Type IIS Restriction Enzymes Quiz
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Questions and Answers

What is the primary feature of Type IIS restriction enzymes?

  • They recognize only palindromic DNA sequences.
  • They cut DNA at the recognition site.
  • They cut DNA at a defined distance downstream of the recognition sequence. (correct)
  • They do not produce sticky ends after cleavage.

What type of ends are produced by Type IIP restriction enzymes after cleavage?

  • Sticky ends (correct)
  • Asymmetric ends
  • Blunt ends
  • Flat ends

Which of the following best describes the function of the polypeptide linker in Type IIS restriction enzymes?

  • It enhances enzyme activity at higher temperatures.
  • It connects two recognition sequences.
  • It stabilizes the enzyme structure.
  • It separates the catalytic and recognition domains. (correct)

In the context of Golden Gate cloning, what is the significance of unique overhangs generated by Type IIS restriction enzymes?

<p>They enable specific pairing of DNA fragments to enhance cloning efficiency. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many potential overhang sequences can be generated using Type IIS restriction enzymes?

<p>256 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following enzymes is an example of a Type IIS restriction enzyme?

<p>BsaI (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common application of the cloning technique enabled by Type IIS restriction enzymes?

<p>Golden Gate Assembly (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of recognition sequence do Type IIS restriction enzymes typically have?

<p>Asymmetric (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to Type IIS recognition sites during the digestion and ligation process?

<p>They are eliminated from the ligation product. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of Type IIS restriction enzymes in cloning?

<p>To create sticky ends that can anneal. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes the function of T4 ligase in the assembly of DNA fragments?

<p>It catalyzes the formation of phosphodiester bonds. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of cloning with Type IIS enzymes, what is meant by complementary overhangs?

<p>Sticky ends produced that can anneal with specific fragments. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What denotes the order of assembly when cloning multiple fragments using Type IIS restriction enzymes?

<p>The unique set of overhangs on each fragment. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are Type IIS recognition sites oriented in a specific way on the fragment's ends?

<p>To create sticky ends while removing enzyme binding sites. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of DNA region does the T4 ligase help to repair during DNA replication?

<p>Nicks in duplex DNA. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of creating vectors with sticky ends compatible with the insert?

<p>It facilitates the incorporation of the insert into the vector. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the egg cell-specific promoter (EC1.2p) in the FINAL cbf4-CRISPR VECTOR?

<p>It controls the expression of Cas9 in plants. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about Phusion High-Fidelity DNA Polymerase is true?

<p>It is suitable for amplifying long or difficult amplicons. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is the amplification of the sgRNA cassette initiated in the vector?

<p>Through PCR amplification with Hot-Start Phusion DNA Polymerase. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which polymerase is mentioned as having a substantially lower error rate than Taq DNA Polymerase?

<p>Phusion DNA Polymerase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What promotes the expression of gRNA(11)/gRNA(1) in the vector system?

<p>U6-26p/U6-29p RNA Polymerase III promoters. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is Hot Start Phusion DNA Polymerase advantageous during PCR?

<p>It prevents the amplification of nonspecific products at room temperature. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the rbcS-E9 terminator in the context of the FINAL cbf4-CRISPR VECTOR?

<p>To terminate the transcription of Cas9. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the presence of BastaR indicate when used in the context of this vector system?

<p>It is a selection marker used in plants. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of recombinant DNA technology?

<p>To prepare identical copies of DNA molecules (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a component required for a plasmid to function as a cloning vector?

<p>DNA ligase enzyme (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does the antibiotic-resistance gene play in plasmid vectors?

<p>It allows selection against non-transformed bacteria (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of vector is commonly used along with E. coli plasmid vectors?

<p>Bacteriophage λ vectors (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is a recombinant DNA molecule formed?

<p>By combining vector DNA and an inserted DNA fragment (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the enzyme β-lactamase do in the context of plasmid vectors?

<p>It inactivates the antibiotic ampicillin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the bacterial origin of replication (ori) in plasmids?

<p>To allow the plasmid to replicate within bacterial cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about plasmids is true?

<p>Plasmids replicate independently of chromosomal DNA in E. coli (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of the ori sequence in a plasmid?

<p>To initiate plasmid replication within bacteria (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following components is NOT typically found in an expression vector?

<p>Multiple cloning site (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the three components of an expression cassette?

<p>Promoter sequence, coding sequence (CDS/ORF), terminator of transcription (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many bases does the ori sequence typically contain?

<p>50 - 100 bases (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following correctly describes the function of a selectable marker in an expression vector?

<p>It allows for the selection of successfully modified cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which organisms can expression cassettes be transfected?

<p>In bacteria, yeast, plants, and mammalian cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What occurs once DNA replication is initiated at the origin (ori)?

<p>Replication continues in both directions until the forks merge (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately describes a restriction enzyme recognition site?

<p>It is a specific sequence where restriction enzymes can cut (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary method used to make E.coli cells competent for DNA uptake?

<p>Treating with CaCl2 or using electroporation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What occurs to cells that do not undergo successful transformation when plated on antibiotic selection media?

<p>They die (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the plasmid behave once incorporated into a transformed E.coli cell?

<p>It replicates independently of the host-cell chromosome (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What typically happens to DNA during the heat-shocking process of transformation?

<p>It is absorbed by some competent cells (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When performing selections on antibiotic media, what is the purpose of diluting the cell suspension?

<p>To prevent overcrowding of colonies (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the expected outcome if many colonies are anticipated from a transformation?

<p>Use a diluted cell suspension for plating (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one characteristic of the frequency of transformation in E.coli?

<p>It occurs at a low frequency (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the initial temperature used during the heat-shocking phase of E.coli transformation?

<p>42°C (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

CRISPR-Cas9

A gene editing system that uses a guide RNA (gRNA) to direct the Cas9 enzyme to a specific DNA sequence, where it can cut the DNA and introduce changes.

gRNA (guide RNA)

A short RNA molecule that guides the Cas9 enzyme to a specific DNA sequence. It contains a sequence that is complementary to the target DNA.

Cas9

An enzyme that cuts DNA at specific locations, guided by a gRNA. It is a key component of the CRISPR-Cas9 system.

Egg cell-specific promoter (EC1.2p)

A promoter that drives expression of a gene specifically in the egg cells of a plant. It ensures high efficiency of homozygous mutations in the offspring.

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U6 promoter (U6-26p, U6-29p)

A promoter that drives expression of small RNAs, such as gRNAs, in cells. It is often used in CRISPR-Cas9 systems.

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Phusion DNA Polymerase

A DNA polymerase with high fidelity and processivity. It is commonly used for PCR amplification, especially for long or difficult DNA sequences.

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Processivity

The ability of a DNA polymerase to bind to a DNA template and synthesize a DNA strand without dissociating frequently. It allows the polymerase to copy long DNA sequences efficiently.

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Fidelity

The ability of a DNA polymerase to accurately copy a DNA sequence. High fidelity means that the enzyme makes very few mistakes during DNA replication.

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Type IIS Restriction Enzymes

Restriction enzymes that cleave DNA at a defined distance downstream of their recognition sequence.

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How do Type IIS Restriction Enzymes work?

Type IIS RE recognize palindromic DNA sequences, but cleave the DNA at a specific distance away, leading to unique sticky ends.

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Palindromic DNA Sequence

A specific DNA sequence that is the same forward and backward, important for DNA recognition by restriction enzymes.

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Sticky Ends

Short single-stranded overhangs created by restriction enzymes when cleaving DNA, that can bind to complimentary overhangs on other DNA fragments.

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Golden Gate Cloning

A cloning method that uses Type IIS restriction enzymes to assemble DNA fragments with unique overhangs, allowing for precise and efficient joining of multiple fragments.

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BsaI (Type IIS)

A specific Type IIS restriction enzyme that cuts DNA at a specific distance away from its recognition sequence, generating unique sticky ends.

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Type IIS RE Recognition Sequence

A region of DNA that contains the recognition sites for Type II enzymes, determining the sequence of DNA that will be cleaved.

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BSaI-HFv2

A type of enzyme that has been optimized for Golden Gate Assembly, providing increased accuracy and efficiency during cloning.

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Golden Gate Assembly

A method for assembling multiple DNA fragments using Type IIS restriction enzymes. Each fragment has unique overhangs, defining the order of assembly. The fragments are digested with Type IIS enzymes, leaving compatible sticky ends, and then ligated together with T4 ligase, forming a single continuous DNA molecule.

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Restriction Site

A DNA sequence recognized by a restriction enzyme. The enzyme cuts the DNA at or near this site.

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T4 Ligase

An enzyme that joins DNA fragments by forming phosphodiester bonds between their free 5'-phosphate and 3'-hydroxyl groups. It is essential for DNA replication and repair.

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Ligation

The process of joining DNA fragments together using a protein. It forms a phosphodiester bond between two adjacent nucleotides.

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Vector

A circular molecule of DNA that can replicate independently of the host's chromosome. It is often used as a vector to carry and amplify foreign DNA.

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Insert

A DNA fragment that is introduced into a vector for cloning or expression purposes.

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Plasmids

Circular, double-stranded DNA molecules that can replicate independently of a cell's chromosomal DNA.

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Origin of replication (ori)

A sequence of DNA that acts as a starting point for DNA replication.

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Antibiotic-resistance gene (ampr, encoding β-lactamase)

A gene that provides resistance to a specific antibiotic, allowing bacteria carrying the plasmid to survive in the presence of the antibiotic.

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Transformation

A process where a DNA molecule of interest is introduced into bacterial cells, enabling the cells to produce copies of the DNA.

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Competent cells

A type of bacterial cell specifically engineered to efficiently take up foreign DNA.

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Cloning vector

A small circular piece of DNA containing the desired gene and other essential elements that allows for its replication in a bacteria cell.

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Recombinant DNA molecule

A DNA molecule that contains a vector and a DNA fragment of interest, allowing for the replication and amplification of the inserted fragment.

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Restriction Enzyme Recognition Site

A specific DNA sequence that is recognized and cut by a restriction enzyme. This site is often used for inserting foreign DNA into a plasmid.

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Multiple Cloning Site (MCS)

A region on a plasmid that contains multiple restriction enzyme recognition sites, allowing for easy insertion of DNA fragments.

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Expression Vector

A type of plasmid that contains an expression cassette, allowing for the production of a specific protein from a gene of interest.

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Promoter

A DNA sequence that signals the start of transcription of a gene, controlling the production of RNA.

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Terminator

A DNA sequence that signals the end of transcription of a gene, stopping the production of RNA.

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Antibiotic Resistance Gene

A gene that provides resistance to a specific antibiotic, allowing the identification of bacteria that have taken up the plasmid.

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Herbicide Resistance Gene

A gene that provides resistance to a specific herbicide, used to select for plants that have taken up the plasmid.

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Bacterial Transformation

A process where bacterial cells take up foreign DNA, enabling the introduction of genes into the cells.

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Electroporation

A technique used to increase the permeability of bacterial cell membranes by applying an electrical field, allowing for efficient uptake of DNA.

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Plasmid Amplification

A technique used to amplify a plasmid by allowing transformed cells to multiply into colonies, ensuring that each daughter cell inherits a copy of the plasmid.

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Selection Media

Media containing antibiotics used to select for cells that have successfully incorporated a plasmid, eliminating those that haven't taken up the foreign DNA.

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Gene Cloning

A technique for creating genetically modified organisms (GMOs) by inserting a specific gene into an organism's genome.

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Colony

A collection of cells, all derived from a single ancestral cell, that have incorporated a specific gene.

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Study Notes

Genome Editing: Generating Mutants using CRISPR-Cas9

  • Cloning sgRNAs into plant expression vector is a key part of creating mutants using CRISPR-Cas9.
  • Golden Gate cloning is a technique used for this process.
  • Type IIS restriction enzymes are also used in the process.
  • E. coli transformation is part of the procedure.

Common Gene Cloning Techniques

  • Traditional cloning using type IIP restriction enzymes (digestion and ligation) is a common technique.
  • Golden Gate assembly (or type IIS assembly) is another common method.
  • TA and blunt end cloning are also included in the set of common techniques
  • Recombinational cloning (Gateway) technology is a cloning technique
  • Gibson assembly is part of the set of common techniques

Cloning sgRNAs in Plant Expression Vector

  • ChopChop is used in the cloning process, which relates to sgRNAs.
  • CBF4-sg11 and CBF4-sg1 are used together, with sgRNAs.
  • PCBC-DT1T2 CRISPR scaffolds are used with Hot-Start Phusion Pol.
  • PCR is used in the process to generate the desired PCR product
  • pHEE401E vectors used with Bsal, and T4 DNA Ligase.
  • sg11-1 cbf4/ pHEE401E is the final CRISPR expression Vector produced with this process.

Designing Primers with cbf4-gRNAs

  • Primers CBF4-sg11_For and CBF4-sg1_Rev are essential for the process.
  • The prime sequence for CBF4-sg11_For has overhangs with Bsal sites.
  • The primer sequence for CBF4-sg1_Rev also has overhangs with Bsal sites, so the Bsal sites are also present in CRISPR vector.

Overview of cloning strategy

  • PCR product amplified with sg11+sg1 is part of the cloning strategy.
  • CRISPR vector (pHEE401E) used for cloning gRNA cassette.
  • KanR/SpecR, BastaR expression cassettes with CRISPR vector, used for the cloning strategy.
  • Final cbf4-CRISPR vector (cbf4 sg11+1/pHEE401E) used next
  • The cloning strategy utilizes Bsal, SpecR, U6, and sgRNA.

PCR Amplification using Hot-Start Phusion DNA Polymerase

  • Phusion High-Fidelity DNA Polymerase is essential for amplification.
  • This DNA polymerase has high processivity and extremely low error rates, making it appropriate for cloning.
  • Hot Start Phusion polymerase inhibits activity at room temperature to prevent nonspecific products.
  • The polymerase has 5' to 3' polymerase and 3' to 5' exonuclease activities, resulting in blunt-ended products
  • The error rate is significantly lower than that of Taq and Pyrococcus furiosus DNA polymerases.

Golden Gate cloning with Type IIS Restriction Enzymes

  • Type IIS restriction enzymes (REs), such as Bsal and others, cut DNA a defined distance from their recognition sequence.
  • Golden Gate cloning using Type IIS REs is crucial for sequence independent cloning of genes.
  • This technique is a single-tube, one-step process involving digestion and ligation in the same tube.
  • The technique eliminates scar sequences, and allows simultaneous assembly of multiple fragments.

Type II Restriction Enzymes

  • Restriction enzymes are classified according to whether the cleavage occurs within or outside the recognition site (Type II or II respectively).

Type IIP Restriction Enzymes

  • Classical Type IIP REs (e.g., EcoRI, BamHI) are highly characterized.
  • These enzymes recognize specific 4-8 nucleotide palindromic sequences.
  • They cleave within the recognition site, yielding sticky or blunt ends.

Type IIS Restriction Enzymes

  • Type IIS enzymes (Bsal, Bbsl, etc.) cleave DNA at a distance from the recognition sequence.
  • The catalytic and recognition domains are separated by polypeptide linkers.
  • The sequences beyond the recognition site can contain any combination of nucleotides.
  • This cloning technique allows assembly of multiple fragments with complementary overhangs using Golden Gate assembly.

How does Golden Gate cloning work?

  • Type IIS restriction enzymes cut DNA downstream of their recognition sites.
  • Fragments with unique overhangs are assembled by annealing complementary four-base overhangs
  • Restriction sites are removed from the final ligation product, enabling simultaneous digestion and ligation.

Cloning a Single Fragment using Type IIS Restriction Enzymes

  • The DNA fragment can be a PCR product or cloned PCR product.
  • Type IIS recognition sites on the fragment are oriented so cleavage leaves sticky ends but removes enzyme binding sites
  • Recipient vector must have matching Type IIS sites to allow for ligation.

Cloning Multiple Fragments using Type IIS Restriction Enzymes

  • Each fragment has unique overhangs, dictating the assembly order.
  • Complementary overhangs facilitate the assembly onto adjacent fragments in the final assembly.
  • T4 ligase joins complementary overhangs.

Ligation with T4 DNA Ligase

  • T4 DNA ligase forms phosphodiester bonds between 5' phosphate and 3' hydroxyl groups.
  • This process is equivalent to repairing nicks in a duplex DNA molecule.
  • In recombinant DNA technology, DNA ligase joins restriction fragments using ATP.
  • Bacteriophage T4 DNA ligase is the preferred enzyme for joining both sticky and blunt ends.

Golden Gate Reaction

  • The digestion and ligation are performed in the same reaction using Bsal and T4 DNA ligase.
  • Specific buffers, ATP, and Mg²⁺ are included in the reaction.
  • The reaction is performed in a thermal cycler with specific temperature cycles for digestion and ligation.

Golden Gate Cloning: Summary

  • Golden Gate utilizes Type IIS enzymes for one-step DNA fragment insertion into a vector.
  • The technique repeatedly cycles between restriction endonuclease and DNA ligase temperatures
  • Golden Gate reduces the number of steps in conventional cloning procedures.

E. coli Transformation

  • E. coli transformation is a natural process where bacteria take up foreign DNA.
  • Molecular biology techniques make bacteria competent for taking up DNA using methods like Calcium chloride.
  • Transformation occurs when competent cells are mixed with the DNA, heat shocked, and allowed to recover.
  • Antibiotic selection identifies successfully transformed cells.

Plasmids

  • Plasmids are circular, double-stranded DNA that replicate independently of the bacterial chromosome.
  • Essential elements of plasmids include an origin of replication and an antibiotic resistance gene.

Plasmid Elements: ori

  • ori is a short DNA sequence crucial for directing plasmid replication.
  • This region recruits the DNA replication machinery inside the bacteria, making copying (replication), possible.

Expression Vector

  • Expression vectors are used to study gene function by introducing a gene’s DNA fragment.
  • An expression vector has three components: a promoter, a DNA fragment (eg, CDS/ORF), and a terminator.

Delivery of sgRNA in Plants by Agrobacterium tumefaciens

  • Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used to deliver sgRNA to plants.
  • This method involves cloning into a plant expression vector, transforming E. coli, and introducing the transformed plasmid into Agrobacterium culture.
  • Then the Agrobacterium culture then transforms the target plant, selecting transformed plants for further study through germination and harvest of seeds.

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Description

Test your knowledge on Type IIS restriction enzymes and their applications in cloning techniques. This quiz covers features, recognition sites, and the significance of unique overhangs generated during the Golden Gate cloning process. Challenge yourself with questions about their function and usage in genetic engineering.

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