Podcast
Questions and Answers
A patient with atrial fibrillation is being evaluated for stroke risk using the CHAâ‚‚DSâ‚‚-VASc score. Which of the following components contributes the most points to the score?
A patient with atrial fibrillation is being evaluated for stroke risk using the CHAâ‚‚DSâ‚‚-VASc score. Which of the following components contributes the most points to the score?
- History of vascular disease (prior MI, PAD, or aortic plaque)
- Age ≥ 75 years (correct)
- Diabetes mellitus
- Presence of hypertension
A patient with a history of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency department with palpitations and shortness of breath. An ECG confirms the presence of atrial fibrillation. Which of the following best defines paroxysmal atrial fibrillation?
A patient with a history of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency department with palpitations and shortness of breath. An ECG confirms the presence of atrial fibrillation. Which of the following best defines paroxysmal atrial fibrillation?
- Atrial fibrillation lasting longer than 12 months.
- Atrial fibrillation controlled only with medication.
- Atrial fibrillation associated with rheumatic mitral stenosis.
- Atrial fibrillation that terminates spontaneously or with intervention within 7 days of onset. (correct)
A patient is diagnosed with non-valvular atrial fibrillation. Which of the following conditions definitively classifies atrial fibrillation as valvular?
A patient is diagnosed with non-valvular atrial fibrillation. Which of the following conditions definitively classifies atrial fibrillation as valvular?
- The presence of tricuspid valve prolapse.
- The presence of mild mitral regurgitation.
- The presence of aortic valve sclerosis.
- The presence of moderate-to-severe mitral stenosis. (correct)
A patient has been prescribed Warfarin for anticoagulation due to atrial fibrillation. Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding Warfarin's mechanism and monitoring?
A patient has been prescribed Warfarin for anticoagulation due to atrial fibrillation. Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding Warfarin's mechanism and monitoring?
In a patient with atrial fibrillation, which of the following ECG findings is the MOST indicative of the arrhythmia?
In a patient with atrial fibrillation, which of the following ECG findings is the MOST indicative of the arrhythmia?
A patient with atrial fibrillation and a high bleeding risk is not a candidate for long-term anticoagulation. Which of the following alternative treatments is designed to reduce stroke risk in these patients?
A patient with atrial fibrillation and a high bleeding risk is not a candidate for long-term anticoagulation. Which of the following alternative treatments is designed to reduce stroke risk in these patients?
Which of the following statements accurately describes the impact of atrial fibrillation (AFib) on stroke risk and cardiac function?
Which of the following statements accurately describes the impact of atrial fibrillation (AFib) on stroke risk and cardiac function?
A patient with atrial fibrillation is started on amiodarone for rhythm control. Which consideration about amiodarone is MOST important regarding its long-term use?
A patient with atrial fibrillation is started on amiodarone for rhythm control. Which consideration about amiodarone is MOST important regarding its long-term use?
A patient with known atrial fibrillation presents with sudden-onset right-sided weakness and speech difficulties. What is the MOST appropriate next step in managing this patient?
A patient with known atrial fibrillation presents with sudden-onset right-sided weakness and speech difficulties. What is the MOST appropriate next step in managing this patient?
After successful cardioversion of atrial fibrillation, a patient is being considered for long-term antiarrhythmic therapy to maintain sinus rhythm. Which of the following factors would MOST strongly influence the choice of antiarrhythmic drug?
After successful cardioversion of atrial fibrillation, a patient is being considered for long-term antiarrhythmic therapy to maintain sinus rhythm. Which of the following factors would MOST strongly influence the choice of antiarrhythmic drug?
A patient with atrial fibrillation undergoes a transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) prior to cardioversion. What is the PRIMARY reason for performing a TEE in this clinical scenario?
A patient with atrial fibrillation undergoes a transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) prior to cardioversion. What is the PRIMARY reason for performing a TEE in this clinical scenario?
Which of the following conditions is LEAST associated with an increased risk of developing atrial fibrillation?
Which of the following conditions is LEAST associated with an increased risk of developing atrial fibrillation?
Which of the following is the MOST common clinical presentation of a patient who has atrial fibrillation?
Which of the following is the MOST common clinical presentation of a patient who has atrial fibrillation?
Which of the following statements regarding Nonvitamin K antagonist oral anticoagulants (NOACs) is most accurate?
Which of the following statements regarding Nonvitamin K antagonist oral anticoagulants (NOACs) is most accurate?
A clinician is determining whether to pursue rate versus rhythm control in a patient with atrial fibrillation. In which of the following clinical scenarios would rhythm control strategy be MOST appropriate?
A clinician is determining whether to pursue rate versus rhythm control in a patient with atrial fibrillation. In which of the following clinical scenarios would rhythm control strategy be MOST appropriate?
Which is not a common risk factor for Atrial Fibrillation?
Which is not a common risk factor for Atrial Fibrillation?
According to the HAS-BLED bleeding risk assessment tool, which carries one point?
According to the HAS-BLED bleeding risk assessment tool, which carries one point?
Which of the following is NOT a possible finding on a physical exam for someone with AFib?
Which of the following is NOT a possible finding on a physical exam for someone with AFib?
What percentage of ischemic can be attributed to atrial fibrillation?
What percentage of ischemic can be attributed to atrial fibrillation?
Which of the following lab values may you want to review to help identify the cause of a patient's atrial fibrillation?
Which of the following lab values may you want to review to help identify the cause of a patient's atrial fibrillation?
Flashcards
Atrial Fibrillation on Physical Exam
Atrial Fibrillation on Physical Exam
Irregular heart rhythm, often with tachycardia (110s-140s) and hypotension.
Atrial Fibrillation on EKG
Atrial Fibrillation on EKG
No visible P waves and an irregularly irregular QRS complex; ventricular rate is often fast.
Paroxysmal AF
Paroxysmal AF
AF that terminates spontaneously or with intervention within 7 days of onset.
Persistent AF
Persistent AF
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Long-Standing Persistent AF
Long-Standing Persistent AF
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Nonvalvular AF
Nonvalvular AF
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AFib's Stroke Risk Impact
AFib's Stroke Risk Impact
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Valvular AF
Valvular AF
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Echocardiogram in AFib Testing
Echocardiogram in AFib Testing
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TEE for AFib
TEE for AFib
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Prevention of Thromboembolism
Prevention of Thromboembolism
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Rate Control Medications
Rate Control Medications
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Methods of Rhythm Control
Methods of Rhythm Control
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Watchman Device
Watchman Device
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Oral Anticoagulation Options
Oral Anticoagulation Options
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Study Notes
Atrial Fibrillation
- Atrial fibrillation is characterized by an irregular heartbeat.
Impact of Atrial Fibrillation
- Atrial fibrillation increases a person's risk of stroke by four to five times.
- Atrial fibrillation causes approximately 25% of ischemic strokes due to blockage of blood flow to the brain.
- Atrial fibrillation doubles the risk of heart-related deaths.
- Absence of atrial contraction can result in a loss of cardiac output anywhere from 15-30%, due to the absence of "atrial kick", contributing to heart failure.
Risk Factors
- Advancing age is a risk factor.
- High blood pressure is a risk factor.
- Coronary artery disease is a risk factor.
- Cardiomyopathy is a risk factor.
- Obesity is a risk factor.
- European ancestry is a risk factor.
- Being an athlete is a risk factor.
- Diabetes is a risk factor.
- Heart failure is a risk factor.
- Hyperthyroidism is a risk factor.
- Chronic kidney disease is a risk factor.
- Heavy alcohol use is a risk factor.
- Rheumatic heart disease is a risk factor.
- Valvular heart disease is a risk factor.
- Enlargement of the chambers on the left side of the heart is a risk factor.
- Pericarditis/myocarditis is a risk factor.
- Sleep apnea is a risk factor.
Valvular vs Non-Valvular Afib
- Valvular AFib involves moderate-to-severe mitral stenosis, potentially requiring surgical intervention, or the presence of an artificial (mechanical) heart valve.
- Non-valvular AFib occurs in the absence of moderate-to-severe mitral stenosis or a mechanical heart valve.
Clinical Presentation
- Many people do not experience any symptoms and are unaware of their diagnosis, which is sometimes an incidental finding upon examination.
- Symptomatic presentation can include general fatigue.
- Symptomatic presentation can include a rapid and irregular heartbeat.
- Symptomatic presentation can include fluttering or "thumping" in the chest.
- Symptomatic presentation can include dizziness.
- Symptomatic presentation can include shortness of breath and anxiety.
- Symptomatic presentation can include weakness.
- Symptomatic presentation can include faintness or confusion.
- Symptomatic presentation can include fatigue when exercising.
- Symptomatic presentation can include sweating.
- Symptomatic presentation can include chest pain or pressure, which requires calling 911.
Physical Exam
- Irregular heart rhythm is the hallmark finding on physical examination, along with tachycardia (typically 110s-140s) and hypotension.
- Possible findings include JVD, rales, or effusions from heart failure.
- Possible findings include murmurs suggesting stenosis or regurgitation.
- Possible findings include lower extremity edema (HF or DVT).
- Possible findings include exophthalmia.
- Possible findings include signs of stroke such as facial droop, arm weakness, and slurred speech.
EKG
- On EKG, there will be no visible P waves (no measurable PR interval) and an irregularly irregular QRS complex.
- Ventricular rate is frequently fast.
- EKG is the gold standard for Atrial Fibrillation diagnosis.
Classifying Atrial Fibrillation
- Paroxysmal AF terminates spontaneously or with intervention within 7 days of onset, and episodes may recur with variable frequency.
- Persistent AF is continuous and lasts greater than 7 days.
- Long-standing persistent AF is continuous and lasts more than 12 months in duration.
- Permanent AF occurs when the patient and clinician decide to stop further attempts to restore and/or maintain sinus rhythm.
- Acceptance of AF represents a therapeutic attitude on the part of the patient and clinician rather than an inherent pathophysiological attribute of AF.
- Acceptance of AF may change as symptoms, efficacy of therapeutic interventions, and patient and clinician preferences evolve.
- Nonvalvular AF occurs in the absence of rheumatic mitral stenosis, a mechanical or bioprosthetic heart valve, or mitral valve repair.
Labs
- Labs to run include CBC.
- Labs to run include CMP.
- Labs to run include TSH.
- Labs to run include BNP.
- Labs to run include PT/PTT/INR.
Other Diagnostic Tests
- Echocardiograms evaluate the size and function of atria and ventricles, detect valvular heart disease, left ventricular hypertrophy, and pericardial disease.
- Transesophageal Echocardiogram (TEE) is the most sensitive and specific technique to detect LA thrombi.
- Event Recorders (Implantable loop recorders, Holter monitors) identify arrhythmia if intermittent and to correlate symptoms or rate control strategies.
- Other diagnostic tests include stress tests.
- Other diagnostic tests include EP studies.
Management
- The goal of treatment for AF is prevention of thromboembolism, utilizing the CHADS score to determine stroke risk.
- Rate control is preferred over rhythm control.
- Beta-Adrenergic Receptor Blockers such as atenolol, metoprolol, nadolol, propranolol, and sotalol for rate control.
- Nondihydropyridine Calcium Channel Blockers such as diltiazem and verapamil for rate control.
- Digitalis Glycoside such as Digoxin for rate control.
- Rhythm control is for patients that do not tolerate loss of atrial kick (hemodynamic instability).
- Synchronized cardioversion for rhythm control.
- Pharmacologic cardioversion using dofetilide, flecainide, propafenone, ibutilide, or amiodarone (consider long half-life, pulmonary toxicity, thyroid dysfunction) for rhythm control.
Anticoagulation
- Use vitamin K antagonist, Warfarin (serum monitoring: goal INR 2-3).
- Use direct thrombin inhibitor: dabigatran (Pradaxa)- 150 mg PO bid (no serum monitoring).
- Use Factor Xa inhibitors rivaroxaban, edoxaban, and apixaban (no serum monitoring).
- Xarelto- 20 mg PO qd (if switching from warfarin to Xarelto, d/c warfarin and start Xarelto when INR < 3).
- Eliquis- 5 mg PO bid (2.5 mg PO bid if 2 of following apply: older than 80yrs, wt < 60kg, or Cr>1.5).
- Nonvitamin K antagonist oral anticoagulants (NOACs) are contraindicated in patients with clinically significant mitral stenosis or mechanical valves.
Other Treatments
- Watchman Device: left atrial appendage (LAA) closure device that is permanently implanted to close off the left atrial appendage, so that clots that form within the LAA can't enter circulation.
- Watchman Device is indicated for patients with non-valvular Afib at risk for stroke and is an alternative for patients who can't be on anticoagulation (h/o bleed, or high risk for bleeding, drug interactions, others).
- Risks of Watchman Device include LAA rupture during device implant and infection; patients probably still need to take ASA.
- Pacemaker: for slow heart rate.
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