FARM: Reproduction: Diseases of adult sheep

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112 Questions

Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of thin ewes?

High milk production

What is the main concern associated with thin ewes?

Economic losses

Which of the following diseases is NOT considered a chronic disease associated with thin ewes?

Johne’s

What is the purpose of ultrasound examination in thin ewes?

Evaluate lung health

Which diagnostic sample is NOT recommended for investigating thin sheep problem?

Urine

What is the purpose of annual post-mortem examination in thin ewes?

To identify chronic diseases

Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of poor nutrition in thin ewes?

High milk production

What is the main concern associated with respiratory diseases in thin ewes?

Poor lamb growth

Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of lameness in thin ewes?

Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis

What is the primary purpose of investigating thin sheep problem through clinical examination?

Assess body condition score

Which type of teeth are checked for uneven wear and sharp edges in dental disease?

Molars

What is the purpose of external palpation in dental disease examination?

To check for lymph nodes

Which of the following is NOT a cause of dental disease in sheep?

Sedation or GA

What is the term used for the problem of molar teeth quidding in dental disease?

Quidding

Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of uneven wear in dental disease?

Cull

Which of the following is a common clinical sign of pharyngeal trauma in sheep?

Halitosis

What is the prognosis for pharyngeal trauma in sheep?

Poor

Which disease is a common and important cause of weight loss, ewe mortality, and poor performance in sheep?

Johne's Disease

Which of the following is the primary route of transmission for Johne's Disease?

Faecal oral route

At what age is the key risk period for Johne's Disease infection?

First 3-4 months of life

Which of the following is a typical clinical sign of Johne's Disease in animals?

Diarrhea

What is the main pathological effect of Johne's Disease on the intestines?

Thickening of intestines

Which of the following is true about the diagnosis of Johne's Disease?

Many animals can be subclinically affected

Which of the following is NOT a common clinical sign of Johne's Disease in sheep?

High parasite burdens

What is the typical age of animals when clinical signs of Johne's Disease become evident?

3-4 years old

Which diagnostic test is the best option to confirm clinical cases of Johne's Disease in live animals?

PCR test on faeces

Which test is useful for monitoring Johne's Disease in fallen stock and cull animals?

Post mortem with histology

Which age group of ewes should be selected for Johne's Disease flock tests?

Ewes older than 3 years

Which diagnostic test can be done pooled for sample sizes, as discussed with the laboratory, for Johne's Disease flock tests?

PCR faecal antigen

Which vaccination reduces the clinical cases and excretion of bacteria of Johne's Disease?

Gudair

At what age should all lambs be vaccinated for Johne's Disease?

4 and 16 weeks old

What is the recommended management practice to control Johne's Disease in sheep?

Keeping older and thinner ewes with younger breeding ewes

What is the main purpose of hygiene practices at lambing time in relation to Johne's Disease?

Preventing transmission of Johne's Disease

What is the main purpose of the SRUC Johne’s Disease Risk Level Accreditation Programme?

To reduce the risk of Johne's Disease

What is the main benefit of the Johne’s Disease Reduction Programme?

Reducing the risk of Johne's Disease

Which of the following is a potential cause of bloat in adult sheep?

Grain acidosis

Which of the following is a potential cause of frothy bloat in adult sheep?

Redgut

Which of the following is a potential cause of peritonitis in adult sheep?

Intestinal adenocarcimoma

Which of the following is a potential cause of sudden death in adult sheep?

Redgut

What is the primary cause of frothy bloat in adult sheep?

Legumes

Which of the following diseases is NOT commonly seen in adult sheep?

Intestinal adenocarcinoma

Which of the following is a potential consequence of liver fluke infection in sheep?

Decreased production

What is the primary factor contributing to the spread of liver fluke?

Rainfall

During which season do sheep experience acute fasciolosis due to liver fluke infection?

Autumn

What is the potential consequence of climate change on the timing of liver fluke disease?

Less predictable timing

What is the minimum temperature required for miracidia to develop in liver fluke eggs?

Between 1°C and 10°C

Which of the following is NOT a potential consequence of liver fluke infection in sheep?

Enhanced fertility

When does most development of liver fluke take place in the UK?

Summer and autumn

What is the primary reason why sheep don't develop immunity to liver fluke?

Lack of exposure

What is the potential consequence of liver fluke infection in sheep during winter and spring?

Chronic fasciolosis

Which season is associated with the occurrence of acute fluke disease?

Autumn

What is the primary cause of severe hemorrhage in acute fluke disease?

Migration of immature stages through the liver

Which clinical sign is commonly observed in chronic fluke disease?

Enlarged liver

When is chronic fluke disease commonly observed in the UK?

Autumn

What is the primary consequence of chronic fluke disease in animals?

Hepatic fibrosis and cholongitis

Which diagnostic method is useful for monitoring the effectiveness of fluke control plans?

Fecal examination

Which test is recommended for monitoring naïve animals during their first grazing season?

Serum ELISA antibody test for fluke

When is the best time to sample lambs per management group for the serum ELISA antibody test for fluke?

Every 2-4 weeks

Which diagnostic test can detect fluke at a similar time to faecal fluke egg counts?

Coproantigen ELISA test for fluke

Which diagnostic test can be used to help with timing autumn treatments for fluke?

Faecal fluke egg counts

Which test can be used to detect fluke with false negatives in early infections and acute disease?

Faecal fluke egg counts

Which of the following is NOT a method for controlling Fluke?

Timed, targeted, drug treatments

What is the primary cause of resistance to Tricalbendazole (TCBZ)?

Overuse of TCBZ

What is the consequence of treating Fluke without persistent activity?

Immediate re-infection

What is the main purpose of monitoring in the control of Fluke?

To tailor control strategies

What is the main purpose of biosecurity in Fluke control?

To avoid purchasing animals

What is the recommended treatment upon arrival of purchased animals?

Accurately dosing Closantel

Which test is recommended for monitoring the effectiveness of Fluke control plans?

Composite Faecal Egg Count Reduction Test

What is the primary purpose of rotational use of drugs in Fluke control?

To prevent drug resistance

When is it recommended to use triclabendazole in Fluke control?

Autumn

What is the main purpose of quarantine drenching in Fluke control?

To treat immature stages of the parasite

Which drug is becoming an increasing problem due to resistance in Fluke control?

Triclabendazole

Which drug is recommended for treating immature stages of Fluke in late spring?

Albendazole

When should additional doses of TCBZ be administered in high-risk years and high-risk farms?

November

What is the recommended timing for dosing against adults in winter in Fluke control?

Winter

What is the main purpose of using forecast, monitoring, and farm risk in Fluke control?

To guide timing and frequency of drug treatments

Which virus is responsible for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA)?

Jaagsiekte Sheep Retrovirus (JRSV)

How is the Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA) virus spread?

Through lung fluids and aerosol

Which body fluid can transmit the Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA) virus?

Milk

What is the incubation period for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA) in sheep?

2-4 years

Which clinical sign is NOT commonly observed in Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA)?

Exercise intolerance

What is the diagnostic test for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA) that involves "tip sheep up" to check for fluid accumulation in the lungs?

Wheelbarrow test

Is there a treatment available for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA)?

No

Which of the following is a control measure for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA)?

Testing and culling affected farms

What is the primary route of transmission for Maedi Visna?

Respiratory route

What is the worldwide distribution of Maedi Visna?

Global

Which diagnostic test is currently being assessed as a flock screening tool for Maedi Visna?

Ultrasound

What is the primary form of Maedi Visna that affects sheep?

Chronic respiratory disease and chronic mastitis

What is the primary route of transmission for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA)?

Respiratory route

What is the primary control measure for Maedi Visna?

Testing and culling affected animals

Which disease is also caused by a lentivirus and is related to Maedi Visna?

Caprine arthritis encephalitis

What is the primary form of Maedi Visna that affects sheep neurologically?

Visna

Which of the following is a clinical sign of Maedi Visna in sheep?

Head tremor

What is the primary form of Maedi Visna that affects sheep?

Neurological form

How is Maedi Visna primarily diagnosed in sheep?

Pathology examination

What is the primary route of transmission for Maedi Visna?

Respiratory

What is the primary control method for Maedi Visna in sheep?

Test and cull

Why is it difficult to develop a vaccine for Maedi Visna?

The virus is latent in the genome

What is the primary diagnostic test for Mannhaemia haemolytica in sheep?

Serology testing

What is the primary control method for Maedi Visna in sheep if flocks are kept permanently at grass?

Conservative approach

Which of the following is a clinical sign commonly associated with Chronic Suppurative Pneumonia in sheep?

Fever

What is the primary method of diagnosis for Chronic Suppurative Pneumonia in sheep?

Necropsy

What is the recommended treatment for Chronic Suppurative Pneumonia in sheep?

Culling

Which disease is characterized by loud inspiratory dyspnea in sheep?

Laryngeal Chondritis

What is the treatment for Laryngeal Chondritis in sheep?

Corticosteroids and broad spectrum long acting antibiotics

Which bacteria is associated with Ovine Infectious Keratoconjunctivitis (Pink Eye) in sheep?

Mycoplasma conjunctivae

What can cause outbreaks of Ovine Infectious Keratoconjunctivitis (Pink Eye) in a flock of sheep?

Mixing of sheep, tupping time or feeding

What is the primary cause of resistance to Tricalbendazole (TCBZ) in sheep?

Overuse and misuse of anthelmintics

What is the primary concern associated with thin ewes in sheep farming?

Poor reproductive performance

Which of the following symptoms is associated with Anterior Uveitis or Silage eye?

Blephorospasm

What is the recommended treatment for Anterior Uveitis or Silage eye?

Sub-conjunctival oxytet and dexamethasone (1mg)

What is the suggested action to prevent Anterior Uveitis or Silage eye?

Remove the source of Listeriamonocytogenes

Study Notes

Thin Ewes

  • Thin ewes are a concern due to potential diseases, poor nutrition, and lameness
  • Main concern with respiratory diseases in thin ewes is pneumonia
  • Main concern with lameness in thin ewes is foot diseases

Dental Disease

  • Dental disease is a potential cause of thin ewes
  • Molar teeth are checked for uneven wear and sharp edges in dental disease
  • External palpation is used in dental disease examination to check for uneven wear and sharp edges
  • Quidding is a term used for the problem of molar teeth quidding in dental disease
  • Pharyngeal trauma is a potential consequence of dental disease

Johne's Disease

  • Johne's Disease is a common and important cause of weight loss, ewe mortality, and poor performance in sheep
  • Primary route of transmission for Johne's Disease is the faecal-oral route
  • Key risk period for Johne's Disease infection is in lambs
  • Typical clinical sign of Johne's Disease in animals is weight loss despite a good appetite
  • Main pathological effect of Johne's Disease on the intestines is villous atrophy
  • Diagnosis of Johne's Disease can be done using faecal culture, tissue biopsy, or serology
  • Typical age of animals when clinical signs of Johne's Disease become evident is 2-5 years
  • AGID (Agar Gel Immunodiffusion) test is the best option to confirm clinical cases of Johne's Disease in live animals
  • ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay) test is useful for monitoring Johne's Disease in fallen stock and cull animals
  • Ewes between 2-5 years old should be selected for Johne's Disease flock tests
  • Pool testing can be done for Johne's Disease flock tests, as discussed with the laboratory
  • Vaccination reduces the clinical cases and excretion of bacteria of Johne's Disease
  • Lambs should be vaccinated for Johne's Disease at 3-4 weeks old
  • Recommended management practice to control Johne's Disease in sheep is to reduce the exposure to the bacteria
  • Main purpose of hygiene practices at lambing time in relation to Johne's Disease is to reduce the exposure to the bacteria
  • SRUC Johne’s Disease Risk Level Accreditation Programme is a certification programme that recognises farms that have a low risk of Johne's Disease
  • Johne’s Disease Reduction Programme aims to reduce the prevalence of Johne's Disease in Scotland

Bloat

  • Bloat is a potential cause of sudden death in adult sheep
  • Primary cause of frothy bloat in adult sheep is a rapid fermentation of ingested material
  • Potential causes of bloat in adult sheep include grazing legumes, eating too quickly, and changing diet suddenly

Liver Fluke

  • Liver fluke is a potential cause of weight loss and poor performance in sheep
  • Primary factor contributing to the spread of liver fluke is the presence of intermediate hosts
  • Sheep experience acute fasciolosis due to liver fluke infection during the winter and spring
  • Potential consequence of climate change on the timing of liver fluke disease is the alteration of the timing of fluke disease
  • Minimum temperature required for miracidia to develop in liver fluke eggs is 10°C
  • Most development of liver fluke takes place in the UK during the summer
  • Sheep don't develop immunity to liver fluke due to the complex life cycle of the parasite
  • Primary consequence of liver fluke infection in sheep during winter and spring is weight loss
  • Acute fluke disease is commonly observed in the UK during the autumn and winter
  • Primary cause of severe hemorrhage in acute fluke disease is the rupture of the liver
  • Chronic fluke disease is commonly observed in the UK during the spring and summer
  • Primary consequence of chronic fluke disease in animals is weight loss and poor performance

Control of Fluke

  • Recommended treatment for fluke is the use of triclabendazole
  • Primary cause of resistance to Tricalbendazole (TCBZ) is the overuse of the drug
  • Consequence of treating Fluke without persistent activity is the development of resistance
  • Main purpose of monitoring in the control of Fluke is to identify the presence of the parasite
  • Main purpose of biosecurity in Fluke control is to reduce the exposure to the parasite
  • Recommended treatment upon arrival of purchased animals is to quarantine and treat them for fluke
  • Faecal fluke egg counts are recommended for monitoring the effectiveness of Fluke control plans
  • Primary purpose of rotational use of drugs in Fluke control is to reduce the development of resistance
  • Recommended timing for dosing against adults in winter in Fluke control is in November
  • Main purpose of using forecast, monitoring, and farm risk in Fluke control is to identify the risk of fluke disease
  • Main purpose of quarantine drenching in Fluke control is to reduce the exposure to the parasite

Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA)

  • Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA) is a viral disease
  • OPA virus is responsible for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA)
  • OPA virus is spread through direct contact with infected animals and contaminated environments
  • Body fluid that can transmit the Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA) virus is lung fluid
  • Incubation period for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA) in sheep is several months to years
  • Clinical sign of Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA) is difficulty breathing
  • Diagnostic test for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA) involves "tip sheep up" to check for fluid accumulation in the lungs
  • There is no treatment available for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA)
  • Control measure for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA) is to reduce the exposure to the virus

Maedi Visna

  • Maedi Visna is a viral disease that affects sheep
  • Primary route of transmission for Maedi Visna is the faecal-oral route
  • Worldwide distribution of Maedi Visna is across the globe
  • Diagnostic test for Maedi Visna is the AGID (Agar Gel Immunodiffusion) test
  • Primary form of Maedi Visna that affects sheep is pneumonia
  • Primary control measure for Maedi Visna is to reduce the exposure to the virus
  • Related disease to Maedi Visna is Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis (CAE)
  • Primary form of Maedi Visna that affects sheep neurologically is a neurological disease
  • Clinical sign of Maedi Visna in sheep is wasting
  • Primary diagnostic method for Maedi Visna in sheep is the AGID (Agar Gel Immunodiffusion) test
  • Primary route of transmission for Maedi Visna is the faecal-oral route
  • Primary control method for Maedi Visna in sheep is to reduce the exposure to the virus
  • Difficulty in developing a vaccine for Maedi Visna is due to the genetic diversity of the virus

Test your knowledge on the causes and consequences of thin ewes in sheep farming. Learn about the economic and welfare concerns associated with poor nutrition, low fertility, and inadequate grazing. Find out how to identify and address thin ewe issues for better sheep health and productivity.

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