Trust Law and Guidelines

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Questions and Answers

A settlor can use express language in a trust to prevent acquiring corporations from taking trustee powers from a local bank.

True (A)

A beneficiary can only be a single human person according to the guidelines provided.

False (B)

Honorary trusts lack a human beneficiary or charitable purpose and may serve to care for pets.

True (A)

A trust is considered valid if the settlor describes the beneficiaries in vague terms, such as 'my friends'.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Substitute Fiduciary Act allows a corporation to acquire trustee powers without court permission.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Capacity to hold property does not require a person to be able to transfer property.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a traditional approach, honorary trusts are deemed valid because they serve private interests.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Minnesota is the only state that does not allow trusts for pets.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The settlor always retains legal title while transferring equitable title to beneficiaries.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A settlor can create a trust that takes effect only during their lifetime.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Consideration is required for a valid trust to be created.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Promises to create a trust in the future must have consideration to be enforceable.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If the trust property is only a promise, it does not need to be enforceable for the trust to be valid.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A certificate of deposit can serve as valid trust property.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The will's validity guarantees the validity of any trusts mentioned within it.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A friend's promise to pay money can be used as trust property without any contractual agreement.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A trust that rewards students for receiving an A in law school courses is considered charitable.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Mortmain Provisions allow unlimited gifts to charity regardless of circumstances.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A trust set up for medical research is considered charitable if the settlor's designation is broad.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The opinion of the settlor about a charitable purpose is crucial in determining the trust’s status.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The court uses a subjective standard to determine whether a trust's purpose is charitable.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Trusts that serve to carry out the personal whims of the settlor are typically considered charitable.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Courts are stricter in regarding religious trusts as charitable compared to other types of trusts.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A trust that qualifies for specific requirements can obtain significant tax benefits.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A trustee in Texas is rarely required to post a bond.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A trustee is liable for losses due to commingling trust property with their own assets.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Earmarking the property belonging to the trust is not necessary if the trustee is competent.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The trustee must ascertain the identity and location of beneficiaries to distribute trust benefits.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The settlor's instructions in the trust instrument cannot be changed regardless of state law.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A trustee may hold corporate stock in the name of a nominee to simplify transactions.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Once a trustee accepts their position, there is no need to obtain control over the trust property.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A trustee has no obligations under the Trust Code if they claim ignorance about its requirements.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A trust must always be evidenced by a written instrument to be enforceable.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The statute of frauds makes a trust unenforceable if not evidenced in writing.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

It is necessary for the signature of the settlor to be included in the written evidence of the trust.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Notarization of a trust is mandatory for its validity.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An acknowledgment requires a notarized statement from the settlor confirming their free will in executing the trust.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Oral trusts are never allowed under any circumstance.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The primary purpose of a trust contest is to establish the legal title of a trustee.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Trust instruments concerning real property must often be filed in the deed records to establish the chain of title.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An exculpatory clause can excuse a breach of trust committed in bad faith.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Trust protectors must act in good faith with regard to trust purposes and beneficiaries.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A trustee can retain profits derived from a breach of trust if the settlor permits it.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Lawyers can use exculpatory clauses to exempt themselves from malpractice.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Trustees are encouraged to include exculpatory clauses in trusts to lower their standards of care.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A trust protector's instructions must be followed unless they breach their duties.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An exculpatory clause can only exculpate negligence but not bad faith or intentional acts.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The primary function of a trust protector is to create new trusts.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one benefit of using a trust for managing property?

<p>It avoids the necessity for a guardian if the settlor becomes incompetent. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Professional trustees are usually less experienced than individual trustees when managing investments.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might a settlor choose to create a trust instead of transferring property directly?

<p>To avoid probate and allow for faster distribution of assets.</p> Signup and view all the answers

A trust is considered valid if it meets elements like trust intent, capacity of the settlor, and ___________ compliance.

<p>RAP</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following types of trusts with their characteristics:

<p>Express Trust = Created by the settlor's explicit intent. Testamentary Trust = Established through a will. Charitable Trust = Aimed at benefiting a specific charity. Living Trust = Operates during the settlor's lifetime.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one condition that cannot be imposed when creating a trust?

<p>Conditions that are against public policy. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Once a settlor becomes incompetent, the property in the trust immediately transfers to the beneficiaries.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of trust is created while the settlor is still alive?

<p>Inter vivos trust (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A custodian has legal title to property gifted to them for a minor.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of a guardian in relation to property?

<p>The guardian has the right to possess and manage the property but does not have title to it.</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a loan agreement with collateral, a __________ is created by the bank to secure the loan.

<p>mortgage</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to the title of the property immediately after the settlor's death?

<p>Legal and equitable title vests in the heirs and beneficiaries (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An equitable charge is created when a donor transfers property to a donee subject to the donee paying money to a __________.

<p>third person</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary duty of a personal representative in estate administration?

<p>To manage the estate in accordance with the law and the wishes of the deceased.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following terms with their descriptions:

<p>Custodianship = Transfer of money without creating a trust Debt = Agreement to repay money with interest Equitable Charge = Property transfer subject to payment to a third party Guardianship = Possession and management rights without title</p> Signup and view all the answers

A power of appointment creates a fiduciary relationship.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about a trustee's rights in trust property is true?

<p>Trust property does not pass through inheritance or a will when the trustee dies. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A trustee in Texas must be of legal age and competent to hold the position.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the acceptance step for a trustee?

<p>The acceptance step is critical because it initiates the trustee's fiduciary duties.</p> Signup and view all the answers

A trustee's creditors cannot touch trust property because the trustee has no _____ interest in the property.

<p>beneficial</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following types of trustees with their respective requirements:

<p>Individual Trustee = Must be of legal age and competent Financial Institution Trustee = No separate charter needed Trust Company Trustee = Requires a separate charter Foreign Corporation Trustee = Must comply with Texas Probate Code</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens when a settlor is found to have acted with moral culpability in creating a trust?

<p>The trustee retains property free of trust. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A trust must have property to exist.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of a settlor in the creation of a trust?

<p>The settlor creates a trust by manifesting trust intent and splitting title while imposing duties.</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Dacey Trust allows the ____ to retain total control over the property while alive.

<p>settlor</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a power that a settlor may retain?

<p>Power to sell trust property without limitation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An inter vivos trust can be created only if the settlor has capacity to transfer property.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of trust is created at the death of the settlor?

<p>Testamentary trust</p> Signup and view all the answers

Trust property must consist of property that the settlor can _____.

<p>transfer title to</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of a resulting trust?

<p>To return the property to the settlor when there is an improper purpose (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the RAP, or Rule Against Perpetuities, primarily concerned with?

<p>The duration of trusts and the identification of beneficiaries (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The 'wait and see' approach in RAP allows for a trust to potentially remain valid depending on the actual circumstances that occur.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to a trust if the Rule Against Perpetuities is violated under common law?

<p>The entire trust becomes void.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under the Uniform Statutory Rule Against Perpetuities Act, the time period before interests must vest is ___ years.

<p>90</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following terms with their definitions related to the Rule Against Perpetuities:

<p>Cy pres = Court reforming interests that violate RAP Wait and see = Evaluating actual occurrences over hypotheticals RAP repeal = States eliminating the Rule Against Perpetuities Inter vivos trust = Trust created during the lifetime of the settlor</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which scenario exemplifies a violation of the Rule Against Perpetuities?

<p>A trust to distribute income for 25 years, then to descendants. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Cy pres doctrine allows courts to change the terms of a trust to comply with the settlor's general intent.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What age must the youngest child reach in the inter vivos trust example before property is distributed?

<p>25 years old</p> Signup and view all the answers

The ___ period in a trust refers to the time before remainder interests must vest according to the RAP.

<p>vesting</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which legislation mandates a court to reform interests that violate the RAP?

<p>Texas Property Code 5.043 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Piercing the corporate veil involves disregarding the separate legal entity of a corporation to hold its shareholders personally liable for corporate debts.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A shareholder derivative action is initiated by shareholders to enforce a corporate right that the corporation itself fails to enforce.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When a corporation uses a corporate signature, it binds the corporation to the obligations incurred under that signature.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An organizational meeting is typically held after the incorporation of a business to adopt bylaws and appoint officers.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Board members can only be removed for cause, and not without specified grounds.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A corporation can take action that harms its shareholder if motivated solely by humanitarian concerns.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A director can file a written dissent to a corporate decision to express disagreement.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The business judgment rule permits a director to escape liability for making a decision that results in misfeasance if gross negligence can be established.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Disinterested directors have no material financial interest in a transaction involving the corporation.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A director can self-deal in transactions if they disclose material facts and obtain approval from shareholders.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A fiduciary must prove that their decision was detrimental to the corporation in the case of a conflict of interest.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The factors for a corporate opportunity include whether the corporation has an interest in the opportunity.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A board of directors cannot ratify a transaction involving a conflict of interest without an attorney present.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Controlling shareholders are exempt from disclosure obligations toward minority shareholders.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The procedural duty of care claim asserts that the board was grossly negligent in the procedures used for setting executive compensation.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Quantum Meruit allows a service provider to be compensated even if no formal agreement was established prior to service delivery.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Texas Act permits the board to set salaries without regard for conflicts of interest or procedural fairness.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

One can sell controlling stock at a premium without any concerns if the purchaser does not intend to loot the corporation.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Substantive duty of care claims can lead to assertions that a board wasted resources in executive compensation decisions.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Corporate indemnification allows a corporation to cover expenses for its employees, directors, or officers only when they are found guilty in legal matters.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A controlling shareholder's fairness is prioritised over their self-interest when engaged in transactions with the corporation.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

All partners are liable for debts incurred by the partnership, even if the corporation is a separate entity.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A partner does not need to inform the other partners if they learn of a beneficial opportunity to the partnership while acting outside their business capacity.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Unanimous approval from all partners is required for decisions made within the ordinary course of business.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In closely held corporations, owners typically select themselves to be on the board of directors and also choose themselves as officers.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Board of Directors has authority to run the corporation without any input from the shareholders.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If the corporation goes bankrupt, partners are responsible for the losses incurred by the corporation as it is a separate legal entity.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Majority interest approval is necessary for decisions made that are outside the ordinary course of business.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Officers of a corporation can act without the authority delegated by the Board of Directors.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A promoter can be held liable for agreements made before the corporation is incorporated.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A corporation can adopt a pre-incorporation contract only if there is specific language allowing it.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Novation involves substituting the original promoter with the corporation in a contract.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A corporation must ratify a contract in order to adopt it.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A Nuisance Per Se involves activities that are intrinsically dangerous and pose a risk to others.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Trade secrets must be both valuable and kept confidential to qualify as such.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A partner is entitled to receive compensation for all services performed in a partnership.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A joint venture is characterized by its broad time and scope.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A limited partner is liable for the obligations of the partnership even if they do not participate in the control of business.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An LLP registration lasts indefinitely unless action is taken to remove it.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Shareholders can remove a director without cause if they hold a majority vote.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The extent of control is considered the least important factor in proving that a person is an employee.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Principals are generally liable for torts committed by independent contractors while performing contracted tasks.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Signing under the 'By' line in a corporate contract indicates that the person is not personally liable.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An agent must give any benefit received beyond what the principal has given back to the principal.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Piercing the corporate veil requires evidence that two different entities no longer have separate personalities.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Undercapitalization refers to a company having sufficient funds to pay its creditors.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When the corporation goes bankrupt, shareholders are personally liable for the debts of the corporation.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under the dual purpose rule, a servant can be held responsible for their own business as well as for the master’s business simultaneously.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A shareholder derivative action allows shareholders to sue on behalf of the corporation.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A partnership agreement requires unanimity to change according to section 152.208.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When a foreign corporation operates in Texas, Texas law governs its internal affairs.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If one partner owes money to a third party, the other partner is not required to pay that debt.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The borrowed servant doctrine holds that an employer is not responsible for the conduct of an employee under their control.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A duty of loyalty claim can be made if a director has a conflict of interest in setting executive compensation.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Quantum Meruit refers to compensation being granted if services were provided, regardless of any prior agreement.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Controlling shareholders have no obligation to disclose information to minority shareholders.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under the Texas Act, directors are responsible for setting their own salaries.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Indemnification for legal expenses is mandatory only for board members who are wholly successful in their defense.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Equity divided by the number of shares can be used to find stock value when market value is unavailable.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A buyer can demand immediate control of a corporation and still complete a sale without issues related to looting.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Fairness is the primary focus of duties imposed on controlling shareholders in their relationship with the corporation.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An officer's removal prejudices his contract rights.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A closely held corporation can impose unreasonable restrictions on the transferability of its shares.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Court will uphold a shareholder agreement that excessively limits board authority.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The percentage required for a super majority in a closely held corporation is 55%.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Corporate formalities carry significant weight when determining factors for piercing the corporate veil.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A corporation can be held liable for the acts of its sister corporation.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A shareholder is typically considered a fiduciary to the corporation.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Deep Rock Doctrine states that a stockholder's claim is subordinate to outside creditors if the corporation is undercapitalized.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Trust Creation

Transfer of property from settlor to trustee (legal title) with beneficiaries receiving equitable title.

Testamentary Trust

Trust created upon settlor's death through a will.

Trust Consideration

Trusts do not require consideration for their validity.

Future Trust Promise

Promises to create a trust in the future need consideration for enforceability.

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Trust Property - Promises

Promissory trust property must be enforceable contracts, supported by consideration.

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Valid Trust Property Example

A certificate of deposit can serve as valid trust property: financial institution's binding obligation to repay borrowed funds.

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Invalid Trust Example

A friend's promise to pay money isn't valid trust property; without consideration, it's just a gratuitous promise and lacks legal force.

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Settlor vs. Trustee

Settlor retains legal title, imposing fiduciary duties; Trustee holds legal title; Settlor is NOT the trustee.

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Statute of Frauds (SOF) in Trusts

A law requiring written evidence for certain types of agreements, including trusts, to be enforceable.

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Unenforceable Trust

A trust lacking the required written evidence, making it unable to be legally enforced.

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Texas Trust Requirements

Texas law mandates written evidence to prove trust terms (beneficiaries, property, use) and the settlor's signature.

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Signature Definition

A signature, for a trust, encompasses signatures of the settlor or an authorized agent, defined by relevant Code.

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Written Amendments/Revocations (trusts)

Any changes or cancellations to a written trust must also be in writing.

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Personal Property Trusts

In some cases, the requirements for proving personal property trusts may be less strict than those for real property trusts.

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Oral Trust (Personal Property)

Oral trusts in personal property are valid under certain conditions (settlor not trustee/beneficiary, intent stated pre-transfer).

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Notarization (Trusts)

Notarization is not required but recommended for recording, proving trust validity especially for real property trusts.

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Substitute Fiduciary Act

Allows a subsidiary company to replace an affiliated bank as trustee in certain situations (e.g., mergers, acquisitions).

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Beneficiary

Person or entity who has a right to trust assets or income.

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Concurrent Beneficiary

Beneficiary entitled to immediate trust distributions.

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Successive Beneficiary

Beneficiary who inherits trust assets/income after another beneficiary's entitlement ends (e.g., a deceased beneficiary).

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Capacity (Trusts)

The legal ability of an entity to own and manage trust property.

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Ascertainable Beneficiaries

Beneficiaries clearly identifiable from the trust document.

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Honorary Trust

Trust lacking a human or charitable beneficiary-trustee must act in good faith, without legal enforcement.

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Traditional Honorary Trust

Invalid trusts that lack a human beneficiary and a charitable purpose.

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Charitable Trust

A trust designed to benefit society or a specific group for a charitable purpose.

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Charitable Purpose

An altruistic or philanthropic motive benefiting the community, not personal gain.

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Mortmain Provisions

Statutes that restrict gifts to charities under specific circumstances.

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Legal Standard for Charitable Trust

The court uses a 'generally accepted' standard to determine if a trust's purpose is charitable.

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Uncharitable Trust Purpose

Trusts that promote personal whims, not the general welfare or community.

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Religious Trusts

Religious trusts are usually considered charitable, unless illegal or against public policy.

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Tax Benefits (Charitable Trusts)

Meeting IRS rules allows trusts to receive tax advantages (income, gift, estate taxes).

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Description of Charitable Class

The settlor can broadly define a charitable trust's recipients; but it must be limited.

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Trustee Acceptance

A trustee's agreement to manage a trust's assets and fulfill its obligations.

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Bond Requirement (Trusts)

A trustee is often required to post a bond to guarantee responsibility and fidelity in handling trust assets; exceptions exist (e.g., corporation trustee).

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Trust Property Possession

The trustee's right and duty to take control and manage the trust's assets.

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Earmarking Trust Property

Identifying and separating trust assets from a trustee's personal assets to prevent commingling.

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Beneficiary Identification

The trustee's responsibility to locate and verify the identities of beneficiaries.

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Trust Instrument Control

The trust document's instructions take precedence over general law; Unless prohibited by law.

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Trust Code Requirements

Trustees must comply with state trust laws and regulations.

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Commingling of Funds (Trusts)

The mixing of trust funds with the trustee's personal funds or others, increasing the potential for liability.

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Exculpatory Clause

A clause in a trust agreement that aims to excuse a trustee's potential breaches of duty, but only in specific circumstances.

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Unenforceable Exculpatory Clause

An exculpatory clause is unenforceable if a breach of trust involves bad faith, intent, recklessness, or if the trustee profits from the breach.

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Trustee's Negligence

An exculpatory clause can potentially protect against trustee negligence, but not against intentional wrongs.

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Attorney Trustee & Exculpatory Clause

Attorneys cannot use exculpatory clauses to protect themselves from malpractice.

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Trust Protector

A designated individual who monitors and guides the trustee's actions within the trust’s framework.

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Trust Protector's Duty

Trust protectors are expected to act in good faith regarding the trust's goals and beneficiaries.

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Trust Protector Instructions

The trustee generally must follow trust protector instructions unless deviating from the trust terms would be demonstrably inappropriate or create an error.

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Strict Construction (Exculpatory Clauses)

Exculpatory clauses in trust documents are interpreted and applied strictly in a fashion that limits what the clause protects from.

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Trust Intent

The settlor's clear intention to create a trust relationship, transferring property to a trustee for the benefit of beneficiaries.

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Settlor's Capacity

The legal ability of the person creating the trust to understand the nature and consequences of their actions.

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Statute of Frauds Compliance

Requirement for certain types of trusts, including real estate, to be in written form with the settlor's signature.

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Legal Purpose (Trust)

A trust must have a legal purpose that doesn't violate public policy or any laws.

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Transfer of Property (Trust)

The settlor must actually transfer ownership of the property to the trustee.

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Trustee Holding Legal Title

The trustee has the legal ownership of the trust property, managing it on behalf of the beneficiaries.

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Beneficiary Holding Equitable Title

The beneficiary has the right to benefit from the trust property, even though they don't own it legally.

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Defrauding Creditors

A settlor who uses a trust to defraud creditors can have the conveyance to the trust set aside to the amount of the creditor's claim.

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Improper Purpose

If a trust is created for an improper purpose, it may be invalidated, leading to either a resulting trust (property goes back to settlor) or the trustee retaining the property free of the trust.

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Resulting Trust

A resulting trust arises when a trust fails or has an improper purpose, returning property ownership to the settlor or their heirs.

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Settlor

The person who creates a trust by transferring property to a trustee for the benefit of beneficiaries.

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Dacey Trust

A revocable trust where the settlor is also the trustee and beneficiary during their lifetime, passing to a remainder beneficiary upon death.

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Trust Property

An essential component of a trust, representing the assets held in trust.

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Transfer of Title

The settlor must validly transfer ownership of the trust property to the trustee.

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Retention of Powers

A settlor can retain various powers in a trust, including serving as trustee, holding a life interest, amendment, beneficiary change, and administration control.

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RAP Violation

A trust violates the Rule Against Perpetuities (RAP) if it could potentially vest (become certain) beyond the allowed time period, typically 'lives in being plus 21 years'.

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Wait and See

A legal approach to RAP where the court observes the actual events and circumstances rather than hypotheticals to determine if the trust vests within the allowed time.

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Cy Pres

A court-ordered reform or reinterpretation of a trust that violates RAP, aiming to uphold the settlor's intended purpose while complying with the law.

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Uniform Statutory Rule Against Perpetuities Act

A law that provides a 90-year period from trust creation for vesting, instead of 'lives in being plus 21 years', with 'wait and see' consideration.

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RAP Repeal

Some states have abolished the Rule Against Perpetuities (RAP), allowing for the creation of 'dynasty trusts' that can last generations.

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Armageddon Analysis

A hypothetical scenario used to test if a trust violates RAP, assuming the worst-case scenario where beneficiaries could die shortly after its creation.

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Inter Vivos Trust

A trust created during the settlor's life, as opposed to a testamentary trust created by a will.

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Beneficial Interest

The beneficiary's right to receive benefits from the trust property.

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Remainder Interest

A beneficiary's right to receive trust property after the initial beneficiary's interest ends.

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Descendants

Direct blood relatives, typically children, grandchildren, and so on, who can inherit from a trust.

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Trustee's Rights in Trust Property

A trustee, even though they hold legal title to trust property, has no personal beneficial interest in it. This means that the trustee's creditors cannot claim the trust property, and when the trustee dies, the trust property does not pass through their will.

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Capacity of a Trustee

To serve as a trustee, an individual must be at least 18 years old, legally competent, and able to take, hold, and transfer title to the trust property.

Corporations must be authorized to act as trustees under Texas law. Financial institutions usually have this power, while trust companies require a separate charter. Foreign corporations can act as trustees if Texas has a reciprocal trust agreement with their home jurisdiction.

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Acceptance of Trusteeship

A settlor can't force someone to be a trustee; they must accept the role voluntarily. This acceptance is critical because it signifies that the trustee is taking on fiduciary responsibilities.

A trustee's acceptance is usually made through a signature on the trust instrument or a separate acceptance document.

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What happens if a trust instrument isn't endorsed?

If a trust instrument isn't endorsed, it means the legal title to the trust property hasn't been transferred to the trustee. This results in the trust failing because the essential element of transferring property to a trustee is missing.

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What are the consequences of a trustee's death?

When a trustee dies, the trust property does not pass through their will or inheritance. The trust continues with a new trustee appointed as per the trust's provisions or by the court.

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Custodianship

A custodian holds property for a minor beneficiary, but doesn't have legal title; the beneficiary holds full title, including the right to use and manage the property when they reach legal age.

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Debt

A debt agreement involves a borrower who receives money and promises to repay it with interest. The borrower has full legal and equitable title to the money, meaning they can use it as they wish.

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Equitable Charge

When a donor gives property subject to a payment obligation to a third party, the third party has an equitable right to receive payment but not title to the property.

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Guardianship

A guardian has fiduciary duties but doesn't own the property. They manage it for a minor or incompetent person.

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Personal Representative

A personal representative manages an estate after death and has no legal title; the deceased's heirs inherit full ownership upon probate.

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Power of Appointment

When someone has the power to decide who receives property, it doesn't create a trust. No fiduciary duties or ownership are involved.

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Security Arrangement

A loan secured by property, such as a mortgage, doesn't create a trust. It's a contractual lien on property but title remains with the borrower.

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Self Declaration of Trust

When the settlor declares themselves the trustee, they hold both legal title and manage the property for the beneficiarys.

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Business Judgment Rule (BJR)

A legal presumption that a director acted in good faith and with best interests of the corporation in mind, unless proven otherwise.

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BJR Exceptions

Situations where the BJR presumption doesn't apply, such as fraud, illegality, conflict of interest, or gross negligence.

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Surplus

The amount by which a corporation's net assets (equity) exceed its stated capital.

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Stated Capital

The total par value of all shares issued by a corporation.

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Cumulative Voting

A voting method where shareholders can concentrate their votes on a few directors, increasing their chances of getting their preferred candidates elected.

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Business Judgment Rule

A legal doctrine protecting directors from personal liability for decisions made in good faith, with due care, and in the best interest of the corporation, even if those decisions result in business losses.

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Gross Negligence

A high degree of negligence, showing a reckless disregard for the safety or rights of others, often involving a conscious and voluntary disregard of a substantial and unjustifiable risk.

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Director Dissent

A director's recorded disagreement with a corporate action, which protects them from liability for that action.

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Corporate Opportunity

An opportunity that arises in connection with a corporation's business and that a director or officer should present to the corporation instead of taking for themselves.

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Conflict of Interest

A situation where a director or officer's personal interests might conflict with the interests of the corporation.

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Disinterested Director

A director who has no financial interest in a particular transaction and is not related to anyone who does, which makes the director's opinion impartial.

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Fairness to the Corporation

The principle that a director's self-dealing transaction must be fair to the corporation, not favoring the director's personal interests.

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Ratification by Shareholders

When a corporation's shareholders approve a self-dealing transaction, validating it and making it less likely to be voided.

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Duty of Loyalty Claim

A claim alleging that a director or officer had a conflict of interest when setting their own executive compensation in a closely held corporation.

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Procedural Duty of Care Claim

A claim asserting that a board failed to follow proper procedures or consider sufficient information when setting executive compensation in a closely held corporation.

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Substantive Duty of Care Claim

A claim alleging that a board of directors committed waste by setting executive compensation at an unreasonable level in a closely held corporation.

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Quantum Meruit

A legal principle that allows someone to be compensated for services they provided, even without a formal contract, if it's clear they expected to be paid.

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Controlling Shareholders' Disclosure Obligation

Controlling shareholders in a corporation have a legal duty to be transparent and fair when dealing with the minority shareholders.

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Looting Factors

Factors that indicate a buyer might be trying to exploit a corporation's assets for personal gain after acquiring controlling stock.

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Corporate Indemnification

When a corporation pays expenses for its employees, directors, or officers, especially in legal matters where they're successful in defending themselves.

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Texas Mandatory Indemnification

Under Texas law, corporations must indemnify governing persons (board members) for legal expenses when they win their cases plus the corporation can choose to indemnify other employees.

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Duty of Proprietor

A proprietor has a duty to protect customers from being deceived by apparent salesmen, even if they aren't actual employees.

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Factors for Proving Employment

Several factors help determine if someone is an employee, with control being the most important. Other factors include distinct occupation, lack of supervision, skill level, tools provided, duration of work, payment method, and integration into the regular business.

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Principal Liability and Indemnification

A principal can be held liable for an agent's misconduct, but the principal can also seek indemnification from the agent to cover any damages.

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Borrowed Servant Doctrine

The employer who has the greatest control over the employee's actions at the time of the injury is liable for any harm caused to a third party.

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Dual Purpose Rule

If an employee combines their own business with their employer's business, the employer can be held liable, especially if the employee's misconduct was related to their job. However, if the misconduct involves force, it must be directly tied to their job duties.

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Liability for Independent Contractors

Principals are usually not responsible for the torts of independent contractors, but exceptions exist. The principal might be liable if they knew about the contractor's misconduct.

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Agent's Duties to Principal

An agent owes three primary duties to their principal: loyalty (no personal gain without approval), care (no negligent harm), and obedience.

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Agent's Benefit Outside Principal's Scope

If an agent receives a benefit outside what the principal provided, the agent must give that benefit to the principal.

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Partnership Liability

All partners in a partnership are personally liable for the debts of the partnership. If the partnership goes bankrupt, the partners' personal assets can be used to pay off the debts.

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Separate Entity (Partnership)

A partnership is a separate legal entity from its partners. This means that the partnership's debts are its own, not the partners' individual debts.

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Partner Withdrawal - Ordinary Business Decisions

Decisions regarding ordinary business matters within a partnership require a majority vote of the partners based on their ownership interest.

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Partner Withdrawal - Outside Ordinary Business

Decisions outside the ordinary course of business within a partnership require unanimous approval from all partners.

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Capital Accounts (Partnership)

Each partner in a partnership has a capital account that reflects their equity stake in the partnership.

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Fiduciary Duty of Loyalty (Partner Opportunity)

If a partner learns of a business opportunity that would benefit the partnership, they have a fiduciary duty to disclose it to their partners.

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Board of Directors (Corporation)

The board of directors of a corporation has the ultimate authority to make decisions on behalf of the corporation, including managing the business and affairs.

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Officers (Corporation)

Officers of a corporation are responsible for running the day-to-day operations of the corporation, but they must act under the authority delegated by the board of directors.

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Promoter Liability (Pre-Incorporation)

A promoter can be held liable for contracts made before a corporation is formed, even if the corporation later adopts the contract.

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Adoption (Pre-Incorporation Contract)

When a newly formed corporation formally accepts a contract made by a promoter before its creation.

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Requirements for Corporation Contract Adoption

A corporation must demonstrate acceptance of the contract's benefits, knowing the significant terms, in order to effectively adopt a pre-incorporation contract.

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Novation (Pre-Incorporation Contract)

A legal process where the corporation is substituted as a party to the contract in place of the promoter, requiring all parties' agreement.

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Ratification vs. Adoption

Ratification applies to actions by an agent, while adoption applies to actions of a promoter before the corporation existed.

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Nuisance Per Se

An activity inherently dangerous and posing a high risk of harm unless special precautions are taken.

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Trade Secret

Confidential business information that holds value and is protected, providing a competitive advantage.

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Partner Compensation (Partnership Act)

A partner is generally only entitled to reasonable compensation for winding up the partnership business.

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Limited Partner Liability

A limited partner isn't responsible for the partnership's debts unless they're also a general partner or actively control the business. Even with control, liability is only to those they directly dealt with who reasonably thought they were a general partner.

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LLP Registration Duration

An LLP registration with the Secretary of State only lasts one year. After that, it automatically reverts to a general partnership, where all partners are fully liable.

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Removing a Director

Shareholders can remove a director or the entire board, with or without justification, at a special meeting called for this purpose. A majority shareholder vote is needed.

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Organizational Meeting Purpose

The first board of directors meeting focuses on key actions like approving stock issuance, finalizing bylaws, selecting officers, and authorizing business transactions.

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"By" Signature Block

In a corporation's contract, using "By" before the signature means the individual is acting on behalf of the company. Without it, they may be personally liable for the contract.

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Second Signature Under "By"

Signing twice, once for the corporation and again under "By", indicates the individual assumes personal liability along with the corporation for the contract.

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Piercing the Corporate Veil

Courts can ignore the separate legal entity of a corporation and hold its owners personally liable if: 1) There's a complete blending of ownership and corporate interests, and 2) Ignoring the corporation's separate existence would result in unfairness or fraud.

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Undercapitalization

When a corporation doesn't have enough funds to operate sustainably, potentially leading to an inability to pay creditors. This can increase the risk of piercing the corporate veil.

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Shareholder Agreements and Enforcement

Shareholder agreements must be included in a corporation's bylaws or its certificate of incorporation to be legally enforceable.

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Unreasonable Limits on Board Power

A court can overturn a shareholder agreement that excessively restricts the board's authority and decision-making.

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Super Majority in Closely Held Corporations

A super majority in a closely held corporation usually requires 55% of the votes to approve a decision.

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Transferability Restrictions

Closely held corporations can impose limitations on the transferability of shares, provided they are reasonable.

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Events Triggering a Buy-Sell

A buy-sell agreement can be triggered by various events, including death, disability, divorce, termination of employment, deadlock, sale or transfer of stock, or pledging or lien on stock.

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Restricting Share Transferability

Share transferability can be restricted by including provisions in the corporation's certificate of formation, bylaws, shareholder agreements, or agreements between a shareholder and the corporation.

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Piercing the Corporate Veil for Closely Held Corporations

Courts may ignore the separate legal identity of a closely held corporation and hold its shareholders personally liable if certain factors are present.

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Controlling Shareholder Duties

Controlling shareholders have disclosure obligations when dealing with the corporation and its minority shareholders.

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Study Notes

Introduction to Trusts

  • A trust divides property ownership into legal and equitable interests
  • Settlor creates the trust; trustee holds legal title, beneficiary holds equitable title
  • Trustee manages property according to settlor's instructions
  • Trust ends when duties are complete or property is depleted
  • Texas trust legislation evolved from case law and sparse statutes to the Texas Trust Code
  • Trusts are not always cost-effective
  • Trusts are used to protect beneficiaries (minors, incompetents, spendthrifts)
  • Provide asset protection against settlor's incompetence
  • Trusts can avoid probate if created during the settlor's lifetime

Elements of a Valid Trust

  • Trust intent
  • Settlor with capacity
  • Compliance with the Statute of Frauds
  • Legal purpose
  • Transfer of property
  • Trustee holding legal title
  • Beneficiary holding equitable title
  • Compliance with Rule Against Perpetuities (RAP)

Trust Creation

  • Trust intent is the key element in creating a trust
  • No particular form or words are required to create a trust
  • Manifest intent is needed from the settlor (or trustor, grantor)
  • Split of legal and equitable title is a key element
  • Imposition of fiduciary duties on the trustee is essential

Statute of Uses

  • A precursor to trusts, uses could be honorary
  • Became legally enforceable in 15th Century
  • In Texas, the Statute of Uses applies to real property, but similar principles are frequently asserted to govern personal property.

Trust Creation During Lifetime

  • A settlor creates an inter vivos trust during their lifetime
  • Settlor can be trustee and transfer legal title to a third-party trustee

Trust Creation Upon Settlor's Death

  • A settlor can create a testamentary trust in their will
  • Must be a valid will and valid on its own terms, apart from the will
  • The trust's validity does not depend on the will's validity.

Consideration

  • Consideration is generally not required for trust creation
  • But, an agreement to create a trust in the future requires consideration

Statute of Frauds

  • Some trust agreements must be in writing to be valid (real property)
  • Exception: Oral trust for personal property that lacks a signature but meets other requirements

Rule Against Perpetuities (RAP)

  • Future interests are valid if they must vest within 21 years after the death of someone alive when the trust was created)
  • Applies to non-charitable trusts, not charitable trusts
  • Some states have modified or abolished RAP for certain circumstances

Trust Purposes

  • To protect beneficiaries
  • To provide flexibility in asset distribution (spread out benefits of trust)
  • To avoid probate

Trust Property

  • Must have property for a trust
  • Property required for trust to be valid.
  • Can include tangible (land, houses, cars) and intangible (stocks, bonds)

Trust Performance During Settlor's Lifetime

  • Settlor can be the trustee
  • Settlor can retain many powers in the trust, even if a trustee

Trustee Duties

  • Exercise fiduciary duties, (prudent investor rule)
  • Duty of loyalty (avoid self-dealing)
  • Duty of impartiality (favor no one beneficiary)
  • Duties are imposed by the Trust Code

Trustee Powers

  • Powers granted by trust instrument
  • Additional powers granted by Texas statute
  • Powers to manage property: Sell, lease, invest, improve.

Trust Distributions

  • To named beneficiaries in accordance with trust terms
  • Manner of distribution is specified in the trust document
  • The trustee has a duty to make proper distributions.

Trustee Compensation

  • Trustee is not entitled to compensation unless the trust instrument specifies otherwise, or law states otherwise
  • The amount of compensation is determined based on the value of the trust property and any unusual labor/skill required.

Settlor Revocation or Modification of Trust

  • Settlor has power to revoke or modify trust, unless irrevocable (express language).
  • Method for revocation or modification must be in the trust document.

Trust Termination

  • Some express stipulations in the trust document
  • Beneficiary agrees to end the trust
  • Legal impossibility (property gone or illegal purpose).
  • Trust becomes uneconomical
  • Court order (allows judge to decide)
  • Merger of legal and equitable titles in one person

Trust Account

  • A bank account with a named beneficiary; not a trust (no split of title)
  • A simple way to convey wealth to a beneficiary
  • No fiduciary duty owed by account holder as it is not a trust, it's a contract.

Resulting Trusts

  • Trust where trust fails or has no beneficiary
  • Implied trust or an arrangement that a court finds appropriate
  • Settlor or successors will be the beneficiary

Constructive Trusts

  • Remedy to prevent unjust enrichment (unfair use of assets)
  • Created by a court, not explicit in the trust document
  • Prevents someone from keeping property they shouldn't have.

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