adhesion to the injured vessel wall. This is distinct from platelet aggregation, which involves the binding of platelets to each other.
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How does vWF influence factor VIII?
How does vWF influence factor VIII?
vWF also has a secondary function in stabilizing factor VIII within the plasma. This is why patients with vWD often have a mildly prolonged aPTT, as factor VIII is less stable and degraded at a faster rate.
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What are the typical clinical manifestations of vWD?
What are the typical clinical manifestations of vWD?
vWD is characterized by both platelet abnormalities and a clotting factor deficiency (due to the role of vWF). The platelet defect can lead to minor bleeding events like epistaxis and bruising, while the clotting factor problem may result in more severe bleeding during procedures or menstruation.
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What is the primary cause of vitamin K deficiency in adults?
What is the primary cause of vitamin K deficiency in adults?
Vitamin K is essential for the production of several clotting factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X. In adults, vitamin K deficiency is often caused by prolonged antibiotic therapy, which disrupts the normal gut flora responsible for vitamin K synthesis.
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Describe the genetic basis of sickle cell anemia.
Describe the genetic basis of sickle cell anemia.
Sickle cell anemia is a genetic condition caused by a specific mutation in the beta-globin gene. This mutation leads to the substitution of glutamic acid with valine at the sixth position of the beta-chain, causing the red blood cells to adopt a sickle shape.
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Which medications are known to cause agranulocytosis?
Which medications are known to cause agranulocytosis?
Agranulocytosis is a severe reduction in neutrophils, a type of white blood cell essential for fighting infections. It can be a serious adverse effect of several medications, including clozapine (antipsychotic), ganciclovir (antiviral), propylthiouracil and methimazole (antithyroid), methotrexate (immunosuppressant), and ticlopidine (antiplatelet).
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How is febrile neutropenia managed?
How is febrile neutropenia managed?
Febrile neutropenia (neutropenic fever) is a serious condition characterized by fever in patients with low neutrophil counts. It requires immediate treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as piperacillin/tazobactam or cefepime + vancomycin.
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USMLE Review Part I
- This is a review guide for the USMLE Part I exam.
- The document includes information on various medical topics.
- It covers travel-related illnesses, diarrhea-causing pathogens, and their respective treatments.
- It details other digestive issues and their diagnoses.
- The document includes information relevant to cardiac conditions, like ischemia and pericarditis.
- It provides details about diagnosing and managing conditions like cardiac ischemia, pericarditis, and ECG interpretation.
- It includes information regarding various types of pneumonia and appropriate treatments.
- The review covers diagnoses for various types of incontinence, with specific treatments for each.
- The content is focused on the diagnosis and treatment of various medical conditions in a clinical context related to the USMLE Part I exam.
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