Surgical Prophylaxis Overview
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Which antibiotic is preferred for surgical prophylaxis due to its effectiveness against skin flora?

  • Cefazolin (correct)
  • Cefoxitin
  • Clindamycin
  • Vancomycin
  • Antibiotics should only be used in contaminated surgical procedures.

    False

    What are the predominant organisms causing surgical site infections after clean procedures?

    Skin flora including S.aureus and coagulase-negative staphylococci.

    The type of surgical operation where the respiratory, alimentary, genital, or urinary tracts are entered under controlled conditions is called a ______.

    <p>clean-contaminated</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following types of surgical operations with their descriptions:

    <p>Clean = Uninfected operative wound with no inflammation. Clean-contaminated = Tracts entered under controlled conditions. Contaminated = Operative wounds with inflammation present. Dirty = Infected operative wounds with purulent drainage.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which scenario is vancomycin advised as a prophylactic therapy?

    <p>High risk of MRSA and prosthetic device implantation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Parenteral antibiotic administration is not preferred for achieving suitable tissue concentrations.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of antimicrobial coverage is typically included in surgical prophylaxis?

    <p>Gram-positive coverage.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common side effect of Vancomycin when used intravenously?

    <p>Neutropenia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Ciprofloxacin is particularly effective against Gram-positive bacteria.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is Metoclopramide primarily indicated for?

    <p>Symptomatic treatment of nausea and vomiting</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Ciprofloxacin should not be used for extit{______} pneumonia.

    <p>pneumococcal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the drug with their primary common side effects:

    <p>Vancomycin = Nephrotoxicity Metoclopramide = Galactorrhoea Ciprofloxacin = Flatulence Procyclidine = Abort dystonic attacks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following bacteria is Ciprofloxacin particularly active against?

    <p>Pseudomonas</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Extrapyramidal effects from Metoclopramide are more common in older adults.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if a patient experiences tinnitus while on Vancomycin?

    <p>Discontinue Vancomycin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the preferred route of administration for prophylactic antibiotics in most surgeries?

    <p>Intravenous</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Postoperative continuation of antimicrobial prophylaxis beyond wound closure for cardiothoracic surgery is recommended.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the goal of antimicrobial dosing for surgical prophylaxis?

    <p>To maintain antibiotic concentrations above the MIC of suspected organisms.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The recommended administration time for most prophylactic antibiotics is within _____ minutes of skin incision.

    <p>60</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the type of thromboprophylaxis with their descriptions.

    <p>Mechanical devices = Thromboembolic deterrent stockings (TEDS) Drugs acting on the clotting cascade = Heparin and Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following agents can be used for oral bowel preparation?

    <p>Erythromycin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Patients with a history of deep vein thrombosis are not at risk for developing DVT during major surgery.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens if an operation exceeds two half-lives of the selected antimicrobial?

    <p>Another dose should be administered.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    After surgery, if no prophylaxis is given, _____% of patients over 40 years of age will develop DVT.

    <p>30</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is considered a disadvantage of combination antimicrobial therapy?

    <p>Increased risk of drug toxicity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the type of surgery with the appropriate antibiotic preparation:

    <p>Elective colon operation = Oral and/or parenteral antibiotics Emergency colon preparation = Intraoperative lavage and parenteral antibiotics</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of fondaparinux in thromboprophylaxis?

    <p>It reduces the risk of DVT without increasing the risk of bleeding.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Antibiotic administration is typically reliable when given orally for surgical prophylaxis.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When preparing for emergency colon surgery, a _____ catheter is used for intraoperative lavage.

    <p>balloon</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended fluid maintenance for children under 24 hours?

    <p>100mL/kg for the first 10kg, 50mL/kg for the next 10kg, and 20mL/kg thereafter</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Pregnant women should not receive IV fluids during surgery.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What fluid is recommended for resuscitation in cases of acute blood loss?

    <p>colloid or 0.9% saline</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Patients with liver failure should avoid using _______ for maintenance.

    <p>0.9% saline</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following medications with their primary usage:

    <p>Tramadol = Pain management (moderate to severe) Acetaminophen = Mild to moderate pain or pyrexia Ranitidine = Gastric acid reduction Omeprazole = Gastric acid inhibition</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the appropriate fluid challenge volume for a patient with heart failure?

    <p>250mL 0.9% saline over 1 hour</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Severe burns require minimal fluid resuscitation.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the common side effects of Tramadol?

    <p>Malaise</p> Signup and view all the answers

    _____ patients on steroids may require additional corticosteroid cover during surgery.

    <p>Surgery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug is used to inhibit gastric acid secretion?

    <p>Omeprazole</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Ceftriaxone is a third generation cephalosporin with greater activity against Gram-positive bacteria than cefuroxime.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of vancomycin?

    <p>To provide bactericidal activity against Gram-positive bacteria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the drugs with the conditions they treat:

    <p>Ceftriaxone = Meningitis Ranitidine = Gastro-esophageal reflux disease Tramadol = Post-operative pain management Omeprazole = Eradication of Helicobacter pylori</p> Signup and view all the answers

    _____ should be given prior to induction in major surgery for patients on corticosteroids.

    <p>100mg hydrocortisone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Surgical Prophylaxis

    • Prophylactic antibiotics are administered before contamination of sterile tissues to prevent infection.
    • Common surgical pathogens:
      • Clean procedures: Skin flora, including S.aureus and coagulase-negative staphylococci
      • Clean-contaminated procedures: Gram-negative rods, enterococci, and skin flora
    • Antimicrobial selection:
      • Depends on procedure type, likely pathogens, and antimicrobial safety and efficacy.
      • Gram-positive coverage is typically included.
      • Parenteral administration is preferred for reliable tissue concentrations.
      • First-generation cephalosporins (e.g., cefazolin) are commonly used.
      • Vancomycin can be used for procedures involving prosthetic implants with high MRSA rates.
      • Clindamycin can be used instead of cefazolin for β-lactam hypersensitivity.

    Types of Surgical Operations

    • Clean: Uninfected wounds, no inflammation, no entry to respiratory, alimentary, genital, or urinary tracts.
    • Clean-contaminated: Entry to respiratory, alimentary, genital, or urinary tracts under controlled conditions.
    • Contaminated: Open, fresh, accidental wounds, or significant breaks in sterile technique.
    • Dirty: Preexisting infection (abscess, pus, or necrotic tissue).

    Principles of Antimicrobial Prophylaxis

    • Route of administration: Intravenous is preferred for reliable serum and tissue concentrations.
      • Oral administration is used in some bowel procedures and can be used adjunctively.
    • Timing of first dose: Most guidelines recommend administration within 60 minutes of skin incision.
      • Fluoroquinolones and glycopeptides should be started 120 minutes before incision.
    • Dosing: The goal is to maintain antibiotic concentrations above the MIC of suspected organisms for the duration of the operation.
    • Duration: Prophylaxis should not exceed 24 hours (24-48 hours for cardiothoracic surgery).

    Combination Antimicrobial Therapy

    • Broadens coverage, achieves synergistic activity, and prevents resistance.
    • Disadvantages: Increased cost, drug toxicity, and risk of superinfection with resistant bacteria.

    Thromboprophylaxis

    • Deep venous thrombosis (DVT) is common in patients over 40 undergoing major surgery.
    • Prophylaxis is recommended to prevent DVT and pulmonary thromboembolism (PTE).
    • Types of thromboprophylaxis: Mechanical devices (e.g., TED stockings) and drugs (e.g., heparin, LMWH, fondaparinux).

    Risk Groups for DVT

    • All patients are at risk.
    • Assessment for risk factors is required on admission and after 24 hours in hospital.
      • Procedure factors: Prolonged anesthesia, lower limb or pelvic surgery
      • Patient factors: Immobility, malignancy, age, dehydration, obesity, and medical conditions.
    • Bleeding risks should be balanced against thromboprophylaxis.

    Preoperative Bowel Preparation

    • Elective colon operation:
      • Mechanical preparation: Whole gut lavage or standard cleansing
      • Antibiotic preparation: Oral or parenteral antibiotics
    • Emergency colon preparation:
      • Intraoperative lavage
      • Parenteral antibiotics

    Intravenous Fluid Therapy

    • Fluids should be given if oral intake is insufficient.
      • Aim for 2500mL fluid containing 100mmol Na+ and 70mmol K+ per 24 hours.
    • Special cases:
      • Acute blood loss: Resuscitate with colloid or saline until blood is available
      • Children: Dextrose-saline for fluid management
      • Elderly: Use IV fluids with care to avoid overload
      • GI losses: Replace lost fluid and electrolytes
      • Heart failure: Use IV fluids with caution
      • Liver failure: Use salt-poor albumin or blood for resuscitation
      • Acute pancreatitis: Aggressive fluid resuscitation is needed
      • Poor urine output: Give a fluid challenge and ensure catheter function

    Surgery in Those on Steroids

    • Patients on steroids may not have a normal adrenal response to surgery due to HPA axis suppression.
    • Extra corticosteroid cover may be required depending on the type of surgery.
    • Consider covering for patients taking >5mg/d of prednisolone (or equivalent) for >2 weeks or those who have had their dose reduced recently.
    • There is potential for HPA suppression in patients taking high-dose inhaled or topical corticosteroids.

    Drugs Commonly Used in Surgical Operations

    • Analgesics:

      • Tramadol hydrochloride: Opioid analgesic with fewer side effects compared to other opioids.
      • Acetaminophen (Paracetamol): Non-opioid analgesic for mild to moderate pain.
    • Gastrointestinal Drugs:

      • Ranitidine: H2-receptor antagonist for reducing gastric acid output.
      • Omeprazole: Proton pump inhibitor for inhibiting gastric acid secretion.
    • Antibiotics:

      • Ceftriaxone and Cefotaxime: Third-generation cephalosporins with broad-spectrum activity.
      • Meropenem: Carbapenem with good activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
      • Vancomycin: Glycopeptide antibiotic with bactericidal activity against Gram-positive bacteria.
      • Ciprofloxacin: Quinolone active against both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria.
    • Anti-emetics:

      • Metoclopramide: Dopamine receptor antagonist for nausea and vomiting.

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    Description

    This quiz covers the key concepts of surgical prophylaxis, including the use of prophylactic antibiotics to prevent infection in various surgical procedures. You will learn about common surgical pathogens, antimicrobial selection, and the types of surgical operations based on cleanliness. Test your knowledge to ensure best practices in surgical care.

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