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Questions and Answers

Which class of diuretics is most likely to cause ototoxicity?

  • Potassium-sparing diuretics
  • Thiazide diuretics
  • Loop diuretics (correct)
  • Osmotic diuretics

Thiazide diuretics primarily exert their effect by inhibiting the Na/Cl co-transporter in which part of the nephron?

  • Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT) (correct)
  • Loop of Henle
  • Collecting Duct
  • Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)

Thiazide diuretics lead to which of the following electrolyte and metabolic changes?

  • Increased sodium and water reabsorption
  • Decreased sodium reabsorption and increased calcium reabsorption
  • Increased sodium reabsorption and decreased calcium excretion
  • Decreased sodium reabsorption and increased excretion of sodium and water (correct)

Thiazide diuretics can cause an increase in blood glucose levels due to:

<p>Hyperuricemia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Spironolactone works as a potassium-sparing diuretic by:

<p>Blocking the aldosterone receptor (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Triamterene, a potassium-sparing diuretic, works by which mechanism in the nephron?

<p>Directly blocking sodium channels (ENaC) in the collecting duct (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where do potassium-sparing diuretics primarily exert their effects in the nephron?

<p>Collecting Duct (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Activation of dopamine D1 receptors leads to the formation of which second messenger?

<p>Cyclic AMP (cAMP) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Higher doses of dopamine agonists can activate which adrenergic receptors, leading to increased inotropy, cardiac output, and vasoconstriction?

<p>Beta-1 and Beta-2 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the effect of loop diuretics on potassium levels in plasma/serum?

<p>Decrease (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect do thiazide diuretics have on serum calcium levels?

<p>Increase (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of Potassium-sparing diuretics on serum potassium levels?

<p>Increase (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following electrolyte changes is associated with potassium-sparing diuretics?

<p>Decreased sodium (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following patient factors is a known risk factor for perioperative kidney injury?

<p>Hypotension (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which surgical procedure would cause increased perioperative kidney injury?

<p>Procedure involving the peritoneum (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which pair of drug classes is known for having nephrotoxic potential?

<p>Aminoglycosides and Cephalosporins (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Pericardial effusion, a potential cardiac emergency, is associated with which class of chemotherapeutic drugs?

<p>Alkylating drugs (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Apoptosis is best described as:

<p>Programmed cell death (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Chemotherapeutic drugs that mimic folic acid and nucleobases interfere with:

<p>DNA replication (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of action of vinca alkaloids?

<p>Binding and inhibiting microtubule formation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which phase of the cell cycle does cell division into two daughter cells occur?

<p>M phase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which phase of the cell cycle does DNA synthesis primarily occur?

<p>S phase (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the name for the 'end caps' of DNA that are associated with cellular aging?

<p>Telomeres (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Chemotherapy toxicity side effects are often associated with:

<p>Rapidly dividing cells (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main anesthetic consideration when caring for an immunosuppressed patient?

<p>Using aseptic techniques (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are prophylactic antibiotics administered in the immunosuppressed?

<p>To prevent secondary infections (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which phase of the cell cycle do alkylating agents primarily affect?

<p>Alkylating agents is non-cell cycle specific (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which plasma enzyme's activity is inhibited by alkylating agents, potentially affecting the metabolism of certain anesthetic drugs?

<p>Plasma cholinesterase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Cisplatin can cause two familiar side effects similar to those caused by loop diuretics and aminoglycosides. What are they?

<p>Nephrotoxicity and Ototoxicity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which phase of the cell cycle do antimetabolites exert their cytotoxic effects?

<p>S phase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a dermatologic side effect associated with antimetabolite drugs?

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Which of the following is a significant gastrointestinal (GI) toxicity associated with chemotherapy?

<p>Significant GI toxicity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Topoisomerase inhibitors prevent DNA action by:

<p>Leading to DNA breakage (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cardiac condition is commonly caused by antitumor antibiotics such as Daunorubicin?

<p>Cardiotoxicity (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Bleomycin poses what risk when giving pulmonary anesthesia?

<p>Pulmonary toxicity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following anesthetic management considerations is crucial for patients taking bleomycin?

<p>Possible risk with excessive crystalloid administration and avoid hyperoxia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which phase of the cell cycle are microtubule inhibitors most active?

<p>M phase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Name the main neuromuscular side effect of microtubule inhibitors.

<p>Sensory motor neuropathy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Signal transduction modifiers disrupt what?

<p>Growth factor-receptor interaction or target overexpressed antigens (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Anti-estrogens like Tamoxifen have been known to have what risk?

<p>Increased risk of thromboembolic events and stroke (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of giving vaccines to cancer patients?

<p>To decrease the risk of having cancer (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Bleomycin causes damage to cells primarily through what mechanism?

<p>Free radical production in the presence of oxygen and iron/copper (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended oxygen concentration (FiO2) for patients taking bleomycin to prevent exacerbating lung damage?

<p>Not a 100 but lower inhaled oxygen concentrations (below 30%) to avoid exacerbating lung damage (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following effects is associated with Cisplatin toxicity?

<p>Increased blood pressure (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on bleomycin is scheduled for surgery. What intraoperative intervention is MOST important to avoid?

<p>Judicious fluid administration (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents is MOST associated with causing cell damage via free radical formation?

<p>Bleomycin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient receiving chemotherapy develops peripheral neuropathy. Which class of chemotherapeutic agents is MOST likely responsible?

<p>Platinum Complexes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following electrolyte imbalances can potentiate lithium toxicity?

<p>Hyponatremia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Compared to volatile anesthetics or opioids, what change occurs with methylphenidate?

<p>Increased anesthetic requirements (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Ototoxicity associated diuretics?

Loop diuretics

Thiazide diuretics MOA?

Inhibits the Na/Cl co-transporter in the DCT tubule.

What do thiazides inhibit reabsorption & increase excretion of?

Na and H20

What ion do thiazides increase reabsorption of?

Calcium

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What's the change in blood glucose with thiazide diuretics?

Increase due to hyper uric acid and Ammonia.

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Spironolactone MOA?

Block aldosterone receptor

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Triamterene MOA?

Block Na channel directly in the endothelial . ENAC inhibitor

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Where do potassium-sparing diuretics primarily work in the nephron?

Collecting Duct

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Activation of D1 receptors by dopamine increases formation of what?

Cyclic AMP increase

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Electrolyte changes with Loops

Loop diuretics decrease Potassium, Sodium, Magnesium and Calcium levels

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Electrolyte changes with Thiazides?

Thiazides Decrease Potassium, Sodium, Magnesium, and Increase Calcium.

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Electrolyte changes with Potassium Sparing

K+ Sparing diuretics Increase Potassium, Decrease Sodium.

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What are three patient risk factors for perioperative kidney injury

Age, CHF, Surgical procedure being in peritoneum

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What are two common nephrotoxic drug classes?

Aminoglycoside, Cephalosporin

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Apoptosis

Programmed cell death

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Antimetabolites

Mimic folic acid and nucleobases

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Vinca alkaloids

Bind & inhibit microtubule formation

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Cardiac emergency with alkylating drugs?

Pericardial effusion may compress heart.

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Alkylating agents

Bind DNA bases to impair cellular structure

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Monoclonal antibodies

Antibodies target specific, 'over-expressive' cell surface antigens

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Signal transduction modifiers

Growth factor-receptor interaction, target overexpressed antigens

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Microtubule Inhibitors toxicity symptoms?

Toxicity results in HOTN, ileus, and laryngeal nerve paralysis

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Telomerase

Telomerase extends telomeres in cancer cells

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Prophase

Chromatin condenses

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Metaphase

Chromosomes align

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Anaphase

Chromosomes separate

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Telophase

New nuclei form

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Cytokinesis

Division of cytoplasm

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Metastasis

Cancer invades other tissues

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Telomeres

DNA end caps

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Chemotherapy

Chemotherapy side effects relate to cancer cells.

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Platinum

Platinum complexes work on solid tumor

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Cross link in DNA

Blocks cell replication and division

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Side effects of loops + Aminoglycosides

Nephrotoxicity – Block box warning and Ototoxicity

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What are two ways to inhibit cells?

Cellular nutrient and inhibiting enzymes

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Side effects of antimetabolic drugs

Dermatitis, Pigmentation changes and Nail changes

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Others - medications, resistance risk, bone marrow suppression

Stomatitis, ulceration and Ulceration

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Topoisomerase inhibitors inhibit what DNA action?

inhibits topoisomerase leading to DNA breakage

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What Pulmonary effect with Bleomycin

Pulmonary toxicity

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Is microtubule inhibitor class active

Vinca

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Which modifiers disrupt hormones

Hormones disrupt Growth factor

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Signal transduction modifier cause ?

autoimmune disease, target specific cancer antigens or receptors

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vaccines

vaccines in cancer

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Bleomycin toxic

free radical production

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cisplatin

Nephrotoxicity, Peripheral

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Study Notes

Diuretics and Ototoxicity

  • Loop diuretics are associated with ototoxicity
  • Loop diuretics inhibit the Na/K/2Cl co-transporter in the ascending limb of the Loop of Henle

Thiazide Diuretics

  • Thiazide diuretics inhibit the Na/Cl co-transporter in the distal convoluted tubule
  • Thiazides inhibit reabsorption and increase excretion of Na and H2O
  • Thiazides increase the reabsorption of Calcium
  • Thiazide diuretics can cause an increase in blood glucose
  • Thiazide diuretics can cause an increase in hyperuricemia and ammonia

Spironolactone

  • Spironolactone works by blocking the aldosterone receptor

Triamterene

  • Triamterene blocks the Na channel directly in the endothelial ENAC inhibitor

Potassium-Sparing Diuretics

  • Potassium-sparing diuretics primarily work in the collecting duct in the nephron

Dopamine and Receptor Activation

  • Activation of D1 receptors by dopamine increases the formation of cyclic AMP
  • Higher doses of dopamine agonists activate D1 adrenergic receptors, increasing inotropy and cardiac output
  • Higher doses of dopamine agonists activate B2 adrenergic receptors, causing vasoconstriction

Electrolyte Changes with Diuretics

Diuretics Potassium (↑ or ↓) Sodium (↑ or ↓) Magnesium (↑ or ↓) Calcium (↑ or ↓)
Loops Decrease Decrease Decrease Decrease
Thiazides Decrease Decrease Decrease Increase
K+ Sparing Increase Decrease

Perioperative Kidney Injury

  • Age is a patient risk factor for perioperative kidney injury
  • CHF is a patient risk factor for perioperative kidney injury
  • Surgical procedure being in peritoneum is a patient risk factor for perioperative kidney injury

Nephrotoxic drug classes

  • Aminoglycosides are a common nephrotoxic drug class
  • Cephalosporins are a common nephrotoxic drug class

Cell Cycle Phases

  • The four major phases of the cell cycle are G1, S, G2, and Mitosis
  • The G0 phase is considered a "resting" cell phase with no cellular division

Mitosis phases explained

  • Prophase: Chromatin condenses into distinct chromosomes, which migrate towards the center of the cell. The nuclear envelope breaks down, and spindle fibers form
  • Metaphase: The nuclear membrane disappears, the spindle develops, and chromosomes align
  • Anaphase: Paired chromosomes (sister chromatids) separate, and spindle fibers lengthen the cell
  • Telophase: Chromosomes are sectioned off into two distinct new nuclei with equal genetic content. Cytokinesis (division of the cytoplasm) begins after anaphase and finishes after telophase, forming two new cells

Cancer

  • Malignant cells escape normal mechanisms for control of cellular division and growth
  • Malignant cell migration and invasion of other tissues = Metastasis
  • p53 is an important tumor suppressor

Telomeres

  • Telomeres are the name for DNA “end caps” (lead to cellular aging)

Chemotherapy Toxicity

  • Chemotherapy toxicity side effects are often related to rapidly dividing cell targets affecting normal cells such as hair follicles and mucosal cells

Immunosuppressed Patients

  • Anesthetic considerations for the immunosuppressed cancer patient carries include aseptic methods and prophylactic antibiotics

Alkylating Agents

  • Alkylating agents work in no specific cell-cycle phase
  • Two pulmonary side effects of alkylating agents can be pneumonitis and fibrosis, which leads to decreased diffusion capacity
  • Alkylating agents inhibit the activity of plasma cholinesterase, affecting anesthetic drugs by way of cardiotoxicity, specially cyclophosphamide

Platinum Complexes

  • Platinum complexes such as the Platins work on solid tumors in a non-cell cycle-specific manner
  • Platinum complexes crosslink DNA, disrupting replication and division to cause an alkylating-like effect
  • Cisplatin can cause nephrotoxicity and Ototoxicity, also peripheral neuropathy, nausea and vomiting, myelosuppression, or hypersensitivity reaction
  • Antimetabolites mimic cellular nutrients like Folic acid and inhibit enzymes like nucleobases.
  • Antimetabolites work on the S Phase
  • Dermatitis, pigmentation changes, nail changes, alopecia (hair loss) and photosensitivity are dermatologic side effects of antimetabolite drugs
  • Bone marrow suppression, pulmonary toxicity, GI toxicity, nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, and CNS effects are other side effects

Topoisomerase Inhibitors

  • Topoisomerase inhibits DNA action from the S phase through early G2, which leads to DNA breakage as well as cardiotoxicity via free radicals
  • Free radicals disrupt critical cardia proteins and cell membrane components

Bleomycin

  • Bleomycin can cause pulmonary toxicity
  • Anesthetics containing crystalloids instead of colloids and high FiO2 increase the risk of pulmonary toxicity in patients taking bleomycin

Microtubule Inhibitors

  • Microtubule inhibitors are active in the M phase
  • The two main drug classes are Vinca Alkaloids and Taxanes
  • Three neuromuscular side effects are sensory-motor neuropathy, areflexia, paresthesia's, skeletal weakness, skeletal muscle pain, and ataxia

Edema and Effusions

  • Dexamethasone treats edema and effusion

Muscle Blockers

  • Residual musculoskeletal blockage is treated with sugammadex, not neostigmine

Regional Anesthesia

  • Regional anesthesia can worsen neuropathy when combined with microtubule inhibitors

Tumor Treatment

  • Signal transduction modifier hormones disrupt growth factor-receptor interaction or target overexpressed antigens
  • Signal transduction modifier (monoclonal) antibodies target autoimmune disease, specific cancer antigens, or receptors
  • Monoclonal antibodies also treat multiple sclerosis and rheumatoid arthritis
  • Anti-estrogens like Tamoxifen are associated with an increased risk of thromboembolic and stroke
  • Vaccines are given in cancer or at-risk populations to decrease the risk of having cancer

Key Side Effects of Chemotherapy Drugs

  • Bleomycin is toxic to the lungs, causing endothelial and epithelial damage leading to pulmonary fibrosis, resulting from free radical production

    • The recommended O2 limit is below 30% when possible to avoid exacerbating pulmonary fibrosis damage
  • Cisplatin can lead to nephrotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, nausea/vomiting, hypersensitivity reactions, myelosuppression, and ototoxicity

  • Doxorubicin is known for cardiotoxicity

Antimicrobials: Chlorhexidine

  • Chlorhexidine and other topical antiseptics put patients at risk for corneal toxicity

Antibiotics: Vancomycin

  • Vancomycin is given preoperatively in a dose of ~15mg/kg IV

Antibiotics: Macrolides

  • Macrolides are used for inflammation and respiratory infections but can prolong QTc intervals

Antibiotics: Ciprofloxacin

  • Ciprofloxacin may be used off-label for surgical prophylaxis within 2 hours of incision

Antibiotics: Aminoglycosides

  • Aminoglycosides may cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

Timing IV Antibiotics

  • Most antibiotics should be administered within 1 hour of surgical incision

Bacteria Resistance

  • Bacterial resistance is a term for a variety of conditions which reduce the effectiveness of antimicrobials
  • Cefazolin or Metronidazole are highly effective against gram-negative, anaerobic, and other organisms usually in the GI tract
  • A bacterial structure, Beta Lactam, is highly susceptible to the antimicrobial, Cefazolin (1st Gen.)
  • Beta-lactamases are enzymes that provide bacterial resistance for beta-lactams

Vancomycin

  • The antibiotic vancomycin should be infused within 2hrs hours before incision

Post-Op Antibiotics

  • Antibiotics should be discontinued within 24hrs hours after surgery

Surgical Site Infections

  • Endogenous risk factors for surgical site infections include: corticosteroid use, preop skin prep, prolonged hospital stays, extremes of age, malnutrition, obesity, diabetes, tobacco use, current infections, altered immunity, and/or radiotherapy
  • There are three types of surgical site infections: superficial incisional, deep incisional, and organ/space
  • Clean contaminated wounds usually affect the respiratory, gastrointestinal (GI), and genitourinary (GU) tracts

Cefazolin

  • Cefazolin is an antibiotic and the first-generation drug of choice for surgical prophylaxis
  • A 135 kg patient is administered 3g IV, which is the dose of cefazolin given to patients weighing more than 120 kg
  • First-generation cefazolin has skeletal muscle weakness because it can give calcium that poses a high risk to myasthenia gravis patients

Clindamycin

  • Clindamycin (Cleocin) is a common perioperative antibiotic that is classified as a lincosamide
  • Clindamycin should be infused over 10-60 minutes but is recommended for 30 minutes

3 Topical Antiseptics

  • Chlorhexidine, Povidone-lodine, and lodine

Red Man Syndrome

  • Erythema, pruritus, and hypotension are symptoms of "red man syndrome"

Metronidazole

  • Abdominal disturbances, nausea, vomiting, headache, and flushing are the side effects from administering metronidazole with alcohol

Gentamicin Mechanisms and Toxicity

  • Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside that binds to the 30S ribosomal subunit of bacteria, resulting in the inhibition of protein synthesis
  • Ototoxicity and Nephrotoxicity are toxicities that this drug class can cause

HIV Replication and Management

  • Entry inhibitors block viral entry into cells
  • Zidovudine (AZT) treats HIV in pregnant patients and also inhibits the enzyme
  • A boosting agent is required of a certain class of antiretrovirals

Airway Disorders

  • Airway fibrosis, alveolar destruction, and mucus hypersecretion is a common effect in respiratory disorders
  • Using bronchodilators may be required during light anesthetic use when inflammatory airway disease
  • Albuterol can cause skeletal muscle stimulation
  • Cromolyn sodium blocks degranulation of inflammatory cells
  • Beta-2 receptor agonism leads to relaxation of vascular and bronchial smooth muscle
  • The inhaled corticosteroid fluticasone decreases inflammation
  • Nitric oxide directly increases guanylyl cyclase & relaxes bronchial smooth muscle

Respiratory Drug Mechanisms

  • Theophylline blocks phosphodiesterase
  • Montelukast blocks conversion of arachidonic acid to LTs
  • Pre-oxygenation with 100% O2 removes & replaces nitrogen in the alveoli

Key Values

  • Theophylline > 20 for toxicity

Other Respiratory Information

  • Positive end expiratory pressure and other ventilator settings can improve lung capacity
  • Compliance in a lung refers to the relationship between a change in airway pressure for a given change in lung volume
  • General anesthesia causes partial alveolar closure/collapse known as atelectasis
  • Moderate and severe COPD patients have elevated Paco2 levels
  • Ipratropium may cause cardiovascular side effects
  • Ristrictive airway disease is characterized by a normal FEV1/FVC ratio and decreased forced expiratory volume

Bronchodilators

  • Propofol and ketamine cause bronchodilation
  • Beta-2 agonists increase intracellular cAMP levels in smooth muscle causing vasodilation, Broncodilation, and Tachycardia

Muscarinic Antagonists

  • Muscarinic antagonists block the M3 receptor which is attached to Gq protein

Asthma Characterizations

  • Inflammatory airway disease, bronchospasm, edema, mucus secretion, and smooth muscle cells characterize asthma

Low FiO2 Delivery

  • A nasal canula, non-rebreather, or simple face mask are low-flow oxygen delivery options

High FiO2 Delivery

  • A vent Uri mask, High-flow NC, or trach are high-flow oxygen delivery options

Normal Vagal Tone in Airways

  • Vagus nerve uses ACH to activate M3 receptors causing Bronchial smooth muscle constriction

Physiological dead space

  • Alveoli that does not participate in gas exchange

Physiological Effects of Beta-2 Agonism

  • Vasodilation
  • Bronchodilation
  • Tachycardia

Beta Agonists: Side Effects

  • Tachycardia
  • Tremor
  • Hypotension

Albuterol Dose

  • 4-6 puffs (90 mcg per puff every 15 mins)

Methylxanthines

  • Methylxanthines can be used for a post-dural puncture headache
    • Caffeine
    • Theophylline
    • Theobromine

Airway Waveform changes in bronchospasm

  • An expected finding for the capnographic waveform is a shark fin due to prolonged respiratory phase

cGMPs

  • 3 mechanisms for cGMP-mediated smooth muscle relaxation: Ca Inhibition, K hyperpolorization, Activate MLCK

Antihypertensive Drugs

  • Sildenafil is a PDE5 inhibitor which is often used as a treatment of pulmonary hypertension
  • Epoprostenol increases prostacyclin hormone targets IP receptors - Gs protein – increase cAMP – smooth muscle relaxation = vasodilation

Hyperkinetic vs Hypokinetic

  • Bradykinesia is defined as slow and decreased movement in relation to Parkinson's Disease.

Neurotransmitter Depletions

  • Parkinson Disease is characterized by bradykinesia, unstable gate, shuffling gate, ridged elbows, knees in flexion, and masked face
  • Dopamine is the neurotransmitter depleted in patients with Parkinson's Disease leading to an imbalance and excess of excitatory activity from Acetylcholine
  • Parkinsonian patients are rigid & bradykinetic of respiratory and pharyngeal muscles.

Antiemetics in Parkinson’s

  • Ondansetron does not affect dopamine and can be used as an antiemetic in Parkinson’s

The Motor System

  • Extrapyramidal system is involved in involuntary movements, posture, and reflexes

MAO-B

  • MAO-B drugs antagonize MAOB's from breaking down Dopamine

Levodopa

  • Give Levodopa, IV fluid, and Supportive care to treat Parkinsonism-hyperpyrexia syndrome
  • Levodopa is the natural physiologic precursor to dopamine, with side effects of Orthostatic Hypotension, Tachycardia, Arrhythmia, Skin flushing, and increased inotropy due to dopamine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine activation
  • Levodopa is a dopamine precursor and crosses the blood brain barrier

Anti-Parkinson

  • B-Blockers are avoided during intraoperative tremor tests
  • To balance Dopamine and Acetylcholine effect give anti-cholinergics to PD patients

Antileptic Drug Actions

  • Keppra blocks the alpha 2 delta subunit of voltage-gated calcium channel, can cause hypertension, as well as decreased alertness and sedation
  • Phenytoin is an enzyme inducer requiring an increased maintenance dosage for non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker
  • Patients taking antiepileptic drugs may require higher doses of propofol, Midazolam, Opcodes, and NDMR, and benzodiazepines
  • The effect of BZs (benzodiazepines) is enhanced through GABA-inhibition.
  • Carbamazepine keeps sodium channels in the inactive phase
  • Seizures in older patients are caused by tumors

Three Symptoms Seen With a Seizure:

- Altered awareness
- Convulsions
- Loss of motor control

Seizure Risk Factors

- Hypoglycemia
- Hyperventilation
- Hypoxia

Two Indicators for Benzos During a Seizure:

- Acute Sz
- Status Epilepticus

Anesthetic Drugs

- Down-regulate the release of catecholamines
- Vasopressors include
    - Phenylephrine
    - Epinephrine
    - Vasopressin
  • Doxapram can be used to stimulate the medulla

Epileptic Concerns

  • Status epilepticus describes sustained seizures that do not return to baseline
  • Seizures in older adults may suggest of tumor

Anesthesia and Liver concerns regarding Valproic Acid

  • Causes hepatic dysfunctions in young/peds populations

Anesthetics for Patients on Pysch Meds:

  • Avoid dropping Sodium concentrations while treating patients on Lithium
  • Lithium may prevent the nervous system from sending signals

CNS Stimulants

  • Chronic use results in down-regulation of endogenous catcholamines

Post-Dural Puncture

  • Caffeine can treat dural punctures

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