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TCOLE 250 Question Quiz

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250 Questions

In all criminal prosecutions, the accused shall enjoy the right to a speedy and public trial, by an impartial jury of the state and district wherein the crime shall have been committed, which district shall have been previously ascertained by law, and to be informed of the nature and cause of the accusation; to be confronted with the witnesses against him; to have compulsory process for obtaining witnesses in his favor, and to have the assistance of counsel for his defense. Which Amendment is this?

Amendment VI

The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated, and no warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause, supported by oath or affirmation, and particularly describing the place to be searched, and the persons or things to be seized. Which Amendment is this?

Amendment IV

The enumeration in the Constitution, of certain rights, shall not be construed to deny or disparage others retained by the people is which Amendment?

Amendment IX

Possessing the maturity, courage, and discipline to follow through and do what you know is right in situations of strong temptation and/or great pressure from others.

Moral Character

____________________ means people have trust and confidence in the police, accept police authority and believe officers are fair.

Police legitimacy

It is perfectly ethical for peace officer to accept free meals from a restaurant owner who wants to discourage rowdy drunks and armed robberies.

False

Officers build public confidence by:

Treating people with dignity and respect

The “__________” role is performed by being objective, impartial, neutral and ethical in personal behavior and in functioning as a representative of the criminal justice system.

ethical

The Crime Triangle is:

Victim / Offender / Location

Which of the following was specifically listed by TCOLE as being a “characteristic of professionalism?”

Service to others.

The ethical role is performed by being _______ in personal behavior and in functioning as a representative of the criminal justice system.

All of these

Facing a barricaded, armed suspect is an example of _____________.

Physical Courage

Refusing gratuities is an example of ________________

Moral Courage

Elected County Law Enforcement consists of ______________________.

Constables and Sheriffs

The peace officer works for and services the citizen of the community in which (s) he is employed. It is the police officer’s duty to protect and serve his/her community short of placing his/her life at risk.

False

The line function of Community Policing is regular contact between officers and citizens.

True

Policing in America has its roots in _____________ methods.

European

In the Community policing philosophy CPO stands for ________________.

Community Policing Officer

The officer and his/her agency must meet numerous standards that determine how (s) he is to do the job. The state government alone sets these standards.

False

It is important to help citizens however possible, including referral to a private attorney or bail bondsman.

False

The basic concept of quality police customer service is to provide a level of service in which the citizen not only receives the basic protection expected of a police agency, but receives it in a highly effective and efficient manner from police personnel who display a highly positive, friendly, and helpful manner.

True

__________________ is a new philosophy of policing, based on the concept that police officers and private citizens working together in creative ways can help solve contemporary community problems related to crime, fear of crime, social and physical disorder, and neighborhood decay.

Community policing

Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) is incident specific. This is heavy-duty stress that causes psychological and physical discomfort for 2 days to 1 month.

False

The condition of the body that enables an individuals to use his or her body in activities requiring strength, muscular endurance, cardiovascular endurance, flexibility, coordination, ability, power, balance, speed, and accuracy, without undue experience?

physical fitness.

A sign or symptom of drug / alcohol abuse is ________________________.

All these correct

_________________ are organic substances essential for metabolism, growth and development.

Vitamins

Common signs of suicidal thoughts and behavior includes:

All correct

The principles of an exercise program are:

Progressive Overload, Regularity & Recovery, Specificity, and Balance

What tends to reinforce prejudice concerning the group’s alleged inferiority?

Discrimination

Officers often work alone and makes decisions demanding impartiality on their part with no one (but _________) present to witness fairness.

the citizen

________________ is the act of regarding one’s culture as the “center of the universe,” and hence as the basis for all comparisons with other cultures.

Ethnocentrism

_____________ is a cognitive position based on a person’s knowledge, feelings, and experiences about someone or something influencing him/her to behave in a certain way about that person or thing.

Attitude

____________ is a way of thinking and acting based on tradition; i.e., learned behavior passed down from one generation to another.

Culture

Four Basic Feelings or Attitudes Harbored By Most Prejudiced Persons:

Feeling of superiority, Others are strange and different, Proprietary claims, Fear

Not all of us have some form of prejudice.

False

_______________ provides a source of egotistic satisfaction, through comparing others with oneself.

Ethnocentrism

_____________ is acting on the basis of prejudice.

Discrimination

We assume that impartial enforcement of the law requires that no person be treated unfairly, unjustly, or with bias or prejudice.

True

What are not adverse consequences of insensitivity?

Self respect

A peace officer may not engage in racial profiling.

True

Terry v. Ohio, 392 U.S. 1, 88 S.Ct. 1868 (1968) covers _____________________.

All of these

__________________ a law enforcement-initiated action based on an individual's race, ethnicity, or national origin rather than on the individual's behavior or on information identifying the individual as having engaged in criminal activity.

Racial profiling

A peace officer is liable for damages arising from an act relating to the collection or reporting of information as required by Article 2.133 or under a policy adopted under Article 2.132.

False

Whren v. United States, 517 U.S. 806, 116 S.Ct. 1769 (1996) covers _________________.

All correct

Which of the following U.S. Supreme Court cases has been interpreted to limit the level of force that may be used by law enforcement to reasonable force?

Tennessee v. Garner

Which Amendment requires that the accused have a right to be confronted with witnesses against him?

Sixth Amendment.

The right to be free from double jeopardy is found in the...

Fifth Amendment.

A case is tried in Justice of the Peace Court and the person is found guilty. What court could the defendant appeal this conviction to?

County

Article 3 of the U.S. Constitution...

Provides for the establishment and jurisdiction of the U.S. Supreme Court.

The requirement that the government must act in accordance with due process of law is contained in which two amendments to the U.S. Constitution?

Fifth and Fourteenth

If the U.S. Supreme Court decides to hear a case on appeal it issues a “___________________________”.

Writ of Certiorari

Article 3 of the U.S. Constitution gives “__________” as the only crime to be found in the constitution.

Treason.

The Fourth Amendment to the Constitution:

Protects citizens from unreasonable searches and seizures

The 5th Amendment to the U.S. Constitution gives citizens the protection from __________.

self-incrimination

A seventeen- year-old boy engages in consensual sexual intercourse with his thirteen-year-old girlfriend. What crime, if any, has occurred?

Aggravated Sexual Assault

When a person fights with another in a public place it is considered

Class C Misdemeanor

A person acts “_____________________”, with respect to circumstances surrounding his conduct or the result of his conduct when he is aware of but consciously disregards a substantial and unjustifiable risk that the circumstances exist or the result will occur. The risk must be of such a nature and degree that its disregard constitutes a gross deviation from the standard of care that an ordinary person would exercise under all the circumstances as viewed from the actor's standpoint.

recklessly, or is reckless

A person commits “Burglary” if, without the effective consent of the owner, the person...

Enters a habitation, or a building (or any portion of a building) not then open to the public, with intent to commit a felony, theft, or an assault.

A person attains a specified age on the day of the anniversary of his birth date.

True

Cadet Jones did not study for his Penal Code test. In order to gain more time for study, he calls the Academy office and states, “a bomb will go off there in 20 minutes”. As a result, the Academy is evacuated while the building is searched. What is the crime with which he may be charged?

Terroristic Threat

The general purposes of the Texas Penal Code is to establish a system of prohibitions, penalties, and correctional measures to deal with conduct that unjustifiably and inexcusably causes or threatens harm to those individual or public interests for which state protection is appropriate.

True

INDECENT EXPOSURE. A person commits an offense if he exposes his anus or any part of his genitals with intent to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person, and he is reckless about whether another is present who will be offended or alarmed by his act.

Class B Misdemeanor

A father leaves his four-year-old daughter in his auto with his fifteen year old son while he buys groceries. He does not return to his vehicle for over 15 minutes. What offense, if any, has occurred?

no offense has occurred

A person commits the offense of AGGRAVATED KIDNAPPING if he intentionally or knowingly abducts another person with the intent to:

All listed

A person commits the crime of “____________” if the person intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly causes bodily injury to another, including the person’s spouse.

Assault

A person commits the offense of “______________” if, with intent to interfere with the lawful custody of a child younger than 18 years, he knowingly entices, persuades or takes the child from the custody of the parent or guardian or person standing in the stead of the parent or guardian of such child.

Enticing a Child

What is the maximum monetary penalty that a person may be assessed for committing a felony?

$10,000

A person commits “___________________” if the person is intoxicated while operating an amusement ride or while assembling a mobile amusement ride.

Assembling or Operating an Amusement Ride While Intoxicated.

In section 30.02 of the Texas Penal Code the term "enter" means to intrude:

All listed

A person commits “Capital Murder” if the person intentionally commits the murder in the course of committing or attempting to commit “_______________.”

Kidnapping

The following are prohibited weapons:

All are prohibited weapons.

A person commits criminal homicide if he intentionally, knowingly, recklessly, or with criminal negligence causes the death of an individual.

True

In the course of an armed robbery of a convenience store, the robber intentionally shoots and kills a store employee. What is the most serious crime that has occurred?

Capital Murder

The most serious crime that a person commits is “______________” if they murder more than one person A) during the same criminal transaction; or (B) during different criminal transactions but the murders are committed pursuant to the same scheme or course of conduct.

Capital Murder

A peace officer commissioned and authorized by another state to make arrests for felonies who is in fresh pursuit of a person for the purpose of arresting that person for _______________ may continue the pursuit into this state and arrest the person.

a felony

A peace officer _________________, when a felony or Class “A” misdemeanor has been committed in the presence or within the view of a magistrate, and such magistrate verbally orders the arrest of the offender.

may arrest, without a warrant

_____ is a right to bring a body before the court or judge to determine the merits of his claim.

habeas corpus

A peace officer _________________, when a felony or breach of the peace has been committed in the presence or within the view of a magistrate, and such magistrate verbally orders the arrest of the offender.

may arrest, without a warrant

An instrument issued by the clerk of a court or a justice of the peace commanding that the person named therein appear at a specific time and place is a/an...

subpoena.

No person shall be convicted of Treason except on the testimony of _____ witnesses to the same overt act, or on confession in open court.

2

A ______________ is written order from a magistrate, directed to a peace officer or some other person specially named, commanding him to take the body of the person accused of an offense, to be dealt with according to law.

warrant of arrest

Under which of the following situations is an officer NOT permitted to make a custody arrest provided the person is willing to sign a citation?

A person charged with “Possession of Alcoholic Beverage in Motor Vehicle”.

The CCP Art. 15.25 specifically states, “In case of __________, the officer may break down the door of any house for the purpose of making an arrest, if he be refused admittance after giving notice of his authority and purpose.”

felony

An inquest of a deceased person need not be held if the person...

Dies while attended by a physician and cause of death is known.

In the absence of other effective measures the following procedures to safeguard the Fifth Amendment privilege must be observed: The person in custody must, prior to interrogation, be clearly informed that he has the right to remain silent, and that any statement can be used against them.

Miranda v. Arizona 384 US 436 (1966)

________________ is generally considered to be that area of open space surrounding a dwelling which is so immediately adjacent to the dwelling that it is considered part of the house.

Curtilage

The “_________________” doctrine is the notion that evidence obtained after illegal government action will be excluded from evidence. This pertains not only to physical or tangible materials generally subject to the “Exclusionary Rule”, but also intangibles such as subsequent confessions, admissions, identifications, and testimony obtained as a result of the initial unlawful activity.

Fruit of the Poisonous Tree

Probable Cause is defined as: A reasonable ground to suspect that a person has committed or is committing a crime or that a place contains specific items connected with a crime.

True

A limitation on the warrantless entry onto property is the “______________”, or that portion of property immediately surrounding a residence and its attached buildings. This is legally considered a private zone,- like the home itself.

curtilage area

“__________ v. ___________” is, according to your textbook, “colorfully” known as the “Fruit of the Poisonous Tree Case.”

Wong Sun v. U.S.

Which is not an element that can be used to establish probable cause?

Race

A peace officer may arrest an offender without a warrant, when a felony or_______________ has been committed in the presence or within the view of a magistrate, and such magistrate verbally orders the arrest of the offender.

breach of the peace

Examples of suspicion are:

What you see, hear and smell

The degree of proof required to “stop and frisk” is called:

reasonable suspicion.

Property used in a first or second-degree felony can be defined as contraband.

True

Even if an owner acquires property before an illegal act is committed and does not know, this is still not a valid defense against their property being forfeited.

False

Contraband property not held as evidence in a criminal investigation may be bonded.

True

Property subject to forfeiture under CCP Chapter 59 may be seized by ________________ under the authority of a search warrant.

any peace officer

"_______" A person commits an offense if the person knowingly manufactures, sells, purchases, transports, or possesses a "BLANK" with intent to use it to: make another believe that it is an explosive or incendiary device or cause alarm or reaction of any type by an official of a public safety agency or volunteer agency organized to deal with emergencies.

Hoax Bomb

"_______" A felon commits an offense if he possesses a firearm after conviction and before the fifth anniversary of the person's release from confinement following conviction of the felony or the person's release from supervision under community supervision, parole, or mandatory supervision, whichever date is later.

Unlawful Possession of Firearm

If an act of family violence prevents a property owner from stopping an illegal act, this may be used as a defense against forfeiture.

True

According to the Federal Trade Commission (FTC) 65,000 persons were victims of identity crime in 2000.

False

A notice placed on a consumer file that alerts a recipient of a consumer report involving that consumers file that the consumer's identity may have been used without the consumer's consent to fraudulently obtain goods and services in the consumer's name is a ___________________.

security alert

Texas is _____ in the nation in the number of instances of identity crime reported to the FTC.

Fifth

The state statute that deals with identity crime is ___________________.

All listed

The FBI should be notified if an identity crime is used to commit a bank fraud up to $100,000.

False

Bookstores and Internet retailers, are prevented from providing publications that give criminals step-by-step instructions on techniques for producing false documents.

False

Notify U.S. Secret Service if there is any custody arrest of individuals associated with identity crime or identity takeover.

True

It is important to check your credit when identity theft occurs.

True

Insurance account numbers are a financial identifier for identity crimes.

True

The federal statue that deals with identity theft is __________________.

Identity Theft and Assumption Deterrence Act

The BPOC list several advantages for “automobile patrol.” Which of the following was specifically listed:

All listed

Negative consequences of ineffective public service are:

All listed

Silhouetting provides suspect(s) with knowledge of officers'...

numbers, firepower, and approach.

During a one officer field interview with two or more persons, the officer should:

maintain overall observation of persons

Which of the following best describes the three major groups of hazards you must constantly guard against for safety reasons?

Telltale noises, silhouetting, and suspects' hands

A ______ is a proactive search team dedicated to locating and eliminating the deadly conduct that is occurring.

contact team

In which step of the “Seven-step Violator Contact Method” is the violator required to identify himself by displaying a driver's license or other identification?

Step 3

The following are statements concerning law enforcement’s relationship to “crime prevention. Which of the statements are considered to be true?

All are correct

The definition given for “____________” is one who is able to take in everything around a given situation and then sort out the relevant from the irrelevant.

Skilled observer

Which of the following statements is true regarding “bicycle patrol?”

All listed

Regular civil citations expire.

False

Capias may be issued by:

All listed

Citations, unless for delinquent ad valorem taxes, do not expire.

True

In a civil judgement, Order of Sale requires the officer to collect the judgement amount and costs associated with the sale.

True

Writ issued while a case is pending that allows seizure of defendant’s property because the plaintiff will probably lose his/her debt unless the writ issued is...

Writ of Attachment for Property

A _________________ is court order from a higher court to a lower court or to a government official or office commanding that person or entity to perform an act required by law which that entity has refused to do.

Writ of Mandamus

Writ of Attachment may be served on Sunday.

True

Which of the following is not one of the six major categories of controlled substances?

dangerous drugs

“___________” means a substance that has an addiction-forming or addiction-sustaining, liability similar to morphine or is capable of conversion into a drug having addiction-forming or addiction-sustaining liability.

Opiate

“_______________” means a person, other than a pharmacist, who manufactures dangerous drugs. The term includes a person who prepares dangerous dosage form by mixing, compounding, encapsulating, enabling, or any other process. (HSC 483.001)

Manugacturer

“______________” means actual care, custody, control, or management.

Possession

“_________________” means an order from a practitioner, or an agent of the practitioner designated in writing as authorized to communicate prescriptions, or an order made in accordance with Subchapter B, Chapter 157, Occupations Code, or Section 203.353

Prescription

Package liquor stores may not sell liquor on:

All listed

A peace officer may seize without a warrant:

All listed

A person may purchase an alcoholic beverage for or give an alcoholic beverage to a minor if he is the minor’s ___________________ and he is visibly present when the minor possesses or consumes the alcoholic beverage.

All listed

A person who sells a minor an alcoholic beverage does not commit an offense if the minor falsely represents himself to be ______years or older by displaying an apparently valid Texas driver’s license or an identification card issued by the Texas Department of Public Safety.

21

The holder of a wine only package store permit may employ a person to work in any capacity if that person is at least...

sixteen years of age.

A person commits the offense of “_______________” if he threatens to commit any offense involving violence to any person or property with intent to place any person in fear of imminent serious bodily injury.

Terroristic Threat

Under the Family Code, a “_________________ offender” means a child who is accused, adjudicated, or convicted for conduct that would not, under state law, be a crime if committed by an adult.

status

A peace officer _______ arrest a suspect if he has probable cause to believe he has violated a protective order, and it does occur in his presence.

shall

A very jealous husband handcuffs his wife to a bedpost against her will and doesn’t turn her loose for a week. What crime has occurred?

Unlawful Restraint

Which of the following were specifically listed as being one of the “common characteristics of family violence offenders?”

the majority of family violence is male-on-female; so “offender” in this context generally refers to a male offender.

“_______________” is an act by a member of a family or household against another member of the family or household that is intended to result in physical harm, bodily injury, assault, or sexual assault.

family violence

Under the Family Code, “_______________” means a unit composed of persons living together in the same dwelling, without regard to whether they are related to each other.

household

Golden Boy entices a young girl living on the street to perform in an explicit video with a young man. Unknown to him, the girl is only 14-years old. Has Golden Boy committed an offense of Sexual Performance By a Child?

Yes. Ignorance is not a defense.

A person commits an offense of "kidnapping" is he intentionally or knowingly _______ another person.

abducts

According to Art. 63.0041 of the Texas Code of Criminal Procedure, a local law enforcement agency has up to _____________ after receiving a report of an attempted child abduction to provide any relevant information regarding the attempted child abduction to the Texas Missing Person Clearinghouse.

8 hours

Abduct means to restrain a person with intent to prevent his liberation by secreting or holding him in a place where he is not likely to be found.

True

Suzy is a 17-year old whose aunt has come over to babysit while her mother works. Bored, the aunt asks if Suzy would like to go to an amusement park in the next state, 120 miles away. Suzy agrees, and without notifying the mother the two take off. According to Penal Code (20.01), does this constitute Restraint "without consent."

False

An officer must immediately contact the Department of Public Safety upon encountering a person listed on the CSCAL.

False

Family Code §262.104 allows an officer to take temporary possession of the child without a court order if certain circumstances exist. This includes information furnished by another that has been corroborated by personal experience and all of which taken together would lead a person of ordinary prudence and caution to believe that the child has been the victim of sexual abuse or of trafficking under Section 20A.02 or 20A.03, Penal Code.

False

Family Code §262.104 allows an officer to take temporary possession of the child without a court order if certain circumstances exist. This includes personal knowledge of facts that would lead a person of ordinary prudence and caution to believe that the child has been the victim of sexual abuse or of trafficking under Section 20A.02 or 20A.03, Penal Code.

True

Family Code §262.104 allows an officer to take temporary possession of the child without a court order if certain circumstances exist. This includes information furnished by another combined with personal instincts and all of which taken together would lead a person of ordinary prudence and caution to believe that there is an immediate danger to the physical health or safety of the child.

False

To ensure the safety and well-being of a child, a peace officer may temporarily detain the child or other person.

True

Phases of a victim's reaction to crime (crisis) includes ______________, the phase immediately after the violence (crime). Victims feel as if they are in shock. Some cannot eat or sleep, while others may express disbelief that the violence (crime) actually occurred. Many victims feel exposed and vulnerable or express feelings of helplessness.

Impact

Flashbacks of a previous trauma is what type of response to a crisis?

Psychological

Victims of trauma may want "mommy" or "daddy" to come take care of them.

True

Some of the childish things a victim of trauma might do includes singing nursery rhymes.

True

The physical response to trauma is based on our animal instincts. It includes _______________.

All listed

There are ______ psychological response stages to crisis.

3

Recovery from immediate trauma is often affected by:

Severity of crisis reation

Consumers of human trafficking can be anybody willing to pay for the illegitimate services of another and can even be of the same nationality and race as their victims.

True

It is estimated that human trafficking is the most profitable transnational crime next to the sale of weapons and drugs.

False

"How did you pay for your travel?" is a good question to determine human trafficking.

True

Today, trafficking of humans is believed to occur on only a few continents and it's believed that fewer people are enslaved now than in any other time in human history.

False

Signs of malnourishment and/or poor personal hygiene can also be indicators of human trafficking.

True

Which of the following is the correct charge to file on an intoxicated operator of a motor vehicle involved in a traffic collision in which another person dies as a result of the collision?

Intoxication Manslaughter

Which of the following would be classed as an “authorized emergency vehicle” in accordance with the Transportation Code?

All are correct

Which person may not be issued a driver's license in the state of Texas?

A seventeen-year-old person seeking a class C license to go to work because she dropped out of high school after forty days of class for hardship reasons to seek work to help her family.

A flashing red signal is:

a stop sign.

How many days must a police officer give a violator to appear in court when the person has been permitted to sign the traffic ticket?

Ten

An operator is operating a passenger car with a single license plate registered to another vehicle. The operator is committing...

two misdemeanors.

Skid marks indicate...

how far a vehicle slid after the wheels locked.

What is the total number of headlights that a vehicle can have on each side of the vehicle?

Two

Flat tire marks are generally...

much longer than any car would ever skid.

Vehicular traffic entering an intersection controlled by a signal light which shows a "Red Light" with "Green Arrow" facing the driver of such vehicle shall yield the right of way to __________ lawfully within a crosswalk but will have the right of way to other vehicles.

pedestrains

“Nystagmus” is...

An involuntary jerking of the eyes.

A person commits the offense of “Driving While Intoxicated” if the person is intoxicated while operating a motor vehicle...

in a public place.

In PC Chapter 49, “Open Container” means:

All answers are valid

Which of the following is given as a “Field Sobriety Test?”

All listed

“_____________” means a vessel, one or more water skis, an aquaplane, or another device used for transporting or carrying a person, on water, other than a device propelled only by the current of water.

Watercraft

When punctuation is totally omitted from one or two sentences, the most likely result is...

a run-on sentence.

Most notes are the product of:

interviews.

A sentence fragment is a group of words that...

does not express a complete thought.

In crime reports, most spelling errors are caused by...

laziness.

Two major concerns in writing crime reports are:

proper word usage and correct grammar.

The sentence "Latent fingerprints were found on the bottle" is written in...

Passive voice.

When a report writer uses a comma between two sentences instead of a period, semicolon, or conjunction, the resulting error is a...

*comma splice.

________________ is the process of carefully gathering information based on verbal and nonverbal observations.

Active listening

_____________ is the psychological identification with or vicarious experiencing of the feelings, thoughts, or attitudes of another. Simply understood it is the ability to understand and share the feelings of another (walking in their shoes).

Empathy

Most of the time when an officer gets attacked it is by someone standing right beside him. In addition, the attacker tells the officer he is going to do it. The attacker is always communicating.

True

People gain some self-esteem rush by wasting your time arguing.

True

________________________ the ability to recognize, understand, and manage our emotions; and to recognize, understand, and influence the emotions of others.

emotional intelligence

I speak only a little Spanish.

Hablo sólo un poco de español

Do you speak English?

¿Habla usted inglés?

What?

¿Qué?

Take His/Her Gun

quíale la pistola

Boyfriend

Novio

A person is justified in using force, but not deadly force, against another when and to the degree he reasonably believes the force is immediately necessary to ______________.

Prevent the other from committing suicide or inflicting serious bodily injury to himself.

Which of the following is true concerning “perception of a message” in the communication process?

60% of the time a message is received due to non-verbals (body language).

Which of the following statements is true in regard to “prevention of escape from custody?”

A guard employed by a correctional facility or a peace officer is justified in using any force, including deadly force that he reasonably believes to be immediately necessary to prevent the escape of a person from the correctional facility.

Which of the following was specifically listed as “Use of Force Options” in the BPOC?

All listed

The “threat of force”...

Is justified when the use of force is justified.

Even though an actor is justified in the Penal Code in threatening or using force or deadly force against another, if in doing so he also recklessly injures or kills an innocent third person...

The justification afforded is unavailable in a prosecution for the reckless injury or killing of the innocent third person.

Law enforcement’s role in making a physical arrest is essentially...

Defensive

The “legal authority to use force” is found in...

Code of Criminal Procedure and Penal Code

In the BPOC, TCLEOSE indicates that communication is an important professional skill and that _______ % of an officer’s duties involve verbal skills.

97

“____________” is defined as that degree of influence the officer must exert over the violator to take him or her safely into custody.

Control

A person is justified in using “deadly force” against another if the person would be justified in using force against the other under PC 9.31, and when and to the degree he reasonably believes the deadly force is immediately necessary to:

prevent the other’s imminent commission of “Robbery”

A person by “______________” is justified in using force against another when and to the degree he reasonably believes the force is immediately necessary to protect himself against the other’s use or attempted use of unlawful force.

Self-defense

During a Kneeling search the suspect should be on their knees, legs crossed, hands behind head, fingers laced, and ________.

Back arched

When a single officer transports a single prisoner, which of the following applies?

All of these

When handcuffing, an officer should always:

Double lock

An advantage of the side approach to interview a suspect is:

that the suspect is off balance

Which of the following statements is true concerning the police “baton?”

All listed

What is not a component of an effective arrest?

Proper documentation

Force options include all of the following except:

None listed

In “ _________________” the reviewing Court ruled that handcuffing too tightly and failing to double-lock the handcuffs may lead to an excessive force claim, particularly when the officers have been place on notice after a suspect’s complaint.

Baskin v. Smith

Chain of custody or possession accounts for:

All are correct

“Wet evidence” such as ____________ must be allowed to dry before packaging to prevent rotting. It should be packaged in a paper bag to avoid purification.

bloodstains, semen stains, mud

“_______________” involves the chemical changes occurring in body tissues that tend to make muscles stiffen after death. The presence or absence of stiffening may help in establishing time of death.

Rigor Mortis

“____________” is defined as an individual who has fantasies, urges or behaviors that involve illegal sexual activity with a prepubescent child or children (generally 13 years or younger.)

Pedophilia

As a witness in a criminal trial and officer should be perceived by the jury as...

An “objective public servant” presenting only the facts of the case.

Robbery differs from theft and burglary in that it involves...

Force or threat of force.

When interviewing the victim of a sexual assault, the investigating officer should use...

a choice of language appropriate to the victim's age and social class.

Which of the following statements best defines why fatigue is a threat to safe driving?

It lowers visual efficiency and causes longer reaction time.

In negotiating a curve, which of the following actions describes the correct procedures on dry pavement?

Slow down before entering the curve; then accelerate through the curve to utilize centripetal force to the driver's advantage.

Which of the following driving movements contributes most to accidents?

Unsafe speed

Which of the following statements is false regarding the effectiveness and limitations of emergency equipment and vehicle equipment?

Headlights aid and increase visibility of emergency lights.

Defensive driving is an acknowledgment that an accident can happen...

to anyone, even a peace officer.

Physical description includes name, sex, race, DOB, height, weight, and hair / eye color. Other pertinent information includes:

All of these

The Texas Disaster Act of 1975 established the Division of Emergency Management (DEM) in the Office of the Governor and placed it under the director of _______________.

Texas Department of Public Safety

An officer should not transmit when advised by a base station to stand by due to interference from other communication not audible to the transmitting unit.

True

Which of the following was listed as a communicable disease generally encountered by first responders?

All listed

The specific emergency aid procedures recommended for treatment of shock include which of the following?

All listed

The specific emergency aid procedures recommended for treatments of burns include which of the following?

All listed

The “three basic elements” of CPR are:

Clear the airway, breathe for victim, and maintain circulation by chest compression.

The specific emergency aid procedures recommended for treatment for broken bones and severe sprains include which of the following?

All listed

The specific emergency aid procedures recommended for treatment for a heat-related illness included which of the following?

All listed

The specific emergency aid procedures recommending for the treatment of poisoning include which of the following?

A chemical poisoning by contact should be flushed with water.

An agency that employs at least ______ peace officers must comply with the annual firearm proficiency requirements.

1

The “Good Samaritan Act” provides that:

You are not liable for actions if you use ordinary care in following accepted and recognized emergency care procedures.

In handling firearms, treat all weapons as if they were ____ until proven otherwise.

Loaded

Which of the following court cases dealt with “warning shots?”

Jones v. Wittenberg University

What is the shortest distance to qualify with the handgun with two hands?

7

A placard on a vehicle transporting hazardous material must be in the shape of a...

Diamond

Which of the following were given as a “route of exposure” (hazardous materials, poisons, etc.)?

All are correct

"______" driver's license authorizes a person to operate a vehicle that has a gross Vehicle Weight Rating that is more than 26,000 pounds and is a bus with seating capacity of 24 passengers or more.

Class B Driver's License

A Class A driver's license authorizes a person to operate a vehicle with a gross vehicle weight rating of _______ pounds or more.

26,001

Study Notes

The Bill of Rights

  • The 6th Amendment guarantees the right to a speedy and public trial, an impartial jury, and to be informed of the nature and cause of the accusation.
  • The 4th Amendment protects against unreasonable searches and seizures, and no warrants shall issue without probable cause.

Trust and Confidence

  • People have trust and confidence in the police when they accept police authority and believe officers are fair.
  • Officers build public confidence by being objective, impartial, neutral, and ethical in their behavior.

The Crime Triangle

  • The Crime Triangle consists of desire, opportunity, and rationalization.

Professionalism

  • TCOLE listed being objective, impartial, neutral, and ethical as a characteristic of professionalism.
  • Refusing gratuities is an example of ethical behavior.

Community Policing

  • The peace officer works for and serves the community.
  • The line function of Community Policing is regular contact between officers and citizens.
  • Community Policing is a philosophy of policing based on the concept that police officers and private citizens working together can help solve community problems.

Policing in America

  • Policing in America has its roots in English methods.

Quality Police Customer Service

  • Quality police customer service provides a high level of service, including basic protection, in a highly effective and efficient manner.

Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

  • PTSD is incident-specific, causing psychological and physical discomfort for 2 days to 1 month.

Fitness and Wellness

  • Physical fitness enables individuals to use their bodies in activities requiring strength, muscular endurance, cardiovascular endurance, flexibility, coordination, ability, power, balance, speed, and accuracy.

Drug and Alcohol Abuse

  • Signs of drug/alcohol abuse include a lack of coordination, slurred speech, and an unsteady gait.

Prejudice and Bias

  • Ethnocentrism is the act of regarding one's culture as the center of the universe.
  • Prejudice is a cognitive position based on a person's knowledge, feelings, and experiences about someone or something influencing their behavior.
  • Four basic feelings or attitudes harbored by most prejudiced persons include superiority, hostility, fear, and intolerance.

Racial Profiling

  • A peace officer may not engage in racial profiling.
  • Racial profiling is a law enforcement-initiated action based on an individual's race, ethnicity, or national origin rather than on their behavior.

Law Enforcement Liability

  • A peace officer is liable for damages arising from an act relating to the collection or reporting of information.

Search and Seizure

  • The Fourth Amendment to the Constitution protects against unreasonable searches and seizures.
  • Whren v. United States (1996) covers the issue of a traffic stop being a seizure.
  • Terry v. Ohio (1968) covers the issue of a stop and frisk.

U.S. Constitution

  • Article 3 of the U.S. Constitution gives "treason" as the only crime found in the Constitution.
  • The Fifth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution gives citizens the protection from double jeopardy.

Criminal Justice

  • The requirement that the government must act in accordance with due process of law is contained in the Fifth and Fourteenth Amendments to the U.S. Constitution.
  • A person commits an offense if they intentionally, knowingly, recklessly, or with criminal negligence cause the death of an individual.

Texas Penal Code

  • The general purposes of the Texas Penal Code are to establish a system of prohibitions, penalties, and correctional measures to deal with conduct that unjustifiably and inexcusably causes or threatens harm to individual or public interests.

Crimes

  • A person commits an offense if they intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly cause bodily injury to another.
  • A person commits the offense of aggravated kidnapping if they intentionally or knowingly abduct another person with the intent to.
  • A person commits "Capital Murder" if they intentionally commit the murder in the course of committing or attempting to commit another crime.

TCOLEtest.com

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