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Questions and Answers

Which sequence accurately represents the three key mechanisms of primary hemostasis?

  • Adhesion, activation, coagulation
  • Activation, adhesion, aggregation (correct)
  • Aggregation, activation, adhesion
  • Adhesion, aggregation, activation

Platelet adhesion to the subendothelial matrix is primarily mediated by which factor?

  • Fibrinogen cross-linking
  • VWF binding to collagen receptors (correct)
  • Exposure of endothelial cell layer
  • Thrombin activation

Which pair of mediators, synthesized and released upon platelet activation, plays a crucial role in recruiting additional platelets for aggregation?

  • Serotonin and Heparin
  • Prostacyclin and Nitric Oxide
  • ADP and Thromboxane A2 (correct)
  • Epinephrine and VWF

During platelet aggregation, what is the primary role of fibrinogen?

<p>To link platelets together (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The formation of a cross-linked and water-insoluble fibrin clot characterizes which phase of hemostasis?

<p>Secondary hemostasis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which set of coagulation factors is dependent on vitamin K for their synthesis?

<p>Factors II, VII, IX, and X (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary initiator of coagulation in the extrinsic pathway?

<p>Tissue factor (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which sequence correctly describes the initiation of the extrinsic coagulation pathway?

<p>3 + 7 leads to 10 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the final common pathway of coagulation, which sequence leads to clot stabilization?

<p>5 * 2 * 1 = 13 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The prothrombin time (PT) assay is used to assess the function of which coagulation pathway?

<p>Extrinsic pathway (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) assay is used to assess the function of which coagulation pathway?

<p>Intrinsic pathway (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Activated clotting time (ACT) is used to monitor with which drug?

<p>Heparin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of action of unfractionated heparin?

<p>Strengthening antithrombin III (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to guidelines, how long should unfractionated heparin be discontinued prior to neuraxial anesthesia when administered for therapeutic purposes?

<p>4 to 24 hours (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is characterized by which pathophysiological mechanism?

<p>Formation of antibodies against factor 4 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The use of low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) in a patient undergoing spinal or epidural anesthesia increases the risk of which complication?

<p>Epidural hematoma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which best describes the mechanism of action of warfarin?

<p>Vitamin K antagonism (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For a patient on warfarin therapy, what is the generally accepted target range for the international normalized ratio (INR)?

<p>2.0 - 3.0 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many days prior to surgery should warfarin typically be discontinued to reduce the risk of bleeding complications?

<p>4 days (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Bivalirudin and argatroban, primarily inhibit which factor?

<p>Factor IIa (Thrombin) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Drugs like Xarelto and Apixaban, directly inhibit which factor?

<p>Factor Xa (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Apixaban reduces the risk of which condition?

<p>Stroke (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of action of aspirin?

<p>Inhibits cyclooxygenase (COX-1 and COX-2) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Before surgery and regional anesthesia, how long should clopidogrel be discontinued?

<p>5-7 days (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Within what time period are plasminogen activator thrombolytics contraindicated surrounding neuraxial and regional anesthesia?

<p>24 hours (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does antithrombin III work in the body?

<p>Deactivates platelet factors (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Antithrombin III is a cofactor for which drug?

<p>Heparin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Plasminogen activators, such as tPA and uPA, promote the formation of which substance, leading to fibrin clot breakdown?

<p>Plasmin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of action of epsilon aminocaproic acid (Amicar)?

<p>Binds to plasmin to inhibit it (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of tranexamic acid (TXA)?

<p>Inhibits plasmin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of action of protamine when used to reverse the effects of heparin?

<p>Binds to and neutralizes unfractionated heparin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Against which anticoagulant is protamine NOT effective?

<p>Low Molecular Weight Heparin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is a major side effect of protamine administration?

<p>Anaphylaxis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical dosage and administration timeframe for desmopressin?

<p>0.3 mcg/kg IV over 15-30 minutes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Desmopressin releases endogenous stores of what?

<p>Factor VIII or vWF (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which blood product is most often administered to treat low fibrinogen levels?

<p>Cryoprecipitate (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Approximately how much will 1 unit/10kg of cryoprecipitate increase the fibrinogen levels?

<p>50-70 d/l (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Potassium being the major cation and phosphate being the major anion are found in which body fluid compartment?

<p>Intracellular (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the major cation and chloride major anion found in the extracellular?

<p>Sodium (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What structure prevents the free movement of proteins and large macromolecules?

<p>Glycocalyx layer (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is an example of static parameter for monitoring intravascular volume status?

<p>Urine output (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Greater than 10-12% variation in dynamic parameters such as pulse pressure variation with respiration indicates?

<p>Fluid replacement will be appropriate (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Lactated ringers are considered what type of crystalloid?

<p>Isotonic and Balanced (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If SID (strong ion difference) is high, which is likely?

<p>Alkalosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In healthy patients, approximately what percentage of infused crystalloids remains intravascularly?

<p>20% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Name an example of a hypotonic crystalloid.

<p>1/2 NS (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient undergoing massive blood transfusion, hypocalcemia is often observed. Which of the following mechanisms primarily contributes to this electrolyte imbalance?

<p>Citrate, used as an anticoagulant in blood products, chelates calcium. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of hypertension is prescribed spironolactone. This medication primarily affects blood pressure by which mechanism?

<p>Antagonizing aldosterone receptors in the distal tubules to promote sodium and water excretion. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with elevated intracranial pressure receives mannitol. Which of the following best describes how mannitol reduces intracranial pressure?

<p>It creates an osmotic gradient that draws fluid from the brain tissue into the vasculature. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is receiving a loop diuretic chronically. Which of the following compensatory mechanisms is most likely to develop as a result of long-term loop diuretic use?

<p>Increased sodium reabsorption in the proximal tubule. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following administration of a large volume of normal saline, a patient develops hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis. Which of the following best explains the mechanism underlying this acid-base disturbance?

<p>Dilution of bicarbonate and increased chloride concentration, leading to a decrease in the strong ion difference. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Primary Hemostasis Mechanisms?

Activation, adhesion, and aggregation.

Platelet adhesion factors?

Endothelial layer exposure and VWF(attachment factor) to collagen receptors.

Mediators recruiting platelets?

ADP and thromboxane A2.

Fibrinogen's role?

Links platelets together during aggregation.

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Clot formation is?

Secondary hemostasis.

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Vitamin K factors?

Factors II, VII, IX, and X.

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Primary initiator of coagulation?

Factor III. Tissue factor.

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Extrinsic coagulation pathway?

Extrinsic pathway: Factor III + VII = Factor X.

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Intrinsic coagulation pathway?

Intrinsic pathway: XII, XI, IX, VIII = Factor X.

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Common pathway to stabilization?

5 * 2 * 1 = 13

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PT measures?

Extrinsic.

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aPTT measures?

Intrinsic.

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ACT measures?

Heparin and Fonda.

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Unfractionated Heparin MOA?

Strengthen antithrombin III.

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Unfractionated Heparin Hold before Neuraxial?

4-24 hours.

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HIT pathophysiology?

Antibody against platelet factor 4.

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LMWH Risk?

Hematoma.

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Warfarin MOA?

Inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase, affecting factors II, VII, IX, X

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INR target for Warfarin?

2-4

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Warfarin hold before surgery?

4 days

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Bivalirudin and Argatroban target?

Factor II.

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Apixaban and Xarelto MOA?

Factor Xa.

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Apixaban/Xarelto reduce:

Stroke.

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Aspirin MOA?

Blocks COX-1 and COX-2; inhibits thromboxane A2.

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Clopidogrel discontinuation?

5-7 days.

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Thrombolytics contraindication?

24 hours.

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Antithrombin III MOA?

Bind and deactivate platelet factors.

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Antithrombin III cofactor?

Heparin.

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Plasminogen activators increase?

Plasmin.

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Epsilon aminocaproic acid (Amicar) MOA?

Binds to and inhibits plasmin.

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Tranexamic acid (TXA) MOA?

Inhibits plasmin.

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Protamine MOA?

Reverses unfractionated heparin.

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Protamine ineffective against?

Low molecular weight heparin.

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Protamine side effects?

Hypertension, anaphylaxis, NPH-insulin patients, right-sided HF, pulmonary vasoconstriction.

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Desmopressin Releases?

Factor VIII or vWF

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Treat low fibrinogen with?

Cryoprecipitate.

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Potassium and phosphate location?

Intracellular.

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Sodium and chloride location?

Extracellular.

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Structures that block proteins and macromolecules?

Cell membrane and Glycolax layer

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Fluid Static parameters?

Urine Output, Hear Rate, Respiration Rate.

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What does greater than 10-12% variation indicate?

Fluid Replacement is necessary.

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Balanced Crystalloid?

Lactated Ringers.

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Strong ion Difference?

Positive and Negative ions.

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Effect of SID decreases?

Acidosis.

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SID decrease fluid?

Normal saline.

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Study Notes

Primary Hemostasis Mechanisms

  • The three mechanisms of primary hemostasis are activation, adhesion, and aggregation.

Platelet Adhesion

  • Platelet adhesion needs the endothelial cell layer to be exposed.
  • Von Willebrand factor (VWF) is needed as an attachment factor to collagen receptors.

Mediators for Platelet Aggregation

  • ADP and Tromboxane A2 are synthesized and released during platelet activation.
  • These mediators recruit additional platelets for aggregation.

Platelet Aggregation

  • Fibrinogen is responsible for linking platelets together during aggregation.

Secondary Hemostasis

  • Secondary hemostasis is the formation of a cross-linked and water-insoluble fibrin clot.

Vitamin K Dependent Clotting Factors

  • The Vitamin K dependent clotting factors are 2, 7, 9, and 10.

Extrinsic Coagulation Pathway

  • Factor 3, also known as tissue factor, is the primary initiator of coagulation in the extrinsic pathway.

Extrinsic Coagulation Pathway Equation

  • 3 + 7 = 10

Intrinsic Coagulation Pathway Equation

  • 12, 11, 9, 8 = 10

Final Common Pathway

  • The final common pathway leading to clot stabilization is 5 * 2 * 1 = 13.

Prothrombin Time (PT)

  • PT measures coagulation along the extrinsic pathway.
  • The normal PT value is 11-14.

Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)

  • Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures coagulation along the intrinsic pathway.
  • The normal aPTT value is 25-35.

Activated Clotting Time (ACT)

  • Activated clotting time (ACT) measures the activity of Heparin and Fonda.
  • ACT involves the intrinsic and common pathways.

Unfractionated Heparin Mechanism of Action

  • The mechanism of action of unfractionated heparin is to strengthen Antithrombin III (AT3).

Holding Unfractionated Heparin

  • Unfractionated heparin should be held for 4-24 hours prior to neuraxial anesthesia for a therapeutic dose

Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)

  • HIT pathophysiology involves an antibody against factor 4.

Low-Molecular-Weight Heparin Risks

  • Use of low-molecular-weight heparin places the patient at risk for spinal and epidural hematoma.

Warfarin Mechanism of Action

  • Warfarin inhibits Vitamin K by Vitamin K epoxide reductase.
  • Warfarin inhibits factors 2, 7, 9, and 10.

Warfarin INR Target Value

  • The target INR value for warfarin therapy is 2-4.

Warfarin Discontinuation Before Surgery

  • Warfarin should be held for 4 days before surgery.

Bivalirudin and Argatroban

  • Bivalirudin and argatroban bind and inhibit factor 2.

Xarelto and Apixaban

  • Xarelto and Apixaban bind and inhibit factor Xa.
  • When given to patients with atrial fibrillation, they reduce the risk of stroke.

Aspirin's Mechanism of Action

  • Aspirin blocks Cox 1 and 2, inhibiting Thromboxane A2.

Clopidogrel Discontinuation

  • Clopidogrel should be discontinued 5-7 days prior to surgery and regional anesthesia.

Thrombolytics Contraindication

  • Plasminogen activator thrombolytics are contraindicated within 24 hours surrounding neuraxial and regional anesthesia.

Antithrombin III Functions

  • Antithrombin III binds to and deactivates platelet factors.

Antithrombin III Cofactor

  • Antithrombin III is a cofactor for Heparin.

Plasminogen Activators

  • Plasminogen activators (tPA, uPA) increase plasmin formation.
  • Plasmin results in the breakdown of fibrin clots.

Epsilon Aminocaproic Acid (Amicar)

  • Epsilon aminocaproic acid (Amicar) binds to and inhibits plasmin.

Tranexamic Acid (TXA)

  • Tranexamic acid (TXA) inhibits plasmin.

Protamine

  • Protamine reverses unfractionated Heparin.
  • Protamine is a basic drug.
  • Protamine is not effective against low molecular heparin.

Risks of Protamine

  • Hypertension, anaphylaxis, patient uses NPH insulin, right side HF and acute pulmonary vasoconstriction are major side effects.

Desmopressin Dosage and Effects

  • Desmopressin is given in a dose of 0.3 over 15-30 minutes.
  • Desmopressin releases endogenous stores of factor 8 or vWF.

Cryoprecipitate

  • Cryoprecipitate is given to treat low fibrinogen levels.
  • 1 unit/10 kg of Cryoprecipitate increases fibrinogen levels by approximately 50-70 d/l.

Major Intracellular Ions

  • Potassium is the major cation and phosphate is the major anion in the intracellular fluid compartment.

Major Extracellular Ions

  • Sodium is the major cation and chloride is the major anion in the extracellular fluid compartment.

Barriers in Fluid Compartments

  • Cell membranes and the glycocalyx layer prevent free movement of proteins and large macromolecules between body fluid compartments.

"Static Parameters" for Intravascular Volume

  • Urine output, heart rate (HR), and respiratory rate (RR) are "static parameters" for monitoring intravascular volume status.

Fluid Replacement Indication

  • Greater than 10-12% variation in dynamic parameters like pulse pressure variation with respiration indicates the need for fluid replacement.

Balanced Crystalloid

  • Lactated Ringers (LR) is a balanced crystalloid.

Strong Ion Difference (SID)

  • SID is the difference between positive and negative ions.
  • High SID (↑ Na⁺, Ca²⁺, K⁺, Phos⁻) leads to alkalosis
  • Low SID (↑ Cl⁻, Lactate from LR) leads to acidosis.

Effect of Decreased SID on pH

  • A decrease in SID leads to acidosis.

Decrease in SID

  • A decrease in SID may occur following excessive infusion of normal saline.

Infused Crystalloid Retention

  • Approximately 20% of infused crystalloids remain intravascular in healthy patients.

Hypotonic Crystalloids

  • ½ NS and D5 in Water are examples of hypotonic crystalloids.
  • Water moves into the cell with hypotonic crystalloids.

Hypertonic Crystalloids

  • 3% NS and D5W in NS are examples of hypertonic crystalloids.
  • Water moves out of the cell with hypertonic crystalloids.

Colloids Defined

  • Fluid solutions containing large molecular weight particles suspended in a crystalloid solution are known as colloids.

Albumin Infusions

  • Anaphylactoid reactions to albumin infusions are not common.

Populations Sensitive to Hydroxyethyl Starches (HES)

  • Renal failure patients, heart failure patients, critically ill patients, open-heart patients and coagulopathy patients should not receive HES

Colloid Superiority

  • Evidence does not suggest that colloids are superior to balanced crystalloids for maintaining intravascular fluid volume status.

Functions of Sodium

  • Sodium plays a role in membrane potential for excitability and tissue excitability.

Essential Electrolyte

  • Potassium is important in cell membrane excitability, vasodilation, clot formation, and renal function.

Drugs Decreasing Potassium Levels

  • Insulin, sodium bicarbonate, Kayexalate, dialysis, furosemide, calcium, and beta agonists can decrease potassium levels.

Magnesium

  • Magnesium may be used to treat preeclampsia.

Calcium Chloride vs. Calcium Gluconate

  • Calcium chloride contains 3x more elemental calcium per ml than calcium gluconate.

Risk of Calcium Chloride

  • The risk of giving calcium chloride in small, peripheral IVs is extravasation.

Blood Cell Production

  • The kidney/bone marrow is the main source of blood cell production.

Agglutinogen

  • An agglutinogen is an antigen that can form agglutinin when exposed to an antibody.

Agglutinin

  • Agglutinin is the formation of agglutination.

Agglutination Risks

  • The ultimate risks of agglutination are blood clots and adverse effects of blood incompatibility.

Depleted Substances in Stored RBCs

  • ATP and 2,3-DPG are depleted as RBCs age in blood storage.

Fluids to Avoid During Transfusion

  • D5 and LR should be avoided as carrier fluids for RBC transfusion.

Thawed Plasma Transfusion

  • Thawed plasma should be transfused within 24 hours.

Cryoprecipitate Composition

  • Cryoprecipitate is rich in factors 1, 8, and 13.
  • Cryoprecipitate should not be administered with Platelate

Leukoreduction

  • Leukoreduction minimizes leucocytes.
  • Leukoreduction reduces WBCs to avoid inflammatory response or donor tissue rejection.

Transfusion-Associated Circulatory Overload (TACO)

  • Cardiogenic volume overload related to blood product transfusion is known as TACO.
  • Pulmonary vascular injury and non-cardiogenic edema within 6 hours of transfusion is known as TRALI.

Coagulopathy Worsening Conditions

  • Coagulopathies from massive trauma are worsened by dilation coagulopathy and fibrinolysis.

TEG

  • Thromboelastography (TEG) provides information on clot strength and formation, promoting goal-directed management of coagulopathies.

Electrolyte Replacement

  • Calcium should be replaced and monitored with massive transfusion.

Massive Transfusion Defined

  • Massive transfusion involves administering greater than 10 units of RBCs in 24 hours.

Balanced Transfusion Ratio

  • The 1:1:1 transfusion ratio is 1 PRBC, 1 Plasma, 1 Platelet.

Risks of Excessive Crystalloid Use

  • Volume dilution and electrolyte imbalance are risks of excessive crystalloid use for volume expansion during massive hemorrhage/trauma.

Across Answers

  • Lactated Ringers and Plasmalyte are examples of isotonic crystalloids.
  • Hypocalcemia during massive blood transfusion is related to citrate toxicity.
  • Acute onset dyspnea associated with cardiogenic volume exacerbation is characteristic of what transfusion disorder (TACO).
  • Magnesium may be given to the patient with preeclampsia for vasodilation.
  • These crystalloids hyperosmolar, increasing the osmolality of the extracellular fluid.
  • The primary source of blood products is the kidney/bone marrow.
  • Coagulopathy is associated with traumatic hemorrhage and excessive volume resuscitation with fluids.
  • Macrophages destroy aged RBCs.
  • Lipids can be implicated as a trigger for inflammation in TRALI.
  • Gluconate provides 27 mg/ml of elemental calcium.
  • Calcium can be given in hyperkalemia to reverse cardiac conduction and contractility effects.
  • HES colloids have been associated with renal dysfunction earning them a black box warning.

Down Answers

  • Cryoprecipitate should not be transfused with platelets
  • Albumin colloid is produced from human blood and pasteurized to reduce viral infection.
  • Antigen-antibody blood transfusion reactions cause agglutinogens particle aggregation when mixed.
  • Platelets are leucoreduced or gamma-irradiated decrease the risk of graft-versus-host disease
  • Alkalosis pH imbalance decreases renal K+ secretion
  • Sodium is the major extracellular fluid compartment cation
  • Lactic acid is a dynamic parameter that may indicate reduced global tissue perfusion
  • Use of dextrose-containing or hypotonic solutions leads to RBC lysis

Across Hematologic Pharmacology II Crossword Answers

  • Warfarin antagonizes Vitamin K.
  • Protamine procoagulant drug works by acid-base neutralization.
  • aPTT or ACT monitors heparinization
  • Streptokinase and urokinase are plasminogen activators.
  • INR is one of the lab tests for monitoring warfarin therapy.
  • Plasmin breaks down the fibrin clot to maintain vascular patency.
  • Trauma to the blood itself activates the intrinsic coagulation pathway.
  • Tranexamic acid (TxA) competes to inhibits the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin reduces the need for RBC transfusion intraoperatively
  • Heparin target aPTT is 1.5 - 2.5x normal

Down Hematologic Pharmacology II Crossword Answers

  • Calcium is coagulation Factor IV.
  • Activation is the first step in formation of the platelet plug.
  • DDAVP releases endogenous stores of von Willebrand Factor
  • Antithrombin V binds to and inhibits Factors Ila and Xa
  • Thrombelastography (TEG) measures clot formation, strength, and lysis
  • Factor 2 directly inhibits activated blotting
  • Fibrinogen is the first clotting factor to link platelets during aggregation
  • Extrinsic is the coagulation pathway that factors III and VII are part of
  • Clopidogrel is the antiplatelet drugs
  • Aspirin effects persist for the platelet lifespan (7-10 days)

Renal - Diuretics 1 - Mannitol

  • A 71-year-old patient, Mrs. S, with a history of cerebral edema, hypertension, and GERD, requires a preoperative diuretic for cerebral edema management.
  • Mannitol given.
  • Mannitol's mechanism involves increasing plasma osmolality, pulling H2O, and scavenging free O2 radicals.
  • The patient's total body water is 42L, and mannitol increases the extracellular fluid compartment.
  • Mannitol primarily works in the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) and descending limb (DL) of the kidney.
  • Mannitol is administered at 1/g kg/ 10-15 min with an effect 60-90 min later before incision.
  • A 0.2-2g/kg range is a possible dosage as well
  • Mannitol may increase blood pressure (BP) by increasing plasma volume.

Renal - Diuretics 2 - Furosemide

  • A 41-year-old patient, Miss Y, undergoing robotic hysterectomy requires a diuretic to produce urine before discharge.
  • The goal is to avoid hypovolemia and hypotension.
  • Furosemide 10-20 mg is a loop diuretic of choice.
  • Cefazolin may increase the risk of adverse effects, being nephrotoxic and autotoxic.
  • Propofol, rocuronium, and fentanyl have no diuretic effects
  • Assess for ototoxocity and tinnitus receptor side effects of the furosemide
  • Potential causes of failing to produce urine include hypovolemia, hypotension, hypokalemia and nephrotoxic effects.
  • Medication options: Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) if nephrotoxicity is suspected.
  • Addition of thiazide for RAAS activation.
  • Also fluids - LR - NS
  • Possible RAAS – resistance
  • Repeat dose 20-40 mg.

F & E – Fluid Management - Ms. E and Fluid Responsiveness

  • 60-year-old Ms. E is undergoing open femur reduction with a history of uncontrolled HTN and chronic renal insufficiency (no dialysis).
  • Estimated blood loss is 100ml with two PIVs in place
  • Current vitals indicate sinus rhythm but hypotensive but O2sat of 97% from being on a vent.
  • The extracellular compartment is 80% interstitial fluid and 20% plasma.
  • Pulse Pressure Variation (PP variation) is used to monitor BP trends.
  • The dynamic parameters vary around 15%, suggesting fluid responsiveness. 200-500 LR is given to improve parameters.
  • Ms. E's BP rebounded after volume administration, but sinus tachycardia and continued hypotension persist with blood loss of 800ml. Further actions should address further fluid responsiveness.
  • PRBC/colloid transfusion is considered.
  • Administer 2 units of PRBC if H/H has declined
  • Albumin administration is also appropriate.
  • LR lacks Calcium and NS lacks Potassium.
  • A major risk of administering old red cells is potassium leak.
  • Following interventions, ionized calcium is checked.
  • Hypocalcemia is significant due to large blood loss during femur surgery. Calcium gluconate may be warranted.

F & E – Transfusion Management - Mr. L, Trauma

  • 20-year-old Mr. L, a trauma patient with active abdominal bleeding after a motor vehicle crash, has received 2 liters of normal saline and 2 units of PRBCs.
  • The patient is sinus tachycardic, hypotensive, with a low temperature and acidemia.
  • After attempting hemostasis and transfusing 2 PRBCs, H/H is 6/18, Plt is 45,000, and FGN is 65.
  • The team is waiting on TEG and coagulation results.
  • Consider PRBC, Cyro, Platelet
  • Massive transfusion is considered after 10 units in 24 hours
  • NS, Plasmalyte or Norm sol are best during hemorrhage and transfusion
  • After resuscitation with NS, Mr. L may be suffering from dilutional coagulopathy.
  • Administer FFP and prioritize blood products
  • NS contains 154 mEq/L of sodium and chloride.
  • LR contains 4 mEq/L of potassium.
  • Non-blood product drugs to consider include 1 gram TXA and 1 gram Calcium,

Miss O

  • Miss O is at 4pm, is a patient in labor, with regular contractions with a history of vape and DVTs, is medicated prenatals and prohpyalctic low moleulcar wt. HEparin the last being at 8am.
  • Epidual cannot be performed until 6pm, preferably 10-12 hrs
  • Risk is epidural hematoma and no protamine reversal
  • The platelet counts are 125,000, down from 200,000, which cannot be confirmed for HIT since there are no bodies identified
  • APTT is at 45 seconds no action is required but monitoring Xa is recommended
  • LMWH dose was at 8am
  • And needs to describe the intrinsic pathway

Mrs. U

  • Mrs. U, patient presented to AV fisture revision surgery.
  • U has a past medical history of chronic renal failure with hemodialysis, atrial fibrillation, transient ischemic attack and uncontrolled hypertesnion
  • Current meds: torsemide, warafin and amlodipine
  • Friday morning latest warfarin hold unless Wednesday preferred
  • Bioavailabilty is 100%
  • Medication indication: AML - CCB; Warfarin - VTE and Torsemide for fluid retention
  • Warfarin: Factors Ex and Common
  • INr is at 2.0: so continue process.

RENAL PHARMA CROSSWORD Across

  • Acetazolamide primarily works in the PCT
  • The osmolality of iodinated contrast Media is related to chemical structure. The lower it is, the lower the risk if adverese events
  • In high concentrations, methylene blue is formed by MetHb
  • Iodinated contrast media can have a negative inotropic effect on the myocardium
  • Hypokalemia may be caused by Ileus
  • Triamterene is an example of a diurectic, ENAC abbrev.
  • Spironolactone receptor antagonist Aldosterone
  • Loop direceicts block Na/K/2ci co transporter
  • Manntitol Osmotic diertec decreasing elevated intracranial pressures
  • Acetazolamide, carbonic anhydrase, Metabolic Acidosis
  • ANP hormone related respond to increase elimination from Na
  • Renin Juxtaglomerular hormone to reduced renal perforusion

RENAL PHARMA CROSSWORD Down

  • Hypokalemia common electrolyte imbalance
  • Loop diuretics are mediators that do Prostaglandins
  • ICG IV dye
  • Diphenhyrdromaine-1 (H1) blocker agents to reduce reactions
  • Biacarbonate Main kidney reaborse
  • Contrast Induced Nephropiathy due to vasoconstriction
  • Fenoldopam a fast action selective domapin
  • Hydrochlorothiazide may cause Allkolosis
  • Inert osmostics properties with osmostics
  • Calcium increase from Thiazides

Renal Diruretics

  • Kidneys create Calciterol, renin and Erythropoietin.
  • 25% kidney cardiac output
  • Aldosterone causes Na+, water absorption distally, excretion of K+
  • HYPERtension and hypervolemia activate the renin-aniotonsin-aldosterone system
  • Hypotension and hyponatremia activate the system
  • Renin caused by juxtamedullary cell
  • Angiotensin II lead to vasoconstriction
  • NaCl, h2o resorbed
  • Hyperkalemia, Hypovolemia causes arginine, vasopressin and aldosterone.
  • Natriuretic, vasodilation and diureis atrial natriuretic properties
  • Bicarb reabsorbtion is kidneys
  • Filtraition small diuresis
  • Afferent are arterioles dilating
  • Water follows sodium
  • ATP NA+, K+
  • osmosis passive
  • loop direretics inhibit NACL ascending thick loimb

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