FARM: Reproduction: Diseases of adult sheep

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of thin ewes?

  • Poor nutrition
  • Respiratory diseases
  • High milk production (correct)
  • Gastro-intestinal diseases

What is the main concern associated with thin ewes?

  • Improved colostrum quality
  • Economic losses (correct)
  • Enhanced milk production
  • Increased lamb birth weights

Which of the following diseases is NOT considered a chronic disease associated with thin ewes?

  • Caseous Lymphadenitis
  • Maedi-Visna
  • Johne’s (correct)
  • Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis

What is the purpose of ultrasound examination in thin ewes?

<p>Evaluate lung health (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic sample is NOT recommended for investigating thin sheep problem?

<p>Urine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of annual post-mortem examination in thin ewes?

<p>To identify chronic diseases (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of poor nutrition in thin ewes?

<p>High milk production (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main concern associated with respiratory diseases in thin ewes?

<p>Poor lamb growth (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of lameness in thin ewes?

<p>Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of investigating thin sheep problem through clinical examination?

<p>Assess body condition score (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of teeth are checked for uneven wear and sharp edges in dental disease?

<p>Molars (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of external palpation in dental disease examination?

<p>To check for lymph nodes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a cause of dental disease in sheep?

<p>Sedation or GA (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the term used for the problem of molar teeth quidding in dental disease?

<p>Quidding (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of uneven wear in dental disease?

<p>Cull (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common clinical sign of pharyngeal trauma in sheep?

<p>Halitosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the prognosis for pharyngeal trauma in sheep?

<p>Poor (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which disease is a common and important cause of weight loss, ewe mortality, and poor performance in sheep?

<p>Johne's Disease (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the primary route of transmission for Johne's Disease?

<p>Faecal oral route (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At what age is the key risk period for Johne's Disease infection?

<p>First 3-4 months of life (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a typical clinical sign of Johne's Disease in animals?

<p>Diarrhea (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main pathological effect of Johne's Disease on the intestines?

<p>Thickening of intestines (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is true about the diagnosis of Johne's Disease?

<p>Many animals can be subclinically affected (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a common clinical sign of Johne's Disease in sheep?

<p>High parasite burdens (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical age of animals when clinical signs of Johne's Disease become evident?

<p>3-4 years old (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic test is the best option to confirm clinical cases of Johne's Disease in live animals?

<p>PCR test on faeces (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which test is useful for monitoring Johne's Disease in fallen stock and cull animals?

<p>Post mortem with histology (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which age group of ewes should be selected for Johne's Disease flock tests?

<p>Ewes older than 3 years (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic test can be done pooled for sample sizes, as discussed with the laboratory, for Johne's Disease flock tests?

<p>PCR faecal antigen (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which vaccination reduces the clinical cases and excretion of bacteria of Johne's Disease?

<p>Gudair (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At what age should all lambs be vaccinated for Johne's Disease?

<p>4 and 16 weeks old (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended management practice to control Johne's Disease in sheep?

<p>Keeping older and thinner ewes with younger breeding ewes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main purpose of hygiene practices at lambing time in relation to Johne's Disease?

<p>Preventing transmission of Johne's Disease (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main purpose of the SRUC Johne’s Disease Risk Level Accreditation Programme?

<p>To reduce the risk of Johne's Disease (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main benefit of the Johne’s Disease Reduction Programme?

<p>Reducing the risk of Johne's Disease (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential cause of bloat in adult sheep?

<p>Grain acidosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential cause of frothy bloat in adult sheep?

<p>Redgut (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential cause of peritonitis in adult sheep?

<p>Intestinal adenocarcimoma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential cause of sudden death in adult sheep?

<p>Redgut (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of frothy bloat in adult sheep?

<p>Legumes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following diseases is NOT commonly seen in adult sheep?

<p>Intestinal adenocarcinoma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential consequence of liver fluke infection in sheep?

<p>Decreased production (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary factor contributing to the spread of liver fluke?

<p>Rainfall (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which season do sheep experience acute fasciolosis due to liver fluke infection?

<p>Autumn (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the potential consequence of climate change on the timing of liver fluke disease?

<p>Less predictable timing (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum temperature required for miracidia to develop in liver fluke eggs?

<p>Between 1°C and 10°C (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a potential consequence of liver fluke infection in sheep?

<p>Enhanced fertility (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When does most development of liver fluke take place in the UK?

<p>Summer and autumn (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason why sheep don't develop immunity to liver fluke?

<p>Lack of exposure (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the potential consequence of liver fluke infection in sheep during winter and spring?

<p>Chronic fasciolosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which season is associated with the occurrence of acute fluke disease?

<p>Autumn (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of severe hemorrhage in acute fluke disease?

<p>Migration of immature stages through the liver (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which clinical sign is commonly observed in chronic fluke disease?

<p>Enlarged liver (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is chronic fluke disease commonly observed in the UK?

<p>Autumn (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary consequence of chronic fluke disease in animals?

<p>Hepatic fibrosis and cholongitis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic method is useful for monitoring the effectiveness of fluke control plans?

<p>Fecal examination (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which test is recommended for monitoring naïve animals during their first grazing season?

<p>Serum ELISA antibody test for fluke (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is the best time to sample lambs per management group for the serum ELISA antibody test for fluke?

<p>Every 2-4 weeks (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic test can detect fluke at a similar time to faecal fluke egg counts?

<p>Coproantigen ELISA test for fluke (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic test can be used to help with timing autumn treatments for fluke?

<p>Faecal fluke egg counts (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which test can be used to detect fluke with false negatives in early infections and acute disease?

<p>Faecal fluke egg counts (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a method for controlling Fluke?

<p>Timed, targeted, drug treatments (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of resistance to Tricalbendazole (TCBZ)?

<p>Overuse of TCBZ (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the consequence of treating Fluke without persistent activity?

<p>Immediate re-infection (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main purpose of monitoring in the control of Fluke?

<p>To tailor control strategies (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main purpose of biosecurity in Fluke control?

<p>To avoid purchasing animals (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended treatment upon arrival of purchased animals?

<p>Accurately dosing Closantel (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which test is recommended for monitoring the effectiveness of Fluke control plans?

<p>Composite Faecal Egg Count Reduction Test (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of rotational use of drugs in Fluke control?

<p>To prevent drug resistance (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is it recommended to use triclabendazole in Fluke control?

<p>Autumn (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main purpose of quarantine drenching in Fluke control?

<p>To treat immature stages of the parasite (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug is becoming an increasing problem due to resistance in Fluke control?

<p>Triclabendazole (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug is recommended for treating immature stages of Fluke in late spring?

<p>Albendazole (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When should additional doses of TCBZ be administered in high-risk years and high-risk farms?

<p>November (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended timing for dosing against adults in winter in Fluke control?

<p>Winter (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main purpose of using forecast, monitoring, and farm risk in Fluke control?

<p>To guide timing and frequency of drug treatments (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which virus is responsible for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA)?

<p>Jaagsiekte Sheep Retrovirus (JRSV) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is the Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA) virus spread?

<p>Through lung fluids and aerosol (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which body fluid can transmit the Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA) virus?

<p>Milk (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the incubation period for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA) in sheep?

<p>2-4 years (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which clinical sign is NOT commonly observed in Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA)?

<p>Exercise intolerance (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the diagnostic test for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA) that involves "tip sheep up" to check for fluid accumulation in the lungs?

<p>Wheelbarrow test (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Is there a treatment available for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA)?

<p>No (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a control measure for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA)?

<p>Testing and culling affected farms (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary route of transmission for Maedi Visna?

<p>Respiratory route (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the worldwide distribution of Maedi Visna?

<p>Global (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic test is currently being assessed as a flock screening tool for Maedi Visna?

<p>Ultrasound (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary form of Maedi Visna that affects sheep?

<p>Chronic respiratory disease and chronic mastitis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary route of transmission for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA)?

<p>Respiratory route (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary control measure for Maedi Visna?

<p>Testing and culling affected animals (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which disease is also caused by a lentivirus and is related to Maedi Visna?

<p>Caprine arthritis encephalitis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary form of Maedi Visna that affects sheep neurologically?

<p>Visna (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a clinical sign of Maedi Visna in sheep?

<p>Head tremor (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary form of Maedi Visna that affects sheep?

<p>Neurological form (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is Maedi Visna primarily diagnosed in sheep?

<p>Pathology examination (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary route of transmission for Maedi Visna?

<p>Respiratory (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary control method for Maedi Visna in sheep?

<p>Test and cull (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it difficult to develop a vaccine for Maedi Visna?

<p>The virus is latent in the genome (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary diagnostic test for Mannhaemia haemolytica in sheep?

<p>Serology testing (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary control method for Maedi Visna in sheep if flocks are kept permanently at grass?

<p>Conservative approach (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a clinical sign commonly associated with Chronic Suppurative Pneumonia in sheep?

<p>Fever (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary method of diagnosis for Chronic Suppurative Pneumonia in sheep?

<p>Necropsy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended treatment for Chronic Suppurative Pneumonia in sheep?

<p>Culling (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which disease is characterized by loud inspiratory dyspnea in sheep?

<p>Laryngeal Chondritis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the treatment for Laryngeal Chondritis in sheep?

<p>Corticosteroids and broad spectrum long acting antibiotics (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which bacteria is associated with Ovine Infectious Keratoconjunctivitis (Pink Eye) in sheep?

<p>Mycoplasma conjunctivae (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can cause outbreaks of Ovine Infectious Keratoconjunctivitis (Pink Eye) in a flock of sheep?

<p>Mixing of sheep, tupping time or feeding (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of resistance to Tricalbendazole (TCBZ) in sheep?

<p>Overuse and misuse of anthelmintics (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary concern associated with thin ewes in sheep farming?

<p>Poor reproductive performance (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following symptoms is associated with Anterior Uveitis or Silage eye?

<p>Blephorospasm (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended treatment for Anterior Uveitis or Silage eye?

<p>Sub-conjunctival oxytet and dexamethasone (1mg) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the suggested action to prevent Anterior Uveitis or Silage eye?

<p>Remove the source of Listeriamonocytogenes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

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Study Notes

Thin Ewes

  • Thin ewes are a concern due to potential diseases, poor nutrition, and lameness
  • Main concern with respiratory diseases in thin ewes is pneumonia
  • Main concern with lameness in thin ewes is foot diseases

Dental Disease

  • Dental disease is a potential cause of thin ewes
  • Molar teeth are checked for uneven wear and sharp edges in dental disease
  • External palpation is used in dental disease examination to check for uneven wear and sharp edges
  • Quidding is a term used for the problem of molar teeth quidding in dental disease
  • Pharyngeal trauma is a potential consequence of dental disease

Johne's Disease

  • Johne's Disease is a common and important cause of weight loss, ewe mortality, and poor performance in sheep
  • Primary route of transmission for Johne's Disease is the faecal-oral route
  • Key risk period for Johne's Disease infection is in lambs
  • Typical clinical sign of Johne's Disease in animals is weight loss despite a good appetite
  • Main pathological effect of Johne's Disease on the intestines is villous atrophy
  • Diagnosis of Johne's Disease can be done using faecal culture, tissue biopsy, or serology
  • Typical age of animals when clinical signs of Johne's Disease become evident is 2-5 years
  • AGID (Agar Gel Immunodiffusion) test is the best option to confirm clinical cases of Johne's Disease in live animals
  • ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay) test is useful for monitoring Johne's Disease in fallen stock and cull animals
  • Ewes between 2-5 years old should be selected for Johne's Disease flock tests
  • Pool testing can be done for Johne's Disease flock tests, as discussed with the laboratory
  • Vaccination reduces the clinical cases and excretion of bacteria of Johne's Disease
  • Lambs should be vaccinated for Johne's Disease at 3-4 weeks old
  • Recommended management practice to control Johne's Disease in sheep is to reduce the exposure to the bacteria
  • Main purpose of hygiene practices at lambing time in relation to Johne's Disease is to reduce the exposure to the bacteria
  • SRUC Johne’s Disease Risk Level Accreditation Programme is a certification programme that recognises farms that have a low risk of Johne's Disease
  • Johne’s Disease Reduction Programme aims to reduce the prevalence of Johne's Disease in Scotland

Bloat

  • Bloat is a potential cause of sudden death in adult sheep
  • Primary cause of frothy bloat in adult sheep is a rapid fermentation of ingested material
  • Potential causes of bloat in adult sheep include grazing legumes, eating too quickly, and changing diet suddenly

Liver Fluke

  • Liver fluke is a potential cause of weight loss and poor performance in sheep
  • Primary factor contributing to the spread of liver fluke is the presence of intermediate hosts
  • Sheep experience acute fasciolosis due to liver fluke infection during the winter and spring
  • Potential consequence of climate change on the timing of liver fluke disease is the alteration of the timing of fluke disease
  • Minimum temperature required for miracidia to develop in liver fluke eggs is 10°C
  • Most development of liver fluke takes place in the UK during the summer
  • Sheep don't develop immunity to liver fluke due to the complex life cycle of the parasite
  • Primary consequence of liver fluke infection in sheep during winter and spring is weight loss
  • Acute fluke disease is commonly observed in the UK during the autumn and winter
  • Primary cause of severe hemorrhage in acute fluke disease is the rupture of the liver
  • Chronic fluke disease is commonly observed in the UK during the spring and summer
  • Primary consequence of chronic fluke disease in animals is weight loss and poor performance

Control of Fluke

  • Recommended treatment for fluke is the use of triclabendazole
  • Primary cause of resistance to Tricalbendazole (TCBZ) is the overuse of the drug
  • Consequence of treating Fluke without persistent activity is the development of resistance
  • Main purpose of monitoring in the control of Fluke is to identify the presence of the parasite
  • Main purpose of biosecurity in Fluke control is to reduce the exposure to the parasite
  • Recommended treatment upon arrival of purchased animals is to quarantine and treat them for fluke
  • Faecal fluke egg counts are recommended for monitoring the effectiveness of Fluke control plans
  • Primary purpose of rotational use of drugs in Fluke control is to reduce the development of resistance
  • Recommended timing for dosing against adults in winter in Fluke control is in November
  • Main purpose of using forecast, monitoring, and farm risk in Fluke control is to identify the risk of fluke disease
  • Main purpose of quarantine drenching in Fluke control is to reduce the exposure to the parasite

Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA)

  • Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA) is a viral disease
  • OPA virus is responsible for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA)
  • OPA virus is spread through direct contact with infected animals and contaminated environments
  • Body fluid that can transmit the Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA) virus is lung fluid
  • Incubation period for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA) in sheep is several months to years
  • Clinical sign of Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA) is difficulty breathing
  • Diagnostic test for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA) involves "tip sheep up" to check for fluid accumulation in the lungs
  • There is no treatment available for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA)
  • Control measure for Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (OPA) is to reduce the exposure to the virus

Maedi Visna

  • Maedi Visna is a viral disease that affects sheep
  • Primary route of transmission for Maedi Visna is the faecal-oral route
  • Worldwide distribution of Maedi Visna is across the globe
  • Diagnostic test for Maedi Visna is the AGID (Agar Gel Immunodiffusion) test
  • Primary form of Maedi Visna that affects sheep is pneumonia
  • Primary control measure for Maedi Visna is to reduce the exposure to the virus
  • Related disease to Maedi Visna is Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis (CAE)
  • Primary form of Maedi Visna that affects sheep neurologically is a neurological disease
  • Clinical sign of Maedi Visna in sheep is wasting
  • Primary diagnostic method for Maedi Visna in sheep is the AGID (Agar Gel Immunodiffusion) test
  • Primary route of transmission for Maedi Visna is the faecal-oral route
  • Primary control method for Maedi Visna in sheep is to reduce the exposure to the virus
  • Difficulty in developing a vaccine for Maedi Visna is due to the genetic diversity of the virus

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