Chapter 9 Detection and Identification of Antibodies

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following characteristics distinguishes the gel technique from the tube technique in antibody screening?

  • Uses serum or plasma with RBC reagents homozygous for specific antigens.
  • Relies on subjective grading of agglutination reactions.
  • Eliminates the washing step typically required in tube tests. (correct)
  • Requires the addition of AHG to visualize the reaction.

A patient undergoing pre-transfusion testing has a suspected unexpected antibody. If the solid phase technique is used for antibody screening, what advantage does it offer over other methods?

  • Facilitates automation and uses smaller sample sizes. (correct)
  • Requires larger sample sizes and a longer incubation period.
  • Provides unstable reactions and the nature of grading is subjective.
  • Allows use of common laboratory equipment and is inexpensive.

What is true about the purpose of using 22% albumin in antibody detection techniques?

  • Diluting the antibody concentration to improve reaction specificity.
  • Reducing the zeta potential, allowing RBCs to approach each other for agglutination. (correct)
  • Dissolving specific antibodies to facilitate their identification.
  • Increasing the zeta potential to enhance RBC repulsion and prevent false positives.

In the context of antibody screening, how does Low Ionic Strength Solution (LISS) enhance the detection of antibodies?

<p>By increasing the uptake of antibody onto the RBC during the sensitization phase. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does Polyethylene Glycol (PeG) enhance antibody detection in a LISS solution?

<p>By removing water from the test system, increasing the antibody concentration. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In antibody identification, under what circumstances is differential adsorption typically performed?

<p>When the patient's red cells lack the antigens to which the patient may form antibodies. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is the elution technique essential in investigating hemolytic transfusion reactions (HTRs)?

<p>To release and concentrate antibodies coating red blood cells for identification. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When would a partial elution be preferred over a total elution in blood banking procedures?

<p>When it's necessary to keep the RBC antigens intact for phenotyping or auto adsorption. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the underlying principle behind using organic solvents like dichloromethane or ether in total elution methods?

<p>They act on the lipids in the RBC membrane, reducing surface tension and reversing Van der Waal forces. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the titer level in antibody titration represent?

<p>The reciprocal of the greatest dilution in which agglutination is observed. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In antibody identification, what information from a patient's history is crucial for accurate analysis?

<p>Age, sex, race, diagnosis, transfusion history, pregnancy history, and medications. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to rule out or exclude all negative results with all homozygous positive antigens when using panel reagent cells for antibody identification?

<p>To definitively exclude the presence of corresponding antibodies and narrow down the possibilities. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the phase of reaction (immediate spin vs. AHG) provide information about the type of antibody present?

<p>IgM antibodies typically react at the immediate spin phase, while IgG antibodies are best detected at the AHG phase. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a positive autologous control in antibody identification generally suggest?

<p>The presence of an autoantibody or a mix of allo- and autoantibodies. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A technologist observes varying reaction strengths among panel cells during antibody identification. Some cells react strongly (3+), while others react weakly (1+). What is the most likely explanation for this?

<p>The variation is likely due to differences in antigen expression (homozygous vs. heterozygous) and the possible presence of multiple antibodies. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with multiple myeloma requires pre-transfusion compatibility testing. Which factor presents a significant challenge when using enhancement reagents, and why?

<p>Elevated levels of plasma proteins can cause false positive reactions, leading to inaccurate results. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During antibody screening, you observe agglutination at the 37°C phase. The autologous control is negative. Which of the following is the MOST likely interpretation?

<p>Presence of alloantibodies. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You observe rouleaux formation in all phases of antibody screening. How can you differentiate this from true agglutination?

<p>Rouleaux will be dispersed by adding saline, while agglutination will not. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In antibody screening, multiple screening cells react at different phases and strengths. What does this suggest about the patient's antibody profile?

<p>Multiple antibodies are likely present. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an antibody screen, you suspect a prozone phenomenon. What adjustment would you make to the cell-to-serum ratio to address this?

<p>Decrease the amount of serum relative to cells. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Based on the following phenotypes, which pair of cells would make the best screening cells?

<p>Cell 1: Group O, D+C+c–E–e+, K+, Fy(a–b+), Jk(a–b+), M–N+S–s+ Cell 2: Group O, D- C–c+E+e–, K–, Fy(a+b–), Jk(a+b–), M+N–S+s– (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Antibodies are excluded using RBCs that are homozygous for the corresponding antigen because:

<p>Antibodies may show dosage (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A request for 8 units of packed RBCs was received for patient LF. The patient has a negative antibody screen, but one of the 8 units was 3+ incompatible at the AHG phase. Which of the following antibodies may be the cause?

<p>Anti-Kp^a (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The physician has requested 2 units of RBCs for patient DB, who has two antibodies, anti-L and anti-Q. The frequency of antigen L is 45%, and the frequency of antigen Q is 70% in the donor population. Approximately how many units will need to be antigen-typed for L and Q to fill the request?

<p>12 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Anti-Sda has been identified in patient ALF. What substance would neutralize this antibody and allow detection of other alloantibodies?

<p>Urine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Patient JM appears to have a warm autoantibody. She was transfused 2 weeks ago. What would be the next step performed to identify any alloantibodies that might be in her serum?

<p>Warm differential adsorption (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the titer and score for this prenatal anti-D titer?

<p>Titer = 32; score = 52 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Select the antibody(ies) most likely responsible for the reactions observed:

<p>Anti-E and anti-K (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What additional cells need to be tested to be 95% confident that the identification is correct?

<p>One additional E-positive cell to react positively and one additional K-positive cell to react positively (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Using the panel in Figure 9–21, select cells that would make appropriate controls when typing for the C antigen.

<p>Cell number 2 for the positive control and cell number 4 for the negative control (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following methods may be employed to remove IgG antibodies that are coating a patient’s red blood cells?

<p>Elution (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A technologist has decided to test an enzyme-treated panel of RBCs against a patient’s serum. Which of the following antibody pairs could be separated using this technique?

<p>Anti-Jk^a and anti-Fy^a (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An antibody demonstrates weak reactivity at the AHG phase when using a tube method with no enhancement reagent and monospecific anti-IgG AHG reagent. When repeating the test, which of the following actions may increase the strength of the positive reactions?

<p>Adding an enhancement reagent, such as LISS or PEG (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Naturally Occurring Antibodies

Antibodies formed due to exposure to environmental substances like pollen or bacteria.

Irregular Antibodies

Antibodies formed due to exposure to RBC antigens through transfusion, transplant, or pregnancy.

Antibody Screen

A test to detect unexpected antibodies in a patient's serum or plasma.

22% Albumin

Enhances agglutination by reducing the zeta potential, allowing RBCs to come closer.

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Low Ionic Strength Solution (LISS)

Increases antibody uptake by RBCs during sensitization phase, enhancing agglutination.

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Optimal IgM Temperature

Optimal at 21-25°C.

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Saline Incubation Time

45 min-1 hr incubation.

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Optimal Antibody pH

Antibodies react best between 6.8 and 7.2.

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Antibody Identification Panel

Used to identify antibodies, a panel consists of a collection of group "O" cells with various antigen expressions.

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Autologous Control Results

Alloantibodies are indicated by negative reactions, while autoantibodies or a mix of allo and autoantibodies are indicated by positive reactions.

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Anti-Human Globulin (AHG)

Reagent used to detect antibodies bound to red blood cells; unsuitable for patients with high plasma protein levels.

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Polyspecific AHG Reagent

A reagent containing anti-IgG used in pre-transfusion compatibility testing according to AABB standards; also called polyvalent or broad spectrum Coomb's serum.

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Positive Antibody Screen

Agglutination or hemolysis indicates antibodies are present and is considered a positive test result.

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Autologous Control (AC)

Auto control detects autoantibodies or antibodies to medications.

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Prozone and Postzone

Excess antibody (prozone) or antigen (postzone) can lead to false-negative results.

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Exact Match

Matching patient serum with cells lacking antigens to which the patient may form antibodies.

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Differential Adsorption

Used when phenotyping patients with positive DAT, recent transfusions or multiple antibodies. Uses R1R1, R2R2, and rr cells, one negative for Jka, K, and Jkb.

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Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT)

Detects antibodies coating RBCs in hemolytic transfusion reactions, HDFN, autoimmune hemolytic anemia, and drug-induced hemolytic anemia. Detects in vivo sensitization.

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Elution Technique

Releases antibodies from RBCs using temperature, pH, or organic solvents. Allows for antibody purification and concentration.

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Antibody Titer

Reciprocal of the greatest dilution where agglutination is observed. Indicates relative antibody concentration.

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Study Notes

  • Antibodies can be regular ("expected," like ABO system antibodies) or irregular ("unexpected", due to RBC antigen exposure from transfusion, transplant, or pregnancy)
  • AABB standards mandate antibody screens for pre-transfusion testing, prenatal risk assessment for HDFN, evaluating mothers for RhIG prophylaxis, and donor testing

Antibody Screen Techniques:

  • Tube Technique:
    • Uses serum or plasma with homozygous RBC reagents for Rh, Kidd, Duffy, MNSs, and Lutheran antigens
    • Flexible and inexpensive with common lab equipment
    • Has unstable reactions and subjective grading
  • Gel Technique:
    • Employs dextran acrylamide gel and screening cells in 0.8% LISS
    • Eliminates the washing step with stable and standardized reactions for up to 24 hours
    • Facilitates mixed field reaction detection and automatic interpretation
    • Requires incubators and centrifuges
  • Solid Phase Technique:
    • Uses indicator cells instead of AHG with automation
    • Requires smaller sample sizes and LISS that changes color with serum or plasma addition
    • Requires positive and negative controls for each batch

Reagents to Enhance Reactions:

  • 22% albumin reduces zeta potential, increasing RBC agglutination chances
  • Low Ionic Strength Solution (LISS) contains glycine in albumin solution and increases antibody uptake by RBCs during sensitization
  • Polyethylene Glycol (PeG) in LISS removes water, increasing antibody concentration and RBC sensitization, but is unsuitable for patients with high plasma protein levels (e.g., multiple myeloma)

Anti Human Globulin (AHG):

  • AABB standards mandate that reagent contains anti-IgG for pre-transfusion compatibility testing
  • Polyspecific (polyvalent or broad spectrum) Coomb's serum is used
  • AHG should be verified using Coomb's control cells

Antibody Screen Interpretation:

  • Agglutination or hemolysis at any testing stage indicates a positive result

Factors for investigators to consider:

  • Reaction Phase:

    • IgM reacts best at low temperatures
    • IgG reacts optimally at 37°C
  • Autologous Control:

    • A positive control indicates autoantibody or medication-related antibody presence: recent transfusions may cause false positives from alloantibodies on transfused cells
    • A negative autologous control alongside positive antibodies indicates alloantibodies
  • Multiple Screening Cell Reactions:

    • Similar phase and strength reactions suggest single antibody specificity, differing reactions suggest multiple antibodies
  • Hemolysis or Mixed-Field Agglutination:

    • Anti-Leª, Anti-Leb, Anti-PP¹Pk, and Anti-Vel can cause in vitro hemolysis
    • Mixed-field reactions are linked to Anti-Sdª and Lutheran antibodies
  • True Agglutination vs. Rouleaux:

    • Rouleaux, which appear as "stacked coins" under microscopy, can result from multiple myeloma or high-molecular-weight plasma expanders like dextran
    • It does not interfere with the AHG phase
    • It disperses unlike agglutination, with saline addition
  • Screening reagents and methods target clinically significant antibodies

  • A negative result provides 95% confidence that no clinically significant antibodies are present

Sensitivity Factors of Antibody Screen:

  • Cell-to-Serum Ratio:
    • Excess antibody causes prozone, excess antigen causes postzone
    • Both give false-negative results
  • Temperature:
    • IgG reacts at 37°C
    • IgM reacts at 21 to 25°C
  • Incubation Length:
    • Saline requires 45 mins to 1 hour
    • Potentiators need 10 minutes
  • pH:
    • Most antibodies react between 6.8 and 7.2

Antibody Identification Process:

  • Identify and determine an antibody's clinical significance after detection
  • Requires patient history: age, sex, race, diagnosis, transfusion and pregnancy history, and medications
  • Identification uses 11 to 20 "O" cells with varied antigen expressions, including homozygous Rh, Duffy, Kidd, and MNSs
  • These cells are positive for low-frequency and negative for high-frequency antigens
  • Exclude negative results with homozygous positive antigens and logically evaluate panel results

Evaluation of Panel Results:

  • Reaction Phase and Strength: Homozygous cells react more strongly than heterozygous cells and varying strengths indicate multiple antibodies

Antigens with Variable Expression Includes:

  • I, P1, Leª, Vel, Ch/Rg and Sda
  • Phase Consistency: Reactions at different phases may indicate multiple antibodies
  • Homozygous cells react faster than heterozygous cells
  • IgM antibodies usually react at the immediate spin phase and are less significant
  • IgG Abs are clinically significant and easily detected during AHG phase

Serum Reactivity Factors:

  • Serum reactivity should match known specificities
  • If a single alloantibody is present, the reactivity pattern is precise
  • Rule out common RBC antibodies, testing selected cells for commonly encountered antibodies
  • Autologous Controls: A negative one indicates alloantibodies and a positive one indicates autoantibodies or allo/autoantibody mixtures
  • Confirm suspected antibody through at least three positive and three negative antigen reactions; a p-value of ≤0.05 validates results
  • Check for missing antigen corresponding to the antibody to confirm results
  • Options for DAT-positive, non-phenotypable patients include gentle heat elution, chloroquine diphosphate, and glycine/EDTA reagent to remove antibody coating
  • Reticulocyte typing can be done for recently transfused individuals
  • Flow cytometry to detect trace antigens and PCR for fetal antigen typing, requiring positive controls with heterozygous antigen expression

Techniques for Antibody Identification:

  • Use extra cells with minimal overlapping antigens and extended cell panels to identify multiple antibodies
  • Enzymes (ficin, papain, trypsin, bromelin) can destroy antigens or improve expression
  • Neutralization uses soluble substances to block antibodies that inhibit agglutination

Adsorption Techniques:

  • Antibodies are removed from serum via target antigen
  • Commercial reagents: human platelet concentrate (for Bg-like antibodies) and rabbit erythrocyte stroma (REST) (for I, H, IH antigens)
  • Autoadsorption uses patient's RBCs to remove autoantibodies (patients should not have been transfused in the past 3 months)
  • Homologous is used when insufficient RBCs are available or the patient has been recently transfused, match cells lacking the antigens
  • Differential adsorption is used when the patient's phenotyping is complicated by a positive DAT, recent transfusion, or multiple antibodies (use R1R1, R2R2, and rr cells, one negative for Jkª, K, Jkb)

DAT (Direct Antiglobulin Test)

  • Detects antibodies on RBCs in hemolytic transfusion reactions (HTRs), HDFN, autoimmune and drug-induced hemolytic anemia
  • Detects in vivo RBC sensitization
  • Elution releases and concentrates antibodies by modifying forces between antigen and antibody and changing the RBC surface
  • Total elution releases all bound antibodies and destroys RBC antigens
  • Partial elution removes antibody, preserving RBC antigens for phenotyping or preparing cells for autoadsorption
  • Elution methods depend on temperature, pH, and solvents
  • Techniques:
    • Gentle heat (45°C for partial, 56°C for total)
    • Lui freeze (-18°C)
    • Acid elution (glycine at pH 3.0) for non-ABO abs and organic solvents (dichloromethane, xylene, ether) to reduce surface tension
  • Last wash should match the eluate and test negative; method best for non-ABO abs but is time-consuming

Antibody Titration:

  • Evaluated by flow cytometry, radioimmunoassay, or enzyme-linked immunoassay to determine the antibody level
  • Titer is the highest dilution with observed agglutination
  • Assign scores based on reaction strength and calculate the total score
  • A change of two tubes or score change of 10+ is significant
  • Use cells with homozygous or heterozygous target antigens; lack other antigens to avoid issues
  • Titer studies track IgG antibodies in pregnant patients with potential HDFN
  • Elevated titers may indicate the need for intrauterine transfusion
  • RhIg titers are rarely above 4

HTLA (High Titer, Low Avidity):

  • High-frequency antibodies with weak but persistent reactions at high dilutions (2048+)
  • Includes Anti-Ch, Anti-Rg, Anti-Csª, Anti-Ykª, Anti-Kna, Anti-McCa, and Anti-JMH
  • Usually clinically insignificant but may mask significant antibodies
  • Compatible blood: Matching blood is determined by antigen frequency in donor population and antibody's clinical impact
  • Use random, crossmatch-compatible blood for antibodies not reducing antigen-positive RBC survival (e.g., Anti-M, -N, -P1, Leª, Leb)
  • Transfuse antigen-negative units if there is a clinically significant antibody or a history of one
  • Use crossmatch at AHG phase to prove compatibility , antigen type if little sample is available
  • Formulas
    • Units to be typed = (Units requested)/(Frequency of antigen-negative individuals)
      • Units to be typed = (Units requested)/(Multiplied frequencies of negative antigens)
  • Match donor ethnicity to fit antigen frequencies in recipient's race

Resolving Difficulties in Cases With Multiple Antibodies:

  • Multiple Abs suspected when several screening/panel RBCs react with varying strengths, but auto control is negative
  • Perform selective cell panels, enzyme techniques for antibody separation, and neutralization/absorption
  • Suspect when most screening and panel cells are positive while auto control is negative
  • Use cells lacking the antibodies to resolve, confirm with reference lab, phenotype, and perform absorption studies
  • Choose autologous or family donations for transfusion

Resolving Difficulties in Cases With Low-Frequency Antibodies:

  • This type of antibody is suspected when only one cell becomes positive: crossmatch incompatible or DAT-positive in newborns with compatible maternal blood
  • Use extended panels to detect rare antibodies

Resolving Difficulties in Cases With Cold Reacting Autoantibodies:

  • Most adult samples contain low cold autoantibodies (Anti-I, -H, -IH)
  • Antibodies interfere with antibody screen, panel is positive at immediate spin, weaker at 37°C/AHG phase
  • Resolved with monospecific Anti-IgG Coomb's, pre-warming, and autoadsorption at 4°C
  • REST absorption could be used if the patient has a strong reactant or if the patient was recently transfused
    • REST adsorbed serum is not suitable for crossmatch as anti-B may be removed
  • Use DTT, 2-Mercaptoethanol to break disulfide bonds and denature IgM

Resolving Difficulties in Cases With Warm Reacting Autoantibodies:

  • Associated with chronic lymphocytic leukemia, lymphoma, systemic lupus erythematosus and other autoimmune diseases
  • Use partial elution, ZZAP, "autologous adsorption," and phenotyping for target antigen if the patient has not been recently transfused
  • Select least incompatible blood for crossmatching

For allogeneic vs homologous/differential situations:

  • If the patient has been recently transfused, choose blood lacking alloantibody antigen for transfusion

Important Points:

  • Antibody screens detect unexpected antibodies (0.2-2% of the population)
  • Antibodies are classified as immune (RBC stimulation), passive (blood products/derivatives), or naturally occurring (environmental)
  • Also classified as alloantibodies (directed to one's own antigens)
  • Significant antibody: Shortens survival of RBCs with the antigen, IgG reacts best at 37°C/AHG, and causes HTRs and HDN
  • Screening cells: Group O cell suspensions that are commercially prepared and phenotyped for common and clinically important RBC antigens
  • Homozygous: Double antigen dose (two genes for same antigen)
  • Heterozygous: Single dose of two different antigens (each gene codes for different antigens)
  • Dosage exhibited in systems such as Kidd, Duffy, Lutheran, Rh and MNSs: homozygous expression has stronger reactions Enhancement Reagents:
  • LISS and PEG solutions are added to promote binding
  • Coombs' control cells: RBCs coated with human IgG and confirms proper AHG reagent and washing
  • Gel/Solid: Gel and solid methods are alternatives to tube and can be automated Antibody Exclusion:
  • Rules out possible antibodies, based on cell reactions Conclusive Identification:
  • Antibody identified when serum reacts positively with 3+ antigen-positive cells
  • Also reacts negatively with 3+ antigen-negative cells, and the patient's RBCs phenotype negative
  • DAT: Detects cells with Abs in vivo, elution releases Abs from cells for ident.
  • Determine the number of random donor units screened for patients possessing an antibody
    • Divide the count of desired antigen-negative units for transfusion by the antigen-negative individuals' proportion
  • Antibody Titre: test serial two-fold dilutions of serum against antigen-positive RBCs: the reciprocal of the highest serum dilution showing agglutination

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