Thrombosis and Anticoagulation in Dogs and Cats

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Questions and Answers

What is the primary focus of therapeutic anticoagulation decisions?

  • Preventing future clots.
  • Addressing underlying diseases.
  • Managing co-morbidities.
  • Dissolving an existing clot. (correct)

Which of the following is a key consideration when determining the need for prophylactic anticoagulation?

  • Previous use of anticoagulants.
  • The patient's age.
  • The presence of an existing clot.
  • The risk of clot formation. (correct)

In which percentage of dogs is PTE (pulmonary thromboembolism) clinically suspected based on necropsy findings?

  • 14%
  • 50%
  • 38% (correct)
  • 44%

When might anticoagulation be considered in veterinary medicine?

<p>Both therapeutically and prophylactically. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a consideration when determining when to stop anticoagulation?

<p>The need to justify expense. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the CURATIVE guidelines, what factor is most important when considering prophylactic anticoagulation?

<p>Underlying diseases. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following diagnostic tests is LEAST helpful in assessing thrombosis risk?

<p>Fecal occult blood test. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Dogs with what condition are classified as 'maybe' for antithrombotic therapy, according to the CURATIVE guidelines?

<p>Corticosteroid use. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Given that shortened prothrombin time was measured, what can be inferred?

<p>Significantly associated with a history of thrombotic events. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is indicated by normal or low D-dimer levels?

<p>Unlikely to be experiencing a clot. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does viscoelastic testing measure?

<p>Overall function or effectiveness of the clot. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The CURATIVE guidelines for antithrombotic use in veterinary critical care emphasize:

<p>the importance of tailoring antithrombotic therapy to specific patient populations at risk. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the clinical significance of D-dimers in the context of thrombosis?

<p>They indicate thrombus formation and breakdown, but have an unclear relationship with risk of thrombosis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is considered a limitation of using PT and aPTT results to predict thromboembolic events?

<p>They are not consistently predictive of thromboembolic events. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of aminocaproic acid in treating hyperfibrinolysis?

<p>It inhibits fibrinolysis, preventing the breakdown of clots. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the information, what is a potential consideration regarding the use of rivaroxaban?

<p>It might lead to severe hepatopathy. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Compared to venous thrombosis, arterial thrombosis has which of the following characteristics?

<p>Fibrin rich. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key difference between unfractionated heparin (UFH) and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)?

<p>LMWH has a longer half-life than UFH. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does low-dose aspirin affect platelet function?

<p>Irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase, reducing thromboxane production. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a notable feature of rivaroxaban regarding the need for monitoring?

<p>It is predictable and does not typically require monitoring. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When might platelet blockers be considered an appropriate therapeutic choice?

<p>All of the above. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following scenarios necessitates a pause and dose adjustment of a drug?

<p>Drop in PCV. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are two common scenarios where antifibrinolytic drugs may be considered?

<p>Perioperatively in Greyhounds and in cases of severe trauma and bleeding. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For a dog on enoxaparin that needs surgery, approximately how far in advance should enoxaparin be discontinued?

<p>12 hrs. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For a dog on Plavix that needs surgery, approximately how far in advance should Plavix be discontinued?

<p>One week. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A veterinarian is evaluating a patient receiving unfractionated heparin. What parameter is typically monitored to assess the drug's effect?

<p>Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When using viscoelastic testing, which component measures the time until clot reaches a fixed strength?

<p>K time (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When using viscoelastic testing, an increased R time indicates what?

<p>Decreased FFP levels (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When using viscoelastic testing, Alpha angle relates to what?

<p>Speed of fibrin accumulation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When using viscoelastic testing, Maximum Amplitude (MA) typically measures what component?

<p>Platelets (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with hemorrhage with excess fibrinolysis, what treatment could be considered?

<p>Tranexemic Acid and/or Aminocaproic (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the TEG variables, what does the angle measure?

<p>Fibrin-platelet interaction (functional fibrinogen) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the upper limit of the typical value for lysis at 30 minutes (LY30)?

<p>0-8% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What coagulation index (CI) value would indicate a risk of thrombosis?

<p>G values &gt;10 dynes/sec (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a consideration for anticoagulation in cases of protein-losing nephropathy (PLN)?

<p>Increased nausea / vomiting as part of disease. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the ACVIM consensus statement guidelines for the classification, diagnosis, and management of cardiomyopathies in cats, what pharmacological treatment could be considered?

<p>Pimobendan (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A veterinary study showed longer survivability in cats that received what antithrombotic medication?

<p>Clopidogrel (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 3-year-old Chow Chow presents with acute onset hind end paresis and lack of femoral pulses, evaluated for possible T3L3 disease. Creatinine is 6.2mg/dl, BUN 88mg/dl, Albumin 1.2mg/dl, UA: proteinuria. This animal is most likely to have what?

<p>Protein-losing nephropathy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A Chow Chow comes in with Protein-losing nephropathy, and has vomiting and signs of thrombus, what anticoagulation considerations must be taken into account?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Knowing enoxaparin is $18/ml and reported doses vary in studies, for a 25kg dog, what approximate monthly cost can be expected for 25mg TID?

<p>$400 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Given the following TEG results, what value is outside normal?

R K min min Angle deg MA mm PMA G d/sc EPL % A CI LY30 % a 3.2 0.8 80.0 83.0 24.4K 3.5 6.0

4-8 1-4 47-74 55-73 6.0K-13.2K 0-15 -3-3 3.5 0-8

<p>MA mm (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A greyhound presents with bleeding, what could be considered as treatment for hyperfibrinolysis?

<p>Aminocaproic acid 50mg/kg IV transfusion (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of anticoagulation, what is the primary distinction between 'therapeutic' and 'prophylactic' approaches?

<p>Therapeutic is for active clots, while prophylactic is for prevention in high-risk situations. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of dogs with pulmonary thromboembolism (PTE) are estimated to have clinically silent conditions?

<p>41% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following clinical signs is LEAST likely to be associated with thrombosis?

<p>Gradual weight gain (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In veterinary medicine, 'CURATIVE guidelines' are specifically referenced in the context of:

<p>Prophylactic anticoagulation decisions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT explicitly mentioned as an 'added risk' for thrombosis?

<p>Hypothyroidism (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a dog diagnosed with IMHA and receiving prednisone, what is a relevant consideration regarding thrombosis?

<p>Thrombosis risk is increased due to both IMHA and prednisone use. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following laboratory tests is specifically indicated for assessing fibrinolysis?

<p>Viscoelastic testing (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the information provided, what is a significant limitation of using PT and aPTT in predicting thromboembolic events?

<p>Shortened PT and aPTT are associated with increased thrombotic risk, but these tests are not good predictors. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the clinical interpretation of a normal or low D-dimer level in a patient suspected of thrombosis?

<p>It effectively rules out the presence of a clinically significant clot. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In viscoelastic testing, what does the 'R time' specifically measure?

<p>Time to initial fibrin formation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An increased 'K time' in viscoelastic testing is most indicative of a deficiency or dysfunction in which coagulation component?

<p>Fibrinogen (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The 'Alpha angle' in viscoelastic testing is primarily related to:

<p>Speed of fibrin accumulation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does 'MA' (Maximum Amplitude) primarily reflect in viscoelastic testing?

<p>Contribution of platelets to clot strength (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to TEG variables, what does the 'Angle' specifically measure?

<p>Fibrin-platelet interaction and functional fibrinogen (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A TEG Angle of less than 45 degrees suggests a potential need for:

<p>Cryoprecipitate transfusion for fibrinogen replacement (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the clinical implication of a Coagulation Index (CI) value greater than 3, according to TEG analysis?

<p>Increased risk of thrombosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the CURATIVE guidelines, which condition is classified under the 'High risk' category for antithrombotic therapy consideration?

<p>Feline cardiomyopathy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is categorized as 'Maybe' in the CURATIVE guidelines for antithrombotic therapy consideration?

<p>Sepsis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the CURATIVE guidelines, which condition falls into the 'No' category for routine prophylactic antithrombotic therapy?

<p>Cardiac disease (dogs) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Compared to venous thrombi, arterial thrombi are typically described as:

<p>Platelet and fibrin rich (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key mechanism of action for aspirin as a platelet blocker?

<p>Irreversibly acetylating cyclooxygenase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Clopidogrel's antiplatelet effect is primarily mediated through:

<p>Irreversible binding to P2Y12 receptors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the FAT cat study, which antiplatelet drug demonstrated longer survival and longer interval to relapse of thromboembolism in cats with cardiomyopathy?

<p>Clopidogrel (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When are platelet blockers considered as prophylactic antithrombotic agents?

<p>As sole agents in low-risk patients and as combination therapy in moderate to high-risk patients. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Unfractionated heparin (UFH) exerts its anticoagulant effect primarily by:

<p>Enhancing the activity of antithrombin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key pharmacokinetic difference between unfractionated heparin (UFH) and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) like enoxaparin?

<p>LMWH has a more predictable clearance compared to UFH. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is monitoring of aPTT typically recommended when using unfractionated heparin (UFH)?

<p>Because UFH has a narrow therapeutic window and unpredictable clearance. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a notable advantage of using enoxaparin (LMWH) over unfractionated heparin (UFH)?

<p>Less need for laboratory monitoring. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Rivaroxaban, a Factor Xa inhibitor, is characterized by which of the following?

<p>Predictable pharmacokinetics and generally no routine monitoring needed. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If bleeding is noted in a dog receiving rivaroxaban chronically, what is a recommended initial management step?

<p>Pause the drug for approximately 48 hours and consider restarting at a lower dose. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For a dog on enoxaparin needing surgery, approximately how many hours prior to the procedure should enoxaparin be discontinued to minimize bleeding risk?

<p>12 hours (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For a dog on clopidogrel (Plavix) needing surgery, how far in advance should it ideally be discontinued?

<p>1 week (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a primary indication for using antifibrinolytic drugs like aminocaproic acid or tranexamic acid?

<p>Management of hyperfibrinolysis and bleeding disorders (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which specific breed is the use of antifibrinolytic drugs, such as aminocaproic acid, often considered perioperatively due to a predisposition to bleeding?

<p>Greyhounds (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of action of antifibrinolytic drugs like aminocaproic acid?

<p>They inhibit plasminogen binding to fibrin, thus reducing fibrinolysis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the ACVIM consensus statement guidelines for feline cardiomyopathies, which of the following is considered a pharmacological treatment option?

<p>Clopidogrel (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a Chow Chow presenting with acute onset hind limb paresis, proteinuria, azotemia and hypoalbuminemia, what is the most likely underlying condition associated with these findings and increased thrombosis risk?

<p>Protein-losing nephropathy (PLN) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering the cost of enoxaparin at $18/ml and a dose of 25mg TID for a 25kg dog (assuming 100mg/ml concentration), what is the approximate monthly medication cost?

<p>$270 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Given the TEG results: R 3.2 min (4-8), K 0.8 min (1-4), Angle 80 deg (47-74), MA 83 mm (55-73), which value is outside the normal reference range and indicative of hypercoagulability?

<p>Angle (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A greyhound presents with post-operative bleeding. Which antifibrinolytic drug would be most appropriate to consider for treatment of potential hyperfibrinolysis?

<p>Aminocaproic acid (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key consideration when deciding between unfractionated heparin (UFH) and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)?

<p>UFH requires monitoring due to it's unpredictable clearance. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the CURATIVE guidelines, which of the following is classified as 'High risk' for antithrombotic therapy consideration?

<p>Immune-Mediated Hemolytic Anemia (IMHA). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key factor when considering stopping anticoagulation?

<p>Resolution of the clot. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In viscoelastic testing, what does the K time measure?

<p>The time until the clot reaches a specific strength. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What could be the interpretation of thromboelastography (TEG) results that show a normal tracing in a patient with a disease typically associated with a high risk of thrombosis?

<p>The normal TEG tracing may be a negative prognostic indicator. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Given the TEG tracing with a Coagulation Index (CI) greater than 3, what is the best interpretation?

<p>There is a higher risk of thrombosis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is a citrate tube preferred over an EDTA tube for coagulation testing?

<p>The anticoagulation effect of citrate is reversible by adding calcium, whereas EDTA's is not. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In veterinary medicine, what is the MOST common use of anticoagulant drugs?

<p>To prevent clot formation in patients at risk. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key difference in how anticoagulant drugs are dosed in human versus veterinary medicine?

<p>In human medicine, doses are adjusted based on whether the use is prophylactic or therapeutic. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST important factor to consider when deciding whether to initiate prophylactic anticoagulant therapy in a patient?

<p>The patient's overall risk of developing a clot. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which imaging modality is considered the gold standard for diagnosing pulmonary thromboembolism (PTE)?

<p>CT angiography. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant challenge in diagnosing thrombosis?

<p>Clinical signs of thrombosis can mimic other common diseases, making it clinically silent. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an important consideration regarding splenic infarcts found incidentally on ultrasound?

<p>They may indicate a chronic prothrombotic state. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the curative guidelines, which disease is classified as high risk and should always be anticoagulated?

<p>Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a dog with IMHA, what concurrent condition must be ruled out before initiating anticoagulation?

<p>Evans syndrome. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the clinical utility of D-dimer testing in assessing thrombotic risk?

<p>Normal or low levels make a clot unlikely. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What two parameters are measured by Thromboelastography (TEG)?

<p>Speed and strength of clot formation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the CURATIVE guidelines, routine prophylactic antithrombotic therapy is NOT typically recommended for which of the following conditions?

<p>Cushing's disease. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When comparing arterial versus venous thrombi, which characteristic is MORE typical of arterial clots?

<p>Platelet-rich composition. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of action of aspirin as a platelet blocker?

<p>Inhibiting thromboxane production. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the FAT CAT study, which antiplatelet drug demonstrated a benefit in cats with aortic thromboembolism (ATE)?

<p>Clopidogrel (Plavix). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a major limitation of using warfarin as an anticoagulant, according to the information provided?

<p>It has a very narrow therapeutic window, making it difficult to dose correctly. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which unfractionated heparin (UFH) exerts its anticoagulant effect?

<p>Upregulating the activity of antithrombin. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key reason why monitoring is necessary when using unfractionated heparin (UFH)?

<p>Due to the variable mix of glycosaminoglycan molecule sizes in the solution. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a notable advantage of using low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) over unfractionated heparin (UFH)?

<p>LMWH has a more predictable effect and does not require monitoring. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which coagulation factor is MOST targeted by low molecular weight heparins?

<p>Factor X. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is enoxaparin typically administered twice daily in veterinary patients, despite being used once daily in human medicine?

<p>Studies in dogs have shown that the anticoagulant effect of enoxaparin diminishes significantly within 12 hours. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential limitation of relying solely on clopidogrel for anticoagulation in high-risk thrombotic conditions?

<p>Clopidogrel has a limited effect on venous thrombi. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the CURATIVE guidelines, which of the following conditions is considered to have a 'high' risk of thrombosis and warrants routine anticoagulation?

<p>Protein Losing Nephropathy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the mechanism of action differ between platelet blockers like clopidogrel and heparin-based anticoagulants?

<p>Platelet blockers prevent platelet aggregation, while heparins enhance antithrombin activity to inhibit coagulation factors. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A veterinary patient is diagnosed with necrotizing pancreatitis. According to the CURATIVE guidelines, how should this diagnosis influence the decision to initiate antithrombotic therapy?

<p>Antithrombotic therapy should automatically be initiated due to high thrombotic risk. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A dog is diagnosed with IMHA, and the veterinarian decides to start anticoagulant therapy. Which of the following drugs would be MOST appropriate to combine with heparin in this high-risk situation?

<p>Clopidogrel (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A veterinarian suspects a cat has an arterial thrombus. Which of the following anticoagulant drugs may be MOST appropriate?

<p>Aspirin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A Doberman presents with dilated cardiomyopathy, what adjunctive medication should be prescribed?

<p>Clopidogrel (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the major difference in molecular size regarding unfractionated heparin and low molecular weight heparin?

<p>The molecules in low molecular weight heparin are all uniform in size. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Once UFH is administered and a baseline PTT (partial thromboplastin time) is pulled, by how much should you prolong the PTT by subsequent measurements to reach a therapeutic level?

<p>One and a half times (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can best be done to affordably administer UFH to limit costs?

<p>Continuous infusion (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the action of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) differ from unfractionated heparin (UFH)?

<p>Low molecular weight heparin acts primarily through targeting factor 10, whereas unfractionated heparin acts through inhibiting antithrombin. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) first came out, what was the touted thought?

<p>Once a day administration with no monitoring. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can a veterinarian quantify the anticoagulant effects of low molecular weight heparin by measurements in a patient?

<p>Anti-10A assay (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

With administration of low molecular weight heparin, what is targeted anti-10A range for ideal anticoagulation?

<p>0.5-1 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A dog presents with a confirmed thrombus, but a veterinarian is unable to provide further treatment. What is a harmful action a general practitioner could do?

<p>Administer a platelet blocker only. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A dog presents with aortic thromboembolism with acute pain. How would you dose low molecular weight heparin without diagnostic support?

<p>Three times a day. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

To best explain D-dimers results as 'moderate', what clarification can best convey concerns in dogs with IMHA?

<p>More testing or monitoring should be considered to make better decisions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason a citrate tube is used for coagulation testing instead of an EDTA tube?

<p>Citrate inhibits calcium in a reversible manner, allowing for coagulation to occur when calcium is added back. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In veterinary medicine, what is the primary shift in focus regarding coagulation disorders?

<p>An increased awareness of the prevalence and management of hypercoagulable states associated with various diseases. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main conceptual difference between prophylactic and therapeutic use of anticoagulants?

<p>Prophylactic use aims to prevent clot formation in high-risk patients, whereas therapeutic use treats existing clots. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How might a veterinarian's approach to anticoagulant use differ between prophylactic and therapeutic scenarios?

<p>Dosing may be less aggressive in prophylactic scenarios compared to therapeutic ones. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the gold standard diagnostic test for identifying pulmonary thromboembolism (PTE)?

<p>CT angiography (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant challenge in diagnosing thrombosis that may obscure clinical detection?

<p>Thrombosis can be clinically silent or its signs may be masked by concurrent conditions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of an incidentally discovered splenic infarct on ultrasound?

<p>It is a red flag suggesting a prothrombotic state that warrants further investigation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When might initiating anticoagulant therapy be warranted based on clinical findings and disease context?

<p>In high-risk conditions such as IMHA, even before evidence of a clot. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to rule out Evans syndrome before anticoagulating a dog diagnosed with IMHA?

<p>Evans syndrome causes thrombocytopenia, increasing the risk of bleeding with anticoagulation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the utility of D-dimer testing in assessing thrombotic risk?

<p>Normal or low levels rule out thrombosis, while very high levels suggest it, but moderate levels are not useful. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of the cell-based model of coagulation, what initiates the coagulation cascade?

<p>Exposure of tissue factor on cell surfaces (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes arterial thrombi from venous thrombi in terms of composition and the implications for anticoagulant therapy?

<p>Arterial thrombi are platelet-rich, often requiring platelet blockers, whereas venous thrombi are platelet-poor. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of action of clopidogrel (Plavix) as a platelet blocker?

<p>Binding to the P2Y12 receptor and blocking ADP (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the FAT CAT study, what advantage does clopidogrel have over aspirin in treating cats with aortic thromboembolism (ATE)?

<p>Clopidogrel leads to longer survival and a longer time to recurrence of ATE. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What prompted the change from aspirin to clopidogrel as the preferred antiplatelet drug in cats?

<p>Clopidogrel became cheaper, and the FAT CAT study showed that it was more effective. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key limitation of using platelet blockers alone in high-risk thrombotic conditions such as IMHA?

<p>They may not be potent enough to prevent thrombosis as a sole agent. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does unfractionated heparin (UFH) exert its anticoagulant effect?

<p>Upregulating the activity of antithrombin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is monitoring of PTT (partial thromboplastin time) typically recommended when using unfractionated heparin (UFH)?

<p>To adjust the dose to prolong the PTT by 1.5 times the baseline value due to unpredictable clearance (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What coagulation factor is primarily targeted by low molecular weight heparins (LMWH)?

<p>Factor Xa (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is enoxaparin (a low molecular weight heparin) typically administered twice daily in veterinary patients, despite being used once daily in human medicine?

<p>Studies showed that once-daily dosing resulted in inadequate anticoagulation by 12 hours in dogs. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What range should the anti-Xa level be for ideal anticoagulation when using low molecular weight heparin?

<p>0.5-1.0 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following diseases typically requires anticoagulation?

<p>Necrotizing Pancreatitis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the curative guidelines, which disease does not typically require routine anticoagulation?

<p>Heart Disease in Dogs (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If your patient has multiple risk factors such as a diabetic dog with pancreatitis, what would this require?

<p>May need anticoagulation, making their risk a little bit higher (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary advantage of using low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) such as enoxaparin over unfractionated heparin (UFH) in the outpatient setting?

<p>Predictable pharmacokinetics (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the difference in the mechanism of action between unfractionated heparin and low molecular weight heparin?

<p>Unfractionated heparin works mostly through anti-thrombin, while low molecular weight heparin works more through factor X. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A general practitioner calls you up after a dog suffers from an aortic thromboembolism, and there is nothing that they can do . What is the most egregious thing that they can do?

<p>Send them home with instructions (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a practical consideration for administering unfractionated heparin (UFH) affordably?

<p>Using it in an in-hospital setting (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is financial, and you are going to treat a dog with acute pain aortic thromboembolism without diagnostic support. What is a starting dose for low molecular weight heparin for this patient?

<p>Dose higher to make sure that a difference is made (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the curative guidelines, which are classified as 'maybe' for anticoagulation?

<p>Sepsis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When might platelet blockers be considered more appropriate?

<p>Arterial thrombi (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When evaluating a dog with IMHA for the need for antithrombotic therapy, why is the platelet count such an important consideration?

<p>Severe thrombocytopenia carries a risk of spontaneous bleeding (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After a patient has moderate levels of D-dimers after a confirmed diagnosis of IMHA, what could best clarify next steps?

<p>D-dimers and clinically signs are suggestive; be more vigilant for additional signs. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following findings indicates the strongest need to anticoagulate as part of the treatment plan?

<p>A dog with necrotizing pancreatitis. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Platelet blockers are convenient and relatively inexpensive, making them appealing for widespread use. However, in which situation would platelet blockers be considered insufficient as a sole agent?

<p>High risk or after a known clot has been identified (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should the cost of anticoagulant drugs influence treatment choices?

<p>The benefits and justification of cost should be considered (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason a citrated (blue top) tube is used for coagulation testing instead of an EDTA (purple top) tube?

<p>Citrate inhibits calcium reversibly, allowing coagulation to be initiated for testing. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why has the focus in veterinary medicine shifted from primarily addressing bleeding disorders to also including thrombosis management?

<p>Advancements in understanding hemostasis have revealed the prevalence of thrombotic disorders. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary conceptual difference between prophylactic and therapeutic use of anticoagulant drugs?

<p>Prophylactic use prevents clot formation in at-risk patients, while therapeutic use treats existing clots. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of anticoagulant use, how might a veterinarian's approach differ between prophylactic and therapeutic scenarios?

<p>There is more flexibility in drug choice and dosing in prophylactic scenarios compared to therapeutic ones. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the cell-based model of coagulation, what initiates the coagulation cascade?

<p>Exposure of tissue factor. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A dog with IMHA is started on heparin, then later dies despite treatment. Which of the following statements is most accurate about whether the antithrombotic treatment was effective?

<p>It lowers the risk of clotting but does not eliminate it, so it's impossible to state whether the heparin was effective or not. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Thrombosis & anticoagulation

Growing recognition and management strategies for hemostatic disorders.

Anticoagulation decisions

The decision-making process involved in preventing or treating blood clots.

Therapeutic Anticoagulation

Anticoagulation therapy with the goal of treating an existing clot.

Prophylactic Anticoagulation

Measures taken to prevent clots in high-risk patients.

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Clinical awareness of thrombosis

Clinical awareness can be challenging because it is silent and has multiple causes of clinical signs.

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PTE in dogs

Pulmonary thromboembolism may be suspected in 38% of dogs.

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Clopidogrel

Hepatic transformation to active metabolite.

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PT/aPTT

PT and aPTT results are not reliable predictors of thromboembolic events in dogs.

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D-dimers

D-Dimers are an indication of thrombus formation and breakdown.

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Viscoelastic testing

Viscoelastic testing helps determine blood clot formation and stability.

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K time

A TEG variable indicating rate of bonding between fibrin and platelets.

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Angle

A TEG variable indicating Fibrin-platelet interaction (functional fibrinogen).

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MA

A TEG variable where one unit of platelets will increase MA by 9mm.

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Prophylaxis

Underlying disease that requires managing with CURATIVE guidelines.

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CURATIVE guidelines

These guidelines assist in managing clotting disorders.

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High Thrombosis Risk

IMHA, necrotizing pancreatitis, feline cardiomyopathy, heartworm disease, PLN, and PLE have a propensity to develop thrombosis.

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Maybe Thrombosis Risk

Corticosteroid use, cancer, sepsis, heartworm disease, and hepatic disease have a POTENTIAL to develop thrombosis.

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No Thrombosis Risk

Hyperadrenocorticism, cerebrovascular disease, heart disease, IMHA, PLN, PLE, corticosteroid use, and PSS do not require coagulation to be managed.

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Anticoagulation options?

Platelet blockers and heparins

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Arterial Thrombosis

Arterial thrombi form in areas of rapid flow and are platelet and fibrin rich.

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Venous Thrombosis

Venous thrombi form in areas of slow flow and are platelet poor and RBC rich.

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Platelet Blockers

Aspirin and clopidogrel

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Heparins

Heparins are anticoagulants that can be unfractionated or low molecular weight (LMWH).

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Unfractionated Heparin

Wide dose range, unpredictable clearance, and requires monitoring with aPTT.

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Anti Xa Monitoring

Inversely proportional to heparin concentration, chromogenic assay and take 2-3 hours after dose.

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Factor Xa inhibitors

Block both free and bound Factor Xa and reduces thrombin generation.

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Drug interruption for surgery

With Plavix gone in 1 week, enoxaparin gone in 12 hours, and rivaroxaban gone in 24 hours.

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Hyperfibrinolysis

Greyhounds, trauma and bleeding dogs, and liver disease increase its likelihood.

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Antifibrinolytic drugs

Includes aminocaproic acid and tranexamic acid

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Antifibrinolytic drugs use

Trauma should be assessed, and viscoelastic testing is important to determine the level of blood loss.

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Anticoagulation drugs

Drugs that prevent or reduce blood clot formation.

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Prophylactic use

Primarily used to prevent clot formation in patients at risk.

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Therapeutic use

Used to treat existing blood clots.

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Diagnosing Thrombi

Imaging techniques like ultrasound to see thrombi

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Gold standard test for PTE

CT angiography, an imaging method useful for identifying pulmonary thromboembolism

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IMHA & Platelets

Dog presents with IMHA, rule out Evans Syndrome before anticoagulation.

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Thromboelastography (TEG)

The speed and strength of clot formation, performed via whole blood assay.

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High-risk diseases

Diseases where anticoagulation is necessary due to high risk of clotting.

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Comorbidities & Thrombosis

Underlying condition that may increase clotting risk, but requires additional risk factors.

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Anticoagulation caveats

They lower the risk, but don't eliminate it.

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Arterial clot

Platelet rich, atherosclerosis

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Venous clot

Red blood cell rich, located in the vein

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Aspirin

Inhibits thromboxane

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Clopidogrel (Plavix)

Binds to the P2Y12 receptor, powerful Platelet agonist

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Fat Cat study

ADP blocker is better than aspirin for cats

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Heparins action

Block factors 9, 10, 11, 12

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Antithrombin

Enhances thrombin activity

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Unfractionated heparin (UFH)

Short acting and must monitor with PTT

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Low molecular weight heparin

Longer half-life can be administered once or twice a day

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Study Notes

  • Coagulation drugs are indicated for thrombosis and anticoagulation
  • There is a growing recognition of homeostasis disorders
  • Anticoagulation decisions vary, and depend on if the clot exists and treatment is "therapeutic" or if there is a high risk of a clot and treament is "prophylactic"

Clinical Awareness Of Thrombosis

  • It can be clinically silent
  • PTE occurs in 41% of dogs and 44% of cats
  • Multiple factors can cause clinical signs
  • Necropsy findings include that PTE was clinically suspected in 38% of dogs and 14% of cats
  • Acute vs chronic thrombosis can be determined with ultrasound

Thrombosis

  • Thrombosis can be acute vs. chronic, severe, an incidental finding on imaging, vague or follow illogical clinical course
  • Expectations for treatment includes short vs long-term anticoagulation and clot resolution
  • Thrombosis identification is aided by ultrasound to visualize clots in vessels and assess blood flow
  • CT angio is the gold standard for detecting PTE, revealing filling defects in pulmonary vessels

Anticoagulation

  • Considerations include when to start, what drug to use, is it working, when to stop and is it justified
  • Prophylactic use of anticoagulants aims to prevent clot formation in at-risk patients
  • Therapeutic use is implemented when a clot is already present, requiring a more aggressive approach
  • Anticoagulant decisions are influenced by risk assessment: the higher the risk, the greater the justification for anticoagulant use

Prophylaxis

  • CURATIVE guidelines are used and potential co-morbidities
  • Assess the how high the risk is along with support tests like PT/aPTT, D-dimers and Viscoelastic tests

Added Risks Of Thrombosis

  • IV catheters, especially central lines
  • Immobility, prednisone use and chronic inflammation
  • Co-morbidity, cushings, neoplasia, diffuse derm issues, diabetes and/or heart disease

Case 1: Maggie

  • Maggie is a 7 year old spayed female standard poodle
  • She has anemia, normal TP and speherocytosis
  • Auto-agglutination noted on slide and CBC
  • She was diganosed with IMHA
  • Treated with prednisone, IV fluids, transfusions as needed
  • Thromboprophylaxis was considered

Hypercoagulable State

  • Rule out other possible causes based on veterinary literature and lab testing
  • Perform plasma based tests like PT/aPTT
  • Check for mild thromboycytopenia, elevated/low fibrinogen and D-dimers
  • Perform Viscoelastic tests

D-dimers

  • D-dimers indicate thrombus formation and breakdown
  • Low or normalized levels mean a clot is unlikely
  • Very high levels can mean a clot is concerning
  • Moderate elevations have an unclear relationship to risk of thrombosis

Viscoelastic Testing

  • Can use Thromboelastometry (ROTEM) or Thromboelastography (TEG)

Viscoelastic Testing Interpretation

  • R Time is the time to start forming clot (5-10 minutes is normal)
  • K Time is the time until clot reaches a fixed strength (1-3 minutes is normal)
  • Alpha angle a measure of the speed of fibrin accumulation (53-72 degrees is normal)
  • Maximum Amplitude (MA) is the highest vertical amplitude of the TEG (50-70mm is normal)
  • Lysis at 30 minutes (LY30) is a measure of the percentage of amplitude reduction 30 minutes after amplitude (0-8% is normal)

TEG variables

  • K time is the rate of bonding between fibrin and platelets
  • Angle indicates fibrin-platelet interactions
  • An angle of less that 45° indicates a need for a fibrinogen replacement
  • One unit of plateds will increase MA by 9mm
  • G value is an overall function of clot effectiveness based on G=5000 x MA/(100-MA)
  • Hemorrhage risk indicated if G level is < 5 dynes/sec
  • Thrombosis risk indicated if G values > 10 dynes/sec
  • Coagulation index is an overall assessment of coagulability

Anticoagulation Indication

  • Use CURATIVE guidelines to deterimine the level of risk

CURATIVE Guidelines

  • High risk conditions include IMHA, necrotizing pancreatitis, feline cardiomyopathy, heartworm disease, PLN and PLE
  • Maybe risk conditions include corticosteroid use, cancer, sepsis, heartworm disease in cats and hepatic disease
  • Not indicated risks include hyperadrenocorticism, cerebrovascular disease, cariac disease in dogs, IMHA in cats, PLN and PLE in cats, corticosteroid use in cats and PSS in both cats and dogs
  • Unless multiple risk factors are present

Risk Benefits Analysis

  • Consider the risk vs benefit of the anticoagulation drugs being prescribed
  • Assessing the risk-benefit involves determining if the benefit of the drug is worth the cost and potential side effects

Anticoagulation Options

  • The options include platelet blockers, heparins and factor Xa inhibitors
  • Warfarin is not recommended due to its narrow therapeutic window and high risk of overdose
  • Platelet blockers, heparins, and factor Xa inhibitors are the three main classes of anticoagulation options

Arterial Vs Venous Thrombosis

  • Arterial thrombosis is platelet and fibrin rich
  • Venous thrombosis is platelet poor with RBC aggregates

Platelet Blockers

  • Aspirin vs clopidogrel are the two choices. Both are oral and inexpensive
  • The question remains if it really matters which one is used
  • Platelet blockers are effective for arterial clots due to their platelet-rich composition
  • COVID-19 studies suggest platelet blockers benefit patients only if administered prior to contracting the virus

Aspirin

  • Aspirin causes irreversible acetylation of cyclooxygenase
  • It inhibits thromoxane and decreases platelet activation at low doses
  • Reduces death in people by 15% along with non-fatal vascular related events by 30%
  • The low dose should be 0.5-2mg/kg q24 hr or 5mg/cat q72 hrs
  • It is widely used as the only oral and cheapest option
  • Low doses minimize GI ulceration risk while maintaining anti-platelet effects

Clopidogrel

  • Clopidogrel is an oral medication
  • Liver transforms clopidogrel to an active metabolite
  • Irreversibly binds to P2Y12 receptor
  • Decreases platelet activation and aggregation
  • Can be used in combination with aspirin or other anticoagulants
  • A reasonable target is 18.75mg (1/4 tab)/cat/day or 1mg/kg/day in dogs
  • Plavix targets the ADP receptor and is an ADP blocker, reducing platelet activity

FAT Cat Study

  • 76 cats with CM
  • Past history of ATE, survived 1-3 mos
  • Randomized: aspirin or clopidogrel
  • Followed over 12 months
  • Endpoint: recurrent thromboembolism, survival
  • Cats receiving clopidogrel had a longer interval to relapse of thromboembolism, longer survival with clopidogrel
  • Clopidogrel provides longer survival and reduces the time to recurrence of ATE in cats

Platelet Blockers

  • Platelet blockers are convenient and inexpensive
  • As a prophylactic, they are a single agent only for low agents
  • Combination therapy is used for moderate to high risk diseases
  • As a therapeutic, it is combination therapy only
  • As a sole agent, platelet blockers are suitable for low-risk cases or early-stage diseases
  • They are often combined with heparin for moderate to high-risk diseases, particularly IMHA
  • As a therapeutic, platelet blockers are always used in combination with other anticoagulants

COVID-19 Study

  • Studies suggest that benefits from platelet blockers only appear to affect patients prior to getting COVID
  • Otherwise, there is no impact on hospitalization days, survival effects etc...

Heparins

  • Include unfractionated vs. low molecular weight (LMWH)
  • Unfractionated heparin include Thrombin Antithrombin Complex Thrombin IX, X, XI, XII Platelet activation V, VIII activation Thrombin
  • Heparins target thrombin through antithrombin and inhibit factors 9, 10, 11, and 12
  • They also affect platelet activation and the activation of factors 5 and 8

Unfractionated Heparin

  • Unfractionated heparin is a mix of variably sized glycosaminoglycan molecules
  • It increases the inhibitory effect of endogenous antithrombin
  • Minimal length required to bind the complex made of both antithrombinand thrombin (18 monosaccharide units)
  • Not all molecules are the required length
  • It inhibits coagulation factors, thrombin induced platelet activation and prevents factors V and VIII upregulation
  • Unfractionated heparin upregulates antithrombin activity, blocking thrombin and potently affecting coagulation

Unfractionated Heparin Considerations

  • Unpredictable clearance, requiring monitoring of aPTT
  • aPTT is heavily influenced by thrombin
  • Administer 3-4x/day or as CRI given 75-250 units SQ T-QID or 20 units/kg/hr as infusion (50u/kg loading dose IV)
  • There is a wide dose range based on low vs. high risk of thrombosis
  • Less expensive, but more costly to monitor
  • Requires PTT monitoring every day
  • UFH is suitable temporarily for in-hospital use

Unfractionated Heparin Practicality

  • A 25kg dog would need 3,750 – 6,250 units T-QID or 3.75-6.2 ml
  • Volume, disposables and frequency are a consideration
  • A low cost temporary in-hospital option is needed

Heparin - Low Molecular Weight

  • Low molecular weight heparin includes Depolymerizaiton of Unfractionated heparin which is 1/3 the molecular weight
  • A different mechanism of action is used with little antithrombin effect
  • The goal is to mainly Xa inhibition with less effect on aPTT
  • Results in an overall longer half life with renal clearance, and greater bioavailability through subcutaneous injections
  • LMWH is more predictable due to its uniform molecule size and targets factor X more than antithrombin

Enoxaparin

  • Initially was marketed as SID drug
  • Was originally given as SID, now given TID
  • 1.3mg/kg TID gives anti Xa levels that are consistently above the minimum threshold of the target range
  • Reported doses vary
  • Most reports in healthy dogs
  • Bleeding complications uncommon
  • Mostly mild
  • Cumulative effects must be monitored
  • Peak concentration is achieved around hours 3 and 4, but drops to near zero by hour 12, necessitating twice-daily dosing

Enoxaparin Pros and Cons

  • The LMWH of choice costs $18/ml
  • A 25kg dog, 25mg TID would be 0.25ml = $4.50/dose or $400/month
  • A 25kg dog, 25mg BID would be $9/day = $270/month

Anti Xa Monitoring

  • Anti Xa measures are inversely proportional to heparin concentration
  • Use a chromogenic assay for measuring Xa with timings of 2-3 hours after the medication dose
  • Uncommonly used in cases of renal disease, long term heparin use, high risk of bleeding or if very Obese/low body weight
  • Low molecular weight heparin’s anticoagulant effect is measured through the anti-10A assay, targeting a range between 0.5 and 1

Factor Xa Inhibitors

  • Oral medication
  • Reduces both free and clot bound Xa
  • Clot bound Xa is enzymatically active, making the drugs very potent anticoagulants
  • Reduces thrombin generation
  • Effective against both venous and arterial thrombosis
  • Rapidly absorbed with a short half life
  • Markers of thrombin generation are inhibited up to 24 hours
  • Predictable and no need for monitoring

Factor Xa Inhibitors Considerations

  • They are “non inferior” to warfarin
  • They are not reversible
  • Safe and well tolerated in dogs and cats
  • Considered a "game changer" due to cost

Rivaroxaban Guidelines

  • Based on preliminary data indicates that that drug apears safe and well tolerated in dogs
  • The suggested dosage for dogs is 1-2 mg/kg/day
  • In cats, the dosage is .5-1mg/kg/day

Monitoring of Factor Xa Inhibitors

  • It is unclear if monitoring is needed or not
  • Anti Xa levels are available through Cornell
  • If they are to be measured the sample should be taken at its peak with 2-4 hours after administration
  • If you can see the clot on ultrasound serial checks should be done to see if it changes in size

Side Effects

  • Case reports are demonstrating severe hepatopathy following rivaroxaban administration in canines

Noting Bleeding From Factor Xa Inhibitors

  • Bleeding can be noted from chronic use and from a drop in PCV
  • Pause the drug for 48 hours and then restart at a lower dose

Clinical Experience Summary

  • Plavix is used for mild concerns
  • LMWH in hospital as CRI sometimes
  • Enoxaparin 1mg/kg SQ BID
  • Rivaroxaban is also used for long term anticoagulation
  • Use serial monitoring and imaging and be on the look out for signs of a clot

Rebound Hypercoagulability

  • Use a platelet blocker with and anticoagulant along with a taper
  • Combination therapy may negate need for taper
  • Platelet blocker is given alone

Hyperfibrinolysis

  • Can occur in Greyhounds, patients with trauma, bleeding dogs and dogs with liver disease
  • Treat with Aminocaproic acid 50mg/kg IV

Antifibrinolytic Drugs

  • Tranexamic acid and Aminocaproic acid are the antifibrinolytic drugs
  • They are Lysine analogs with binds plasminogen which the inhibits the ability for it to in turn binds to fibrin
  • Makes fibrin breakdown much less efficent and impairs fibrinolysis

Antifibrinolytic Drug Indications

  • Perioperatively in Greyhounds
  • Severe trauma and bleeding
  • Empiric therapy is common with low risk

Things To Ponder About Coagulation Drugs

  • What drives choices for anticoagulants inuding oral/injectable status, cost, dosing interveral and generic options
  • Is the goal to fully anticoagulate at all times?
  • Are there differences between arterial vs venous clots? Should they be treated differently?
  • How does combination therapy affect drug dosing?
  • Should there be a differntiation between prophylactic vs therapeutic dosing?
  • DIC is a hemostatic disorder where there is a fear of bleeding
  • EDTA tubes are not to be used for coagulation due to the inability to reverse the inhibition of calcium

Case Study 1: Maggie

  • Maggie (30kg)

  • Plan: Baseline PT, aPTT, check platelets Enoxaparin 1mg/kg q8hr SQ Clopidogrel 75mg PO q24 -or- Unfractionated heparin CRI Clopidogrel 75mg PO q24 -or- Rivaroxaban & Clopidogrel ok Discharge plan? Factors influencing decision

    • Disease with high risk of thrombosis Platelet blocker alone no ok
    • Short-term anticoagulation Could likely handle injectable
    • Big dog Rivaroxaban will be expensive
    • Comfortable with IMHA protocol in our hospital
  • Discharge Plan

    • Enoxaparin + clopidogrel in hospital
    • No monitoring
    • Home on Enoxaparin + clopidogrel
    • 2 weeks later drop enoxaparin
    • Continue clopidogrel until off prednisone

Case Study 2: Bear

  • Bear (3yr old MN Chow Chow)

  • Acute onset hind end paresis and evaluated for possible T3L3 disease, including the lack of femoral pulses

  • Creatinine 6.2mg/dl, BUN 88mg/dl, Albumin 1.2mg/dl

    • UA: proteinuria, quiet sediment -likely diagnosis?
  • Protein-losing nephropathy -Varied presentations to ER: - Vomiting - Azotemia - Signs of thrombus

    • ATE common Typically very hypertensive Plan? Confirmation of thromboembolism?
  • Protein-losing nephropathy guidelines

    • Clinical impression: TE as complication
    • Veterinary literature: TE as complication
    • Risk factors: hypertension?
      • TEG?

Protein losing nephropathy plans - Protein-losing nephropathy (PLN) is associated with the development of thrombosis in dogs. - Anticoagulation plan? - We recommend antithrombotic therapy for dogs with PLN. - Anticoagulation considerations in PLN -loss of antithrombin - contribution to effect of heparin -Nausea / vomiting as part of disease? -Serial assessment of thrombus?

Case Study 3: Sally

  • 8-year old SF DSH Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy Congestive heart failureSupercat study -FAT cat study =76 cats with cardiomyopathy history -Past history of ATE -survived +Randomized Aspirin vs Clopidogrel -Folled 12 months until reoccurred -What were the endpoints? Reoccurance, death -Cats Reviving Clopidogrel -Longer Reoccurrence period with TE

  • ACVIM guidelines in 2020- Treatment was: Furoximide, Pimumbenden, O2, Clopidogrel A-cute decompensated HF,

  • Use Heparin or Rivaroxaban

  • Other Considerations: Dog enoxaparin or plavix needs surgery, dog on rivastigmine needs surgery Drug Interruption time: Enoxaparin - gone in 12 hours Rivaroxaban - gone in 24 hours Plavix - gone in 1 week, (they dont tend to bleed significantly)

What do do wih moderate TEG changes?

  • TEG Normal tracing in known disease to be associated with severe risk MA: platelets & FibrinogonAnticoaogulation
  • Overall Statement:* Coaogulation should be approached caaotioiusly but nut needlessly as mointin clinical experience denmonstrates that afppropraote anaticoagulation Contact Infromaiton Email Addess

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