USMLE Review Part I

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Questions and Answers

What is the appropriate vaccination schedule for a non-pregnant, non-immunocompromised person aged 2 months?

  • HPV, Pneumo PCV13, Polio Salk
  • HepB, Polio Salk, Pneumo PCV13, DPT, HiB, rotavirus (correct)
  • MMR, Varicella, DPT, HepB
  • Pneumo PCV13, PPSV23, HiB

At what age should the second dose of the MMR vaccine be administered?

  • 6-14 months
  • 12-15 months
  • 2 years
  • 4-6 years (correct)

Which condition is characterized by a circular lesion in the pancreas associated with pancreatitis?

  • Pseudoabscess (correct)
  • Pseudocyst
  • Pancreatic cancer
  • Abscess

Which of the following lung issues is associated with centri-acinar emphysema?

<p>Smokers (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is true about FEV1/FVC ratios in restrictive lung disease?

<p>Normal or increased FEV1/FVC (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of otitis media?

<p>Streptococcus pneumoniae (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What treatment is recommended for recurrent otitis media?

<p>Amoxicillin/clavulanate (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the initial treatment approach for rheumatoid arthritis?

<p>Symptom-relief and DMARDs (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following treatments is appropriate for otitis externa?

<p>Topical ciprofloxacin + hydrocortisone drops (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of joint involvement is characteristic of osteoarthritis compared to rheumatoid arthritis?

<p>Only DIPs involved (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What laboratory findings indicate iron deficiency anemia?

<p>Low hematocrit, low MCV, low iron, low ferritin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of action of methotrexate?

<p>Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with anemia of chronic disease, what is the treatment if the cause is renal failure?

<p>Erythropoietin (EPO) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the best approach for reducing stroke risk in a hypertensive smoker with a history of TIA?

<p>Lisinopril (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following patients is most likely to develop septic arthritis?

<p>A person with prosthetic joint implants (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the diagnosis method for thalassemia?

<p>Hemoglobin electrophoresis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the common side effects associated with methotrexate?

<p>Pulmonary fibrosis and hepatotoxicity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common finding in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?

<p>Arthritis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which finding is associated with thalassemia rather than iron deficiency anemia?

<p>Low hematocrit + normal MCV + normal iron + normal ferritin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug is considered the first-line disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) for early rheumatoid arthritis?

<p>Methotrexate (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In patients with osteoarthritis taking NSAIDs, what causes the peripheral edema?

<p>Increased sodium retention due to decreased renal blood flow (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most specific antibody for Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?

<p>anti-Smith (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which histological pattern is characteristic of diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis (DPGN) in lupus nephritis?

<p>Wire looping capillary pattern (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the initial treatment for an immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) episode?

<p>Steroids (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with bleeding, which finding is indicative of a platelet problem?

<p>Increased bleeding time (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following drugs is associated with drug-induced lupus?

<p>Hydralazine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)?

<p>Antibodies against platelets (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the classic presentation of hemophilia in a child?

<p>Hemarthrosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the next best step in diagnosis for viral-induced aplastic anemia?

<p>Bone marrow aspiration (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the secondary function of von Willebrand factor (vWF)?

<p>Stabilizes factor VIII in plasma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptoms are indicative of a platelet problem in von Willebrand disease (vWD)?

<p>Epistaxis, bruising, and petechiae (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main cause of vitamin K deficiency in adults?

<p>Chronic antibiotic use (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What mutation leads to sickle cell disease?

<p>Glutamic acid to valine on beta-chain (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common presentation of agranulocytosis in patients?

<p>Mouth ulcers and fever (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antibiotics are examples of broad-spectrum agents used for febrile neutropenia?

<p>Piperacillin/tazobactam; cefepime + vancomycin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the strongest indication for anticoagulation therapy?

<p>Prosthetic material in heart / prosthetic valve (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an appropriate use for ganciclovir?

<p>Treatment of CMV infections (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which organism is associated with bloody diarrhea after poultry consumption?

<p>Campylobacter jejuni (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first-line treatment for Clostridium difficile infection?

<p>Vancomycin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with community-acquired pneumonia presenting with bilateral infiltrates on chest X-ray, which organism is most likely implicated?

<p>Mycoplasma pneumoniae (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic triad of symptoms indicating cardiac tamponade?

<p>Hypotension + muffled heart sounds + JVD (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most appropriate screening method for pulmonary embolism in a pregnant patient?

<p>V/Q scan (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following acid-base disturbances is expected in a patient with pulmonary embolism?

<p>Respiratory alkalosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which organism is typically responsible for pneumonia in patients with exposure to rabbits?

<p>Francisella tularensis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When treating a pulmonary embolism in a patient who is already on warfarin, what is the next step?

<p>Perform a spiral CT to confirm the diagnosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Pseudoabscess in Pancreatitis

A circular lesion in the pancreas, often seen in pancreatitis, that may indicate the presence of a pseudoabscess. This finding suggests the need for ERCP (Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography) to drain the abscess internally.

Radiographic Features of Emphysema

Emphysema is characterized by the abnormal enlargement of air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles, often caused by destruction of alveolar walls. On a chest X-ray, this is seen as bullous changes or expanded lungs with hyperlucency.

Centri-acinar Emphysema

Centri-acinar emphysema, the most common type of emphysema, is primarily located in the respiratory bronchioles and is strongly associated with cigarette smoking.

Pan-acinar Emphysema

Pan-acinar emphysema, a less common type, involves the entire acinus (all parts of the respiratory bronchiole) and is typically caused by alpha-1 anti-trypsin deficiency.

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FEV1/FVC in Restrictive Lung Disease

A restrictive lung disease is characterized by a decrease in lung volume, leading to difficulties in expanding the lungs. This results in a normal or even increased FEV1/FVC ratio, because the lung's ability to exhale is not significantly impaired.

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Traveler's Diarrhea

A bacterial infection causing watery diarrhea, typically acquired while traveling. The most common cause is enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC) producing heat-labile (HL) or heat-stable (HS) toxins.

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C. difficile Colitis

Caused by Clostridioides difficile, this infection manifests as bloody diarrhea, often following antibiotic use. It is diagnosed through stool toxin testing, not culture.

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Toxic Megacolon

A serious complication of C. difficile colitis characterized by fever, abdominal distension, and potential bowel perforation. Requires emergency surgery.

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Entamoeba histolytica Infection

A protozoan parasite causing bloody diarrhea, often acquired through contaminated food or water, especially in travel settings.

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Cardiac Tamponade

A condition characterized by a build-up of fluid in the space between the heart and the sac that surrounds it. Symptoms include muffled heart sounds, low blood pressure, and distended neck veins (JVD).

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Mycoplasma Pneumonia

A common cause of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP), characterized by bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray. Often presents with milder symptoms compared to other pneumonia types.

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Streptococcus pneumoniae Pneumonia (Lobar Pneumonia)

A severe form of pneumonia caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, usually affecting a specific lobe of the lung (e.g., right lower lobe). Presents with consolidation on chest x-ray, dullness to percussion.

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Pulmonary Embolism (PE)

A life-threatening blood clot in the lungs, often arising from a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the legs. Presents with shortness of breath, chest pain, and leg swelling.

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What is otitis media caused by?

A common cause of fluid buildup in the middle ear, often leading to pain and discomfort in children.

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How is otitis media treated?

The treatment for otitis media is typically oral amoxicillin for a short duration.

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What is otitis externa?

A condition characterized by inflammation of the outer ear canal, often caused by water exposure or irritation.

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How is otitis externa treated?

Topical ciprofloxacin and hydrocortisone drops are commonly used to treat otitis externa, addressing both infection and inflammation.

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What are the main types of microcytic anemia?

Iron deficiency anemia, thalassemia, and anemia of chronic disease are all types of microcytic anemia.

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What are the characteristics of anemia of chronic disease?

Anemia of chronic disease is characterized by low hematocrit, low MCV, and low iron, but normal or high ferritin levels. It's often associated with conditions like chronic kidney disease, rheumatoid arthritis, and lupus.

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How is anemia of chronic disease treated if it is caused by renal failure?

Erythropoietin (EPO) is a hormone that stimulates the production of red blood cells. In cases of anemia of chronic disease caused by renal failure, EPO treatment can be effective.

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What is thalassemia, and how is it diagnosed?

Thalassemia is a genetic disorder that affects the production of hemoglobin, leading to microcytic anemia. It's often diagnosed through hemoglobin electrophoresis.

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What is the mechanism behind autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

A condition where antibodies attack the body's own hematologic cells, often with a focus on thrombocytopenia (low platelet count). Seen in autoimmune diseases like SLE.

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How do you treat a flare of SLE?

Steroids are the primary treatment for exacerbations (flares) of SLE.

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What is the histological pattern of Diffuse Proliferative Glomerulonephritis (DPGN)?

This type of lupus nephritis is characterized by the presence of "wire looping" capillaries on histology.

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What is the first-line treatment for lupus nephritis?

Mycophenolate mofetil is the primary drug used to treat lupus nephritis.

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What's a common treatment for discoid lupus?

Hydroxychloroquine is a primary treatment for discoid lupus.

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Which antibody is most associated with SLE?

This specific antibody, unlike others, is highly associated with SLE.

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Which antibody rises in acute SLE flares?

Anti-dsDNA levels rise during SLE flare-ups, while C3 levels decrease.

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What kind of antibodies are associated with drug-induced lupus?

Anti-histone antibodies are often found in patients with drug-induced lupus (DIL).

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What is pseudogout?

A condition that causes joint pain and swelling, similar to gout but caused by calcium pyrophosphate crystals instead of uric acid. It is treated similarly to gout, with medications to reduce inflammation and pain. Chronic cases may require treatment of the underlying condition.

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What is the biggest risk factor for osteoarthritis?

Obesity is a significant risk factor for osteoarthritis, increasing the load on joints and contributing to cartilage breakdown.

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How do NSAIDs lead to peripheral edema in patients with osteoarthritis?

NSAID medication decreases blood flow to the kidneys, which perceive a lower volume status. To compensate, the kidneys reabsorb more sodium, leading to water retention and peripheral edema.

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What are the two main goals of rheumatoid arthritis treatment?

Treatment for rheumatoid arthritis involves both symptom relief and disease-modifying therapy. NSAIDs are used initially for pain relief, followed by steroids if needed. However, neither slows disease progression. Methotrexate, followed by other DMARDs, is the key for slowing down RA.

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How does methotrexate work in rheumatoid arthritis?

Methotrexate is a dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor, interrupting the production of tetrahydrofolic acid, crucial for DNA synthesis. This impacts rapidly dividing cells, including those contributing to the inflammation of rheumatoid arthritis.

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What are the most specific antibodies for identifying rheumatoid arthritis?

Anti-CCP (cyclic citrullinated peptide) antibodies are more specific to rheumatoid arthritis than rheumatoid factor (RF). While RF is present in a significant number of patients with RA, anti-CCP antibodies are more strongly linked to the diagnosis.

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What should be done for any patient with a red, warm, and tender knee?

Septic arthritis is a serious infection of the joint, and any red, warm, and tender joint should be aspirated to rule it out.

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What is juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA)?

Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) is a chronic inflammatory condition affecting joints in children. Recurrent joint pain, inflammation, high ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate), and sometimes a rash could be indicative of this condition.

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What is the primary function of vWF in platelet adhesion?

von Willebrand factor (vWF) binds to platelet GpIb and collagen, facilitating platelet adhesion to the injured vessel wall. This is distinct from platelet aggregation, which involves the binding of platelets to each other.

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How does vWF influence factor VIII?

vWF also has a secondary function in stabilizing factor VIII within the plasma. This is why patients with vWD often have a mildly prolonged aPTT, as factor VIII is less stable and degraded at a faster rate.

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What are the typical clinical manifestations of vWD?

vWD is characterized by both platelet abnormalities and a clotting factor deficiency (due to the role of vWF). The platelet defect can lead to minor bleeding events like epistaxis and bruising, while the clotting factor problem may result in more severe bleeding during procedures or menstruation.

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What is the primary cause of vitamin K deficiency in adults?

Vitamin K is essential for the production of several clotting factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X. In adults, vitamin K deficiency is often caused by prolonged antibiotic therapy, which disrupts the normal gut flora responsible for vitamin K synthesis.

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Describe the genetic basis of sickle cell anemia.

Sickle cell anemia is a genetic condition caused by a specific mutation in the beta-globin gene. This mutation leads to the substitution of glutamic acid with valine at the sixth position of the beta-chain, causing the red blood cells to adopt a sickle shape.

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Which medications are known to cause agranulocytosis?

Agranulocytosis is a severe reduction in neutrophils, a type of white blood cell essential for fighting infections. It can be a serious adverse effect of several medications, including clozapine (antipsychotic), ganciclovir (antiviral), propylthiouracil and methimazole (antithyroid), methotrexate (immunosuppressant), and ticlopidine (antiplatelet).

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How is febrile neutropenia managed?

Febrile neutropenia (neutropenic fever) is a serious condition characterized by fever in patients with low neutrophil counts. It requires immediate treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as piperacillin/tazobactam or cefepime + vancomycin.

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Study Notes

USMLE Review Part I

  • This is a review guide for the USMLE Part I exam.
  • The document includes information on various medical topics.
  • It covers travel-related illnesses, diarrhea-causing pathogens, and their respective treatments.
  • It details other digestive issues and their diagnoses.
  • The document includes information relevant to cardiac conditions, like ischemia and pericarditis.
  • It provides details about diagnosing and managing conditions like cardiac ischemia, pericarditis, and ECG interpretation.
  • It includes information regarding various types of pneumonia and appropriate treatments.
  • The review covers diagnoses for various types of incontinence, with specific treatments for each.
  • The content is focused on the diagnosis and treatment of various medical conditions in a clinical context related to the USMLE Part I exam.

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