168 Questions
Which neurotransmitter is associated with the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system?
Acetylcholine
What type of receptor is activated by acetylcholine in the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system?
Muscarinic receptor
What is the role of norepinephrine in the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system?
Neurotransmitter in postganglionic neurons
What is the major function of smooth muscle?
Movement of walls of hollow organs
Which type of muscle has striations and multiple nuclei?
Skeletal
Which mode of control is associated with the autonomic nervous system?
Endocrine and paracrine factors
What is the major location of cardiac muscle?
Wall of heart
Which protein anchors the tail of myosin to form the M-line in the sarcomere?
Myomesin
What is the role of Titin in the sarcomere?
Anchors myosin to the Z-line
Which structure in the sarcomere is responsible for the sliding of actin and myosin filaments during muscle contraction?
Z-disk
Which protein binds to tropomyosin and calcium in the sarcomere?
Troponin
What is the structure formed by two actin strands folding into a double helix?
Filamentous actin
Which type of actin protein is globular in shape?
G actin
What is the function of the alkaline light chain in myosin II?
Stabilizing the head
Which component of myosin II is responsible for the sliding of actin and myosin filaments during muscle contraction?
Hinge
Which ion has an increased permeability at the end of the motor neurone during NMJ synaptic transmission?
Ca2+
What is released at the motor end-plate during NMJ synaptic transmission?
Ach
Which receptors does Ach bind to at the motor end-plate during NMJ synaptic transmission?
Nicotinic receptors
Which structure in the muscle fiber releases calcium ions during muscle action potential?
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
What is the role of T-tubules in muscle action potential?
To reach the sarcoplasmic reticulum
Which type of calcium channel is found on the t-tubule sarcolemma?
Voltage-gated calcium channel
What is the process called when calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum due to the presence of calcium ions?
CICR
What happens to troponin I during skeletal muscle contraction?
It is released from actin
Which step in cross bridge cycling occurs after ATP hydrolysis?
Myosin moves to 'cocked' state
What is the main function of the sodium-calcium exchanger in muscle relaxation?
Extrude calcium from the cell
What is the role of ATP in the whole process of muscle contraction and relaxation?
To hydrolyze ATP
Which protein is responsible for the sliding of actin and myosin filaments during muscle contraction?
Myosin
What is being triggered for muscle contraction?
Calcium release
Which type of muscle is also known as striated muscle?
Skeletal muscle
Which neurotransmitter is released by post ganglionic sympathetic nerves to innervate smooth muscle cells?
Norepinephrine
Which type of smooth muscle organization allows cells to act independently from one another?
Multiunit
Which type of smooth muscle organization allows cells to communicate through gap junctions?
Unitary
Which type of muscle is characterized by slow contraction and can contract spontaneously at a basal level?
Unitary Varicosity
What type of muscle is characterized by fast contraction and contractions that are specifically controlled by ANS input?
Multi-unit Varicosity
Which type of muscle requires distinct action potentials and ligand-gated Ca2+ channels for its contractions?
Multi-unit Varicosity
Which type of muscle is found in the iris of the eye and is characterized by fast contractions?
Multi-unit Varicosity
Which of the following hormones is released from the adrenal gland on the kidney and acts on specific receptors on smooth muscle cells?
Epinephrine
Which of the following is true about the structure of a relaxed smooth muscle cell?
Actin and myosin filaments are anchored by dense bodies
What happens when the filaments in a smooth muscle cell contract?
Muscle becomes globular
During muscle contraction, actin moves across myosin filaments and the filaments shorten. What is the source of energy that is required for this mechanism of contraction?
ATP
Which protein attaches to actin, moves, and pulls actin during muscle contraction?
Myosin
What is the role of the external lamina during muscle contraction?
To help cells contract together
Which type of muscle cells initiate spontaneous electrical activity?
Smooth muscle cells
What is the calcium sensor in smooth muscle cells?
Calmodulin
Which type of calcium channels are responsible for voltage-dependent calcium entry in smooth muscle cells?
Voltage-gated channels
Which step in smooth muscle contraction is directly responsible for promoting actin/myosin interaction?
MLCK phosphorylates light chains in myosin heads and increases myosin ATPase activity
What is the main function of Calmodulin (CM) in smooth muscle contraction?
To activate myosin light chain kinase (MLCK)
What is the role of myosin light chain kinase (MLCK) in smooth muscle contraction?
To phosphorylate light chains in myosin heads
Which of the following is NOT a step in smooth muscle relaxation?
ATP hydrolysis increases muscle tension
What happens when cytoplasmic Ca2+ decreases in smooth muscle cells?
Myosin phosphatase removes phosphate from myosin
What is the latch phase in smooth muscle contraction?
The phase where fibres remain bound despite low energy contraction
Which type of muscle is characterized by striations, a single nucleus, and contractions that are controlled by the autonomic nervous system?
Cardiac muscle
Which of the following is true about drug distribution in the body?
Protein-bound drugs stay longer in the blood circulation.
What happens to protein-bound drugs in the blood?
They can bind with tissue proteins.
Which factor greatly affects the bioavailability of a drug?
Pharmaceutical formulation
Which route of administration bypasses the GI tract?
Injection
Which pharmaceutical factor can be used to manipulate the time course of drug response?
Drug formulation
Which type of pharmaceutical formulation is used for slow-onset/acting effects?
Extended-release
Which external factor can affect drug response?
Drug-drug interactions
Which type of drug formulation is commonly used for eye and nasal applications?
Eye/nasal drop
What percentage of a tablet is typically composed of fillers like lubricants, binders, and starch?
20-30%
Which part of the digestive tract can be targeted for drug release by using special coatings on tablets?
Duodenum
What is the purpose of compounds like bicarbonate in tablet formulations?
To ensure easy disintegration and dissolution of the tablet
Which type of drug formulation is commonly used for intravenous administration?
Liquid, emulsion
Which family of enzymes contributes to approximately 75% of drug Phase 1 metabolism?
Cytochrome P450 enzymes
What factors can affect the activities or levels of Cytochrome P450 enzymes?
Genetic polymorphism
What are substrates in the context of drug metabolism?
Drugs being metabolized
What are inhibitors in the context of drug metabolism?
Drugs that inhibit the activity of Cytochrome P450 enzymes
What are inducers in the context of drug metabolism?
Drugs that induce the activity of Cytochrome P450 enzymes
Which of the following is a key difference between bacterial cells and human cells in terms of genetic material?
Bacterial cells have extrachromosomal material called plasmids, while human cells do not have plasmids.
What is the role of the cell wall in bacterial cells?
To protect the cell from mechanical stress and osmotic lysis.
Which of the following is true about the structure of bacterial cells?
Bacterial cells have 70S ribosomes, while human cells have 80S ribosomes.
What is the function of pili in bacterial cells?
To facilitate attachment to surfaces or other cells.
Which type of bacterial cell has a single-layered, smooth cell wall and is very susceptible to antibiotics?
Gram-positive bacteria
Which component is present in the cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria but not in Gram-negative bacteria?
Teichoic acids
Which type of bacterial cell has a double-layered, wavy cell wall and is very resistant to antibiotics?
Gram-negative bacteria
Which component is present in the cell wall of Gram-negative bacteria but not in Gram-positive bacteria?
Lipopolysaccharide
Which type of bacterial cell has a thicker cell wall?
Gram-positive bacteria
Which type of toxin is released from viable bacteria and has a more localized site of action?
Exotoxin
Which component of Gram-negative bacteria's outer membrane is responsible for the profound biologic effects on the host and may be lethal?
Endotoxin
Which type of toxin inhibits protein synthesis in many cell types?
Cytotoxin
Which type of toxin acts on motor neurons, preventing the release of acetylcholine at the myoneural junctions and producing flaccid paralysis?
Neurotoxin
Which type of toxin is a structural component of the bacterial cell and is not easily destroyed by heat?
Endotoxin
Which type of exotoxin causes watery diarrhea by stimulating hypersecretion of water and electrolytes from the intestinal epithelium?
Enterotoxin
Which type of exotoxin perturbs cell functions, inflammatory response, and/or activates neurologic control mechanisms, affecting water and electrolyte transport?
Cytotonic exotoxin
Which exotoxin causes abdominal cramping by disturbing normal smooth muscle contraction?
Cytotonic exotoxin
Which exotoxin causes cell destruction?
Cytotoxic exotoxin
Which exotoxin is associated with Shigella species and isolates of E. coli?
Shiga-like enterotoxin
Which method can be used to detect microbial antigens in clinical specimens?
PCR
What is the characteristic of beta haemolysis on blood agar culture?
Clear zone surrounding the colony
Which method is known for its low sensitivity in detecting streptococcal infections?
Rapid strep test
What is the main component of the cell wall in Gram-positive bacteria?
Peptidoglycan Layer
Which component of a viral particle is responsible for attaching to host cells?
Envelope glycoproteins
Which type of viral nucleic acid can be either single-stranded or double-stranded?
RNA
What are the additional distinct features that some viruses may have?
Enzymes packaged within the virus
Which type of virus structure is represented by the poliovirus?
Naked icosahedral
Which type of virus structure is represented by the tobacco mosaic virus?
Naked helical
Which type of virus structure is represented by the herpes virus?
Enveloped icosahedral
Which component of a virus is responsible for attaching to and infecting a new cell?
Glycoprotein spikes
How do enveloped viruses acquire their envelope?
By budding through the plasma membrane
What is the function of matrix proteins in a virus?
To aid in nuclear import of the viral genome
Which factors can influence the composition of normal flora in the human body?
All of the above
How do neonates delivered through normal vaginal delivery acquire their first microbes?
From the mother's vaginal flora
What is the main difference in the development of normal flora between neonates delivered through normal vaginal delivery and those delivered through caesarean section?
The timing of microbial acquisition
Which type of bacteria are typically acquired by neonates delivered through normal vaginal delivery?
Gram-positive facultative anaerobes
How can diet affect the composition of normal flora in adults?
It can support the growth of distinct microbes
Which of the following is a function of the intestinal microflora?
Digestion of non-metabolisable substrates
Which of the following is a function of the genital tract microflora in females?
Protection of vaginal surfaces
What happens when homeostasis is disrupted due to the presence of pathogens?
Pathogenic bacteria invade inner layers of the mucus
Which of the following is a characteristic of commensal bacteria in the microbial flora at an epithelium?
They remain in the inner mucus layers
What is the role of lactobacillus species in the female genital tract?
They inhibit colonization of pathogenic anaerobes
Which of the following is a characteristic of non-pathogenic bacteria?
Can be beneficial or helpful in breaking down debris
What is the measure of the pathogenicity of an organism?
Virulence
Which of the following is NOT a category of virulence factors possessed by pathogens?
Evasive Factors
What is the main difference between pathogens and non-pathogens?
Pathogens cause infection and disease, while non-pathogens do not
What is the capacity of a bacterium to cause disease called from the point of view of the host?
Pathogenicity
Which mode of transmission is classified as direct spread and involves the transmission of infectious agents through relatively large, short-range aerosols produced by sneezing, coughing, or talking?
Droplet spread
Which mode of transmission involves the transfer of an infectious agent from a reservoir to a susceptible host by contact with soil or vegetation harboring infectious organisms?
Direct contact
Which mode of transmission is classified as indirect and involves the transmission of infectious agents through the air over long distances?
Airborne
Which of the following is an example of indirect transmission of an infectious agent?
Airborne transmission
What are droplet nuclei?
Dried residue of less than 5 microns in size
Which of the following is an example of vehicle transmission?
Food
Which infectious agent can be suspended in the air and transmitted from one person to another in a physician's office?
Measles virus
Which of the following is an example of a fomite?
Beddings
Which of the following is an example of biologic transmission?
Mosquitoes carrying Yersinia pestis in their gut
What is the main principle of infection control to prevent transmission?
Breaking the chain of transmission
Which of the following vectors carries an infectious agent through purely mechanical means?
Flies
Which type of infection is caused by the actions or treatments of a health care provider?
Iatrogenic infection
Which type of infection is the most common in health care facilities?
Urinary tract infection
Which type of infection presents with an infection at the health care service and has no history of being treated in the same facility?
Community-acquired infection
Which of the following is NOT a basic level of precaution in standard precautions?
Prevention of needlestick/sharp injuries
What is the recommended practice for handling sharp reusable instruments or equipment?
Clean them with extra care
Which of the following is NOT an additional (transmission-based) precaution?
Hand hygiene precautions
What should be done with needles after use to prevent injuries?
Dispose of them in a puncture-resistant container
Which of the following is NOT included in the work practices essential for providing a high level of protection?
Use of personal protective equipment when handling food
Which criteria are used to classify viruses into major groups or families?
Their nucleic acid, number of nucleic acid strands and polarity, method of replication, size, structure and symmetry of viral particle
Which group does the Coronavirus belong to?
Enveloped helical virus with an RNA genome, ss linear, non-segmented, positive sense
What are the minimal characteristics that comply with viral classification?
Genome and a protein coat
Which class of Baltimore's classification is responsible for the production of dsRNA?
Class III
Which class of Baltimore's classification is responsible for the production of ss(+)RNA?
Class VI
Which class of Baltimore's classification replicates via reverse transcription (RT)?
Class I
Which enzyme is responsible for synthesizing more RNA from an RNA template in a virus with an RNA genome?
RNA polymerase
Where does replication occur in the cell for a coronavirus with an RNA genome?
Cytoplasm
Which type of virus carries its own viral RNA polymerase?
Virus with -ssRNA
Which enzyme is responsible for converting RNA to DNA in a virus with an RNA genome that needs to integrate into host DNA?
Reverse transcriptase
Which virus integrates its provirus into the host genome?
HIV
Which enzyme is responsible for synthesizing a complementary DNA (cDNA) copy from an RNA template?
Reverse Transcriptase (RT)
During the viral replication cycle, when does the synthesis of structural viral proteins occur?
After viral transcription
Which type of viral genome is present in the HIV provirus during the viral replication cycle?
Double stranded DNA
In the viral replication cycle, what is the function of the RNAse H activity of Reverse Transcriptase (RT)?
Degrade RNA in a RNA-DNA hybrid
Which step of the viral replication cycle involves the replication of the DNA genome followed by the transcription of virus late mRNAs?
DNA genome replication
How does the life cycle of HIV virus differ from that of the vaccinia virus?
HIV virus replicates in the cytoplasm, while vaccinia virus replicates in the nucleus
Which virus carries its own RNA polymerase?
Neither HIV nor vaccinia virus
Which class of Baltimore's classification does the HIV virus belong to?
Class VI (6)
Which shape of bacteria is characterized by a rod or bacillus shape?
Vibrio
Which shape of bacteria is characterized by a spiral shape?
Spirillum
Which shape of bacteria is characterized by a round shape?
Coccus
Which staining technique is the most important for distinguishing bacteria based on the composition of their cell envelope?
Gram stain
Which color is associated with Gram-negative bacteria after performing the gram stain?
Pink
Which color is associated with Gram-positive bacteria after performing the gram stain?
Purple
What are bacterial endospores?
Dormant forms of the cell
Which conditions can bacterial endospores survive?
High temperature, high UV irradiation, desiccation, chemical damage
What are the dormant forms of the cell formed by certain bacteria called?
Endospores
Which of the following bacteria is responsible for causing cholera?
Vibrio cholerae
Which of the following bacteria is responsible for causing syphilis?
Treponema pallidum
Which of the following bacteria is responsible for causing meningitis and pneumonia?
Neisseria meningitidis
Which of the following bacteria is responsible for causing food poisoning and wound infections?
Staphylococcus aureus
Which of the following bacteria is responsible for causing strep throat and scarlet fever?
Streptococcus pyogenes
Test your knowledge of the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) and its neurotransmitters. This quiz will cover topics such as the cranio-sacral outflow, acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter, muscarinic and nicotinic receptors, and the effector organs of the parasympathetic ANS.
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