FARM: Reproduction: Diseases of adult sheep
112 Questions
7 Views

FARM: Reproduction: Diseases of adult sheep

Created by
@LargeCapacityIsland

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of thin ewes?

  • Poor nutrition
  • Respiratory diseases
  • High milk production (correct)
  • Gastro-intestinal diseases
  • What is the main concern associated with thin ewes?

  • Improved colostrum quality
  • Economic losses (correct)
  • Enhanced milk production
  • Increased lamb birth weights
  • Which of the following diseases is NOT considered a chronic disease associated with thin ewes?

  • Caseous Lymphadenitis
  • Maedi-Visna
  • Johne’s (correct)
  • Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis
  • What is the purpose of ultrasound examination in thin ewes?

    <p>Evaluate lung health</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic sample is NOT recommended for investigating thin sheep problem?

    <p>Urine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of annual post-mortem examination in thin ewes?

    <p>To identify chronic diseases</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of poor nutrition in thin ewes?

    <p>High milk production</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main concern associated with respiratory diseases in thin ewes?

    <p>Poor lamb growth</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of lameness in thin ewes?

    <p>Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of investigating thin sheep problem through clinical examination?

    <p>Assess body condition score</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of teeth are checked for uneven wear and sharp edges in dental disease?

    <p>Molars</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of external palpation in dental disease examination?

    <p>To check for lymph nodes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a cause of dental disease in sheep?

    <p>Sedation or GA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term used for the problem of molar teeth quidding in dental disease?

    <p>Quidding</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of uneven wear in dental disease?

    <p>Cull</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common clinical sign of pharyngeal trauma in sheep?

    <p>Halitosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the prognosis for pharyngeal trauma in sheep?

    <p>Poor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which disease is a common and important cause of weight loss, ewe mortality, and poor performance in sheep?

    <p>Johne's Disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is the primary route of transmission for Johne's Disease?

    <p>Faecal oral route</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what age is the key risk period for Johne's Disease infection?

    <p>First 3-4 months of life</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a typical clinical sign of Johne's Disease in animals?

    <p>Diarrhea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main pathological effect of Johne's Disease on the intestines?

    <p>Thickening of intestines</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is true about the diagnosis of Johne's Disease?

    <p>Many animals can be subclinically affected</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a common clinical sign of Johne's Disease in sheep?

    <p>High parasite burdens</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical age of animals when clinical signs of Johne's Disease become evident?

    <p>3-4 years old</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic test is the best option to confirm clinical cases of Johne's Disease in live animals?

    <p>PCR test on faeces</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test is useful for monitoring Johne's Disease in fallen stock and cull animals?

    <p>Post mortem with histology</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which age group of ewes should be selected for Johne's Disease flock tests?

    <p>Ewes older than 3 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic test can be done pooled for sample sizes, as discussed with the laboratory, for Johne's Disease flock tests?

    <p>PCR faecal antigen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vaccination reduces the clinical cases and excretion of bacteria of Johne's Disease?

    <p>Gudair</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what age should all lambs be vaccinated for Johne's Disease?

    <p>4 and 16 weeks old</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended management practice to control Johne's Disease in sheep?

    <p>Keeping older and thinner ewes with younger breeding ewes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main purpose of hygiene practices at lambing time in relation to Johne's Disease?

    <p>Preventing transmission of Johne's Disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main purpose of the SRUC Johne’s Disease Risk Level Accreditation Programme?

    <p>To reduce the risk of Johne's Disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main benefit of the Johne’s Disease Reduction Programme?

    <p>Reducing the risk of Johne's Disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a potential cause of bloat in adult sheep?

    <p>Grain acidosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a potential cause of frothy bloat in adult sheep?

    <p>Redgut</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a potential cause of peritonitis in adult sheep?

    <p>Intestinal adenocarcimoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a potential cause of sudden death in adult sheep?

    <p>Redgut</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of frothy bloat in adult sheep?

    <p>Legumes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following diseases is NOT commonly seen in adult sheep?

    <p>Intestinal adenocarcinoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a potential consequence of liver fluke infection in sheep?

    <p>Decreased production</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary factor contributing to the spread of liver fluke?

    <p>Rainfall</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During which season do sheep experience acute fasciolosis due to liver fluke infection?

    <p>Autumn</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the potential consequence of climate change on the timing of liver fluke disease?

    <p>Less predictable timing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum temperature required for miracidia to develop in liver fluke eggs?

    <p>Between 1°C and 10°C</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a potential consequence of liver fluke infection in sheep?

    <p>Enhanced fertility</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When does most development of liver fluke take place in the UK?

    <p>Summer and autumn</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reason why sheep don't develop immunity to liver fluke?

    <p>Lack of exposure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the potential consequence of liver fluke infection in sheep during winter and spring?

    <p>Chronic fasciolosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which season is associated with the occurrence of acute fluke disease?

    <p>Autumn</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of severe hemorrhage in acute fluke disease?

    <p>Migration of immature stages through the liver</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which clinical sign is commonly observed in chronic fluke disease?

    <p>Enlarged liver</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When is chronic fluke disease commonly observed in the UK?

    <p>Autumn</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary consequence of chronic fluke disease in animals?

    <p>Hepatic fibrosis and cholongitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic method is useful for monitoring the effectiveness of fluke control plans?

    <p>Fecal examination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test is recommended for monitoring naïve animals during their first grazing season?

    <p>Serum ELISA antibody test for fluke</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When is the best time to sample lambs per management group for the serum ELISA antibody test for fluke?

    <p>Every 2-4 weeks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic test can detect fluke at a similar time to faecal fluke egg counts?

    <p>Coproantigen ELISA test for fluke</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic test can be used to help with timing autumn treatments for fluke?

    <p>Faecal fluke egg counts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test can be used to detect fluke with false negatives in early infections and acute disease?

    <p>Faecal fluke egg counts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a method for controlling Fluke?

    <p>Timed, targeted, drug treatments</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of resistance to Tricalbendazole (TCBZ)?

    <p>Overuse of TCBZ</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of treating Fluke without persistent activity?

    <p>Immediate re-infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main purpose of monitoring in the control of Fluke?

    <p>To tailor control strategies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main purpose of biosecurity in Fluke control?

    <p>To avoid purchasing animals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended treatment upon arrival of purchased animals?

    <p>Accurately dosing Closantel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test is recommended for monitoring the effectiveness of Fluke control plans?

    <p>Composite Faecal Egg Count Reduction Test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of rotational use of drugs in Fluke control?

    <p>To prevent drug resistance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When is it recommended to use triclabendazole in Fluke control?

    <p>Autumn</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main purpose of quarantine drenching in Fluke control?

    <p>To treat immature stages of the parasite</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug is becoming an increasing problem due to resistance in Fluke control?

    <p>Triclabendazole</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug is recommended for treating immature stages of Fluke in late spring?

    <p>Albendazole</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should additional doses of TCBZ be administered in high-risk years and high-risk farms?

    <p>November</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended timing for dosing against adults in winter in Fluke control?

    <p>Winter</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main purpose of using forecast, monitoring, and farm risk in Fluke control?

    <p>To guide timing and frequency of drug treatments</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which virus is responsible for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA)?

    <p>Jaagsiekte Sheep Retrovirus (JRSV)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is the Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA) virus spread?

    <p>Through lung fluids and aerosol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which body fluid can transmit the Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA) virus?

    <p>Milk</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the incubation period for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA) in sheep?

    <p>2-4 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which clinical sign is NOT commonly observed in Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA)?

    <p>Exercise intolerance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the diagnostic test for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA) that involves "tip sheep up" to check for fluid accumulation in the lungs?

    <p>Wheelbarrow test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Is there a treatment available for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA)?

    <p>No</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a control measure for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA)?

    <p>Testing and culling affected farms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary route of transmission for Maedi Visna?

    <p>Respiratory route</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the worldwide distribution of Maedi Visna?

    <p>Global</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic test is currently being assessed as a flock screening tool for Maedi Visna?

    <p>Ultrasound</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary form of Maedi Visna that affects sheep?

    <p>Chronic respiratory disease and chronic mastitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary route of transmission for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA)?

    <p>Respiratory route</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary control measure for Maedi Visna?

    <p>Testing and culling affected animals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which disease is also caused by a lentivirus and is related to Maedi Visna?

    <p>Caprine arthritis encephalitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary form of Maedi Visna that affects sheep neurologically?

    <p>Visna</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a clinical sign of Maedi Visna in sheep?

    <p>Head tremor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary form of Maedi Visna that affects sheep?

    <p>Neurological form</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is Maedi Visna primarily diagnosed in sheep?

    <p>Pathology examination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary route of transmission for Maedi Visna?

    <p>Respiratory</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary control method for Maedi Visna in sheep?

    <p>Test and cull</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it difficult to develop a vaccine for Maedi Visna?

    <p>The virus is latent in the genome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary diagnostic test for Mannhaemia haemolytica in sheep?

    <p>Serology testing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary control method for Maedi Visna in sheep if flocks are kept permanently at grass?

    <p>Conservative approach</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a clinical sign commonly associated with Chronic Suppurative Pneumonia in sheep?

    <p>Fever</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary method of diagnosis for Chronic Suppurative Pneumonia in sheep?

    <p>Necropsy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended treatment for Chronic Suppurative Pneumonia in sheep?

    <p>Culling</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which disease is characterized by loud inspiratory dyspnea in sheep?

    <p>Laryngeal Chondritis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the treatment for Laryngeal Chondritis in sheep?

    <p>Corticosteroids and broad spectrum long acting antibiotics</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacteria is associated with Ovine Infectious Keratoconjunctivitis (Pink Eye) in sheep?

    <p>Mycoplasma conjunctivae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can cause outbreaks of Ovine Infectious Keratoconjunctivitis (Pink Eye) in a flock of sheep?

    <p>Mixing of sheep, tupping time or feeding</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of resistance to Tricalbendazole (TCBZ) in sheep?

    <p>Overuse and misuse of anthelmintics</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary concern associated with thin ewes in sheep farming?

    <p>Poor reproductive performance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following symptoms is associated with Anterior Uveitis or Silage eye?

    <p>Blephorospasm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended treatment for Anterior Uveitis or Silage eye?

    <p>Sub-conjunctival oxytet and dexamethasone (1mg)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the suggested action to prevent Anterior Uveitis or Silage eye?

    <p>Remove the source of Listeriamonocytogenes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Thin Ewes

    • Thin ewes are a concern due to potential diseases, poor nutrition, and lameness
    • Main concern with respiratory diseases in thin ewes is pneumonia
    • Main concern with lameness in thin ewes is foot diseases

    Dental Disease

    • Dental disease is a potential cause of thin ewes
    • Molar teeth are checked for uneven wear and sharp edges in dental disease
    • External palpation is used in dental disease examination to check for uneven wear and sharp edges
    • Quidding is a term used for the problem of molar teeth quidding in dental disease
    • Pharyngeal trauma is a potential consequence of dental disease

    Johne's Disease

    • Johne's Disease is a common and important cause of weight loss, ewe mortality, and poor performance in sheep
    • Primary route of transmission for Johne's Disease is the faecal-oral route
    • Key risk period for Johne's Disease infection is in lambs
    • Typical clinical sign of Johne's Disease in animals is weight loss despite a good appetite
    • Main pathological effect of Johne's Disease on the intestines is villous atrophy
    • Diagnosis of Johne's Disease can be done using faecal culture, tissue biopsy, or serology
    • Typical age of animals when clinical signs of Johne's Disease become evident is 2-5 years
    • AGID (Agar Gel Immunodiffusion) test is the best option to confirm clinical cases of Johne's Disease in live animals
    • ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay) test is useful for monitoring Johne's Disease in fallen stock and cull animals
    • Ewes between 2-5 years old should be selected for Johne's Disease flock tests
    • Pool testing can be done for Johne's Disease flock tests, as discussed with the laboratory
    • Vaccination reduces the clinical cases and excretion of bacteria of Johne's Disease
    • Lambs should be vaccinated for Johne's Disease at 3-4 weeks old
    • Recommended management practice to control Johne's Disease in sheep is to reduce the exposure to the bacteria
    • Main purpose of hygiene practices at lambing time in relation to Johne's Disease is to reduce the exposure to the bacteria
    • SRUC Johne’s Disease Risk Level Accreditation Programme is a certification programme that recognises farms that have a low risk of Johne's Disease
    • Johne’s Disease Reduction Programme aims to reduce the prevalence of Johne's Disease in Scotland

    Bloat

    • Bloat is a potential cause of sudden death in adult sheep
    • Primary cause of frothy bloat in adult sheep is a rapid fermentation of ingested material
    • Potential causes of bloat in adult sheep include grazing legumes, eating too quickly, and changing diet suddenly

    Liver Fluke

    • Liver fluke is a potential cause of weight loss and poor performance in sheep
    • Primary factor contributing to the spread of liver fluke is the presence of intermediate hosts
    • Sheep experience acute fasciolosis due to liver fluke infection during the winter and spring
    • Potential consequence of climate change on the timing of liver fluke disease is the alteration of the timing of fluke disease
    • Minimum temperature required for miracidia to develop in liver fluke eggs is 10°C
    • Most development of liver fluke takes place in the UK during the summer
    • Sheep don't develop immunity to liver fluke due to the complex life cycle of the parasite
    • Primary consequence of liver fluke infection in sheep during winter and spring is weight loss
    • Acute fluke disease is commonly observed in the UK during the autumn and winter
    • Primary cause of severe hemorrhage in acute fluke disease is the rupture of the liver
    • Chronic fluke disease is commonly observed in the UK during the spring and summer
    • Primary consequence of chronic fluke disease in animals is weight loss and poor performance

    Control of Fluke

    • Recommended treatment for fluke is the use of triclabendazole
    • Primary cause of resistance to Tricalbendazole (TCBZ) is the overuse of the drug
    • Consequence of treating Fluke without persistent activity is the development of resistance
    • Main purpose of monitoring in the control of Fluke is to identify the presence of the parasite
    • Main purpose of biosecurity in Fluke control is to reduce the exposure to the parasite
    • Recommended treatment upon arrival of purchased animals is to quarantine and treat them for fluke
    • Faecal fluke egg counts are recommended for monitoring the effectiveness of Fluke control plans
    • Primary purpose of rotational use of drugs in Fluke control is to reduce the development of resistance
    • Recommended timing for dosing against adults in winter in Fluke control is in November
    • Main purpose of using forecast, monitoring, and farm risk in Fluke control is to identify the risk of fluke disease
    • Main purpose of quarantine drenching in Fluke control is to reduce the exposure to the parasite

    Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA)

    • Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA) is a viral disease
    • OPA virus is responsible for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA)
    • OPA virus is spread through direct contact with infected animals and contaminated environments
    • Body fluid that can transmit the Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA) virus is lung fluid
    • Incubation period for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA) in sheep is several months to years
    • Clinical sign of Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA) is difficulty breathing
    • Diagnostic test for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA) involves "tip sheep up" to check for fluid accumulation in the lungs
    • There is no treatment available for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA)
    • Control measure for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA) is to reduce the exposure to the virus

    Maedi Visna

    • Maedi Visna is a viral disease that affects sheep
    • Primary route of transmission for Maedi Visna is the faecal-oral route
    • Worldwide distribution of Maedi Visna is across the globe
    • Diagnostic test for Maedi Visna is the AGID (Agar Gel Immunodiffusion) test
    • Primary form of Maedi Visna that affects sheep is pneumonia
    • Primary control measure for Maedi Visna is to reduce the exposure to the virus
    • Related disease to Maedi Visna is Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis (CAE)
    • Primary form of Maedi Visna that affects sheep neurologically is a neurological disease
    • Clinical sign of Maedi Visna in sheep is wasting
    • Primary diagnostic method for Maedi Visna in sheep is the AGID (Agar Gel Immunodiffusion) test
    • Primary route of transmission for Maedi Visna is the faecal-oral route
    • Primary control method for Maedi Visna in sheep is to reduce the exposure to the virus
    • Difficulty in developing a vaccine for Maedi Visna is due to the genetic diversity of the virus

    Studying That Suits You

    Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

    Quiz Team

    Description

    Test your knowledge on the causes and consequences of thin ewes in sheep farming. Learn about the economic and welfare concerns associated with poor nutrition, low fertility, and inadequate grazing. Find out how to identify and address thin ewe issues for better sheep health and productivity.

    Use Quizgecko on...
    Browser
    Browser