Surface Danger Zones Flashcards
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Questions and Answers

Who is the overall deviation authority for AR 685-63 and D A Pam 685-63?

DAS

Where do you find Range Safety Policy for the Army?

AR 385-63

What deviation authority is responsible for maintaining a central registry of deviations granted?

Macom

What should Range Safety programs enhance?

<p>Safe and realistic live fire training</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who is responsible for the safe conduct of Soldiers involved in training operations?

<p>Senior Commanders</p> Signup and view all the answers

SDZs will be prepared and updated in accordance with the ___________ for all munitions and lasers.

<p>D A Pam 385-63</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a round exits an approved SDZ, firing that munition and weapon system will cease locally until the _________ has been determined.

<p>Cause of Round out of Impact</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who is the approval authority for the firing of depleted uranium munitions in training?

<p>DCS, G-3/5/7, and ACSIM</p> Signup and view all the answers

The decision to use non DOD property for live fire exercises must be approved by who?

<p>Macom</p> Signup and view all the answers

When conducting range operations outside the US, operations will be conducted in accordance with AR 685-63 and D A Pam 685-63 and or host nation regulation as required by the provisions of ___________ or ____________ which ever is stricter.

<p>Status of Forces Agreement or Visiting Forces Agreement</p> Signup and view all the answers

Army Senior Commanders can deviate from the standards of AR 385-63 and D A Pam 385-63 unless it conflicts with the limitations listed in what paragraph of AR 385-63?

<p>2-8</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who can an Army Commanding General not lower than installation commander further sub-delegate his deviation authority to?

<p>No one</p> Signup and view all the answers

Deviations are limited to what 3 categories?

<p>Reduce, Modify, and Allow</p> Signup and view all the answers

When obtaining a deviation for reducing a SDZ, _______, _________ or other _________ must make the smaller area safe.

<p>When Terrain, artificial barriers or other compensating factors</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who is the lowest deviation authority authorized by AR 385-63 that can approve a deviation for allowing non-participating personnel not directly involved in training within the SDZ for the Army?

<p>Senior Commanders O7 and above</p> Signup and view all the answers

Approved deviations are valid for how long?

<p>One year</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where would you find the implementation guidance for range safety programs?

<p>D A Pam 385-63</p> Signup and view all the answers

D A Pam 385-63 prescribes range safety ________ and ________ to be used in conjunction with AR 385-63.

<p>Standards and Procedures</p> Signup and view all the answers

The standards outlined in the AR 385-63 and D A Pam 385-63 are _________ for actual combat conditions.

<p>Advisory</p> Signup and view all the answers

SDZs, in the D A Pam 385-63, represent the __________ safety standard.

<p>Minimum</p> Signup and view all the answers

Request for a deviation will originate from the ___________ conducting the event or the RCO.

<p>Unit or activity</p> Signup and view all the answers

What person or unit establishes, monitors, and documents the installation safety certification process for RSOs and OICs?

<p>The installation RCO</p> Signup and view all the answers

What person or unit is responsible for integrating risk management for all range operations?

<p>The Battalion/Squadron Commander</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the qualifications to be an RSO on a live fire range using organic weapons, squad through company, battery, or troop?

<p>E6 and above, Weapon system qualified and Range Safety Certified</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the qualifications to be an OIC on a live fire range using organic weapons, squad through company, battery, or troop?

<p>E7 and above, Weapon system knowledgeable and Range Safety Certified</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the qualifications to be a RSO on a live fire range using organic weapons, at Battalion level exercises?

<p>E7 and above, Weapon system qualified and Range Safety Certified</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the qualifications to be an OIC on a live fire range using organic weapons, at Battalion level exercises?

<p>Field Grade Officer and above, Weapon system knowledgeable and Range Safety Certified</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who is authorized to reduce the minimum grade of OIC and/or RSO by not more than one grade?

<p>The Senior Commander</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ground mounted or vehicle mounted small arms may be used to provide low angle flanking fire when a minimum angle of ________ between the limit of fire and exposed troops is maintained.

<p>15°</p> Signup and view all the answers

When developing a SDZ for firing small arms, machine guns and shotguns firing at a fixed ground target, Area A will equal _________.

<p>100 Meters</p> Signup and view all the answers

When firing blank small arms and machine gun ammunition, a safe separation distance of __________ will be maintained.

<p>5 meters</p> Signup and view all the answers

Unit Master Gunners in conjunction with range safety personnel will ensure targets are emplaced at or less than _______________.

<p>5° Quadrant Elevation</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who is responsible for ensuring that weapon systems in a firing status are pointed towards the impact area, at or less than 5° elevation?

<p>Tank Commanders</p> Signup and view all the answers

What SDZ areas are not required when firing inert practice projectiles at soft targets?

<p>Area A and Area B</p> Signup and view all the answers

Distance X for Tank Fighting vehicle gunnery SDZs is based off ______________.

<p>10° Quadrant Elevation</p> Signup and view all the answers

The ricochet area for Tank Gunnery SDZs is comprised of what variables?

<p>Angle P and Distance W</p> Signup and view all the answers

When drawing a SDZ for the Aim Test, using API-T ammunition, the SDZ will be constructed as shown in figure ______ and the dimensions in table ________ will be used based on munition and caliber.

<p>Figure 8-2 and Table 8-16</p> Signup and view all the answers

When conducting live fire exercises with smoke grenade launchers, can a deviation be granted for allowing non-participating personnel within the SDZ?

<p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

Define Area A

<p>The secondary danger area that laterally parallels the impact area or ricochet area and contains fragments, debris, and components from frangible or explosive projectiles and warheads functioning on the right or left edge of the impact or ricochet area.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Define Area B

<p>The secondary danger area on the downrange side of the impact area or ricochet area and contains fragments, debris, and components from frangible or explosive projectiles and warheads functioning on the far edge of the impact or ricochet area.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Define the dispersion area

<p>The area within the danger zone located between the gun target line and the ricochet area. This area accounts for human error, gun or cannon tube wear, propellant temperature and so forth.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Define the ricochet area

<p>The area designed to contain projectiles after making initial contact with the medium.</p> Signup and view all the answers

The ricochet area for a small arms batwing SDZ is comprised of what variables?

<p>Angle P, Angle Q, Distance Y and Distance W</p> Signup and view all the answers

On ranges that do not permit cross-range firing _____________ must be used.

<p>Internal left and right limit of fire markers with both visual and thermal signatures</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of small arms SDZ should be used when developing SDZs for ranges that will have fire and movement, or where ricochet hazards outside the range complex boundary may endanger non-participating personnel or the general public?

<p>Batwing</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the distances, laterally and downrange, of the Sabot discarding hazard from firing SLAP type Ammunition?

<p>50 meters downrange and 10 meters to the left and right of the gun target line</p> Signup and view all the answers

When constructing a tank range, what three options do you have if one of your targets is not at 5° quadrant elevation?

<p>Move the Target, Move the Firing Position or Request a Deviation</p> Signup and view all the answers

Define a deviation

<p>A departure from the requirements listed in AR 385-63 or D A Pam 385-63</p> Signup and view all the answers

The goal of a danger zone is to __________ munitions and hazardous _________ with the probability of escapement from the danger zone not to exceed ________.

<p>Contain munitions, hazardous fragments, not to exceed 1 in 1,000,000</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is PPE level 1?

<p>ACUs and Hearing protection</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is PPE level 2?

<p>ACUs, Hearing protection, Body Armor and Helmet</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is PPE level 3?

<p>ACUs, Hearing protection, Body Armor with front and back E-Sapi and Helmet</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is PPE level 4?

<p>ACUs, Hearing protection, Body Armor with front, back and side E-Sapi and Helmet</p> Signup and view all the answers

Define a laser

<p>A device capable of producing a narrow beam of intense light</p> Signup and view all the answers

Define Area T

<p>The area within an established Laser SDZ, measured from the laser device to T meters downrange where no object will be lazed.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the possible injuries that could happen if a person stood within the NOHD when a laser device was fired?

<p>Eye injuries</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the possible injuries that could happen if a person stood within the NOHD magnified, without magnifying optics, when a laser device was fired?

<p>None</p> Signup and view all the answers

Define Area S

<p>The radius of value S of a laser target, from which all spectrally reflective surfaces must be removed, covered, painted or destroyed before lazing operations commence.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Define NOHD

<p>The intra-beam distance within which the laser beam's irradiance or radiant exposure falls below the applicable exposure limit</p> Signup and view all the answers

Define NOHD magnified

<p>The Nominal Ocular Hazard Distance for intra-beam viewing through 7 by 50 power binoculars</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are all the variables or areas that comprise or make up a LSDZ?

<p>Area T, Area S, NOHD and NOHD magnified</p> Signup and view all the answers

The optimal use of _______ is the obvious key to minimizing laser hazards.

<p>Backstops</p> Signup and view all the answers

Define a laser backstop

<p>Opaque structures or terrain in the controlled area of a LSDZ such as a hill, dense tree line or a windowless building that would completely obstruct and view beyond it and completely terminate a laser beam that may miss a target.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Define a specularly reflective surface

<p>A mirror-like surface capable of reflecting a laser beam.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the organ that is most vulnerable to injury from a laser device?

<p>Eyes</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the possible injuries if a person stood within Area T when a laser device was fired?

<p>Eyes and Skin</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what chapter of D A Pam 385-63 would you find SDZs for small arms ammunition?

<p>Chapter 4</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what chapter of D A Pam 385-63 would you find SDZs for 120 millimeter Tank Main Gun Ammunition?

<p>Chapter 8</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the 3 Danger Zones?

<p>Weapon, Surface and Laser</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where are warning signs emplaced?

<p>Spread out with a distance of 200 meters or less between them.</p> Signup and view all the answers

When firing smoke grenades from the tank, what PPE level is required?

<p>PPE level 1</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum headwind allowed for firing smoke grenades?

<p>12 miles per hour</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is Angle P?

<p>The angle beginning at the firing point, located to the left and right of the dispersion area, which defines the area that contains projectiles after making initial contact with the target medium.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is Area A?

<p>The secondary danger area that laterally parallels the impact area or ricochet area and contains fragments, debris, and components from frangible or explosive projectiles and warheads functioning on the right or left edge of the impact area or ricochet area.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is Area B?

<p>The secondary danger area on the downrange side of the impact area and Area A which contains fragments, debris, and components from frangible or exploding projectiles and warheads functioning on the far edge of the impact area and Area A.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is Area Q?

<p>The angle beginning at distance Y, located to the left and right of the dispersion area, which defines the area which contains projectiles after making initial contact with the impact medium.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the Dispersion Area?

<p>The area within the SDZ located between the GTL and the ricochet area. This area accounts for human error, gun or cannon tube wear, propellant temperature, and so forth.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is distance W?

<p>The maximum lateral distance a projectile will ricochet after impacting within the dispersion area. Distance W defines the maximum lateral edge of the ricochet area.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is distance X?

<p>The maximum distance a projectile will travel when fired at a given quadrant elevation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Study Notes

General Authority and Policy

  • DAS is the overall deviation authority for AR 685-63 and DA Pam 685-63.
  • AR 385-63 contains the Range Safety Policy for the Army.
  • MACOM is responsible for a central registry of granted deviations.

Range Safety Programs

  • Range Safety programs are mandatory for all ranges to enhance realistic live fire training.
  • Programs protect personnel and property while improving combat readiness and minimizing explosive hazards.
  • Senior Commanders are accountable for the safe conduct of Soldiers during training.

Deviation and Safety Procedures

  • SDZs must be prepared and updated according to DA Pam 385-63 for all munitions and lasers.
  • Firing will cease if a round exits an approved SDZ until the cause is determined.
  • Deviations can only be approved by the Senior Commanders; they cannot delegate their authority.

Responsibilities and Qualifications

  • Army Senior Commanders can deviate from standards in AR 385-63 with specific limitations.
  • RSOs must be E6 and above; OICs must be E7 and above for live fire ranges.
  • For Battalion-level exercises, RSOs must be E7 and OICs must be Field Grade Officers or higher.

Safety Zones and Areas

  • Area A is the secondary danger area containing fragments from projectiles.
  • Area B is downrange, containing fragments from projectiles functioning at the far edge of the impact or ricochet area.
  • The dispersion area compensates for human error and other variables between the gun target line and ricochet area.

Equipment and Hazards

  • PPE levels range from level 1 (ACUs and hearing protection) to level 4 (full body armor and helmet).
  • The minimum angle of firing weapons to ensure safety is 15° between the limit of fire and exposed troops.
  • Training exercises with smoke grenades require at least PPE level 1.

Laser and Safety Measures

  • NOHD refers to the nominal ocular hazard distance for laser exposure.
  • Area T defines where no objects should be lazed to prevent injury.
  • Specularly reflective surfaces must be removed prior to lazing operations to mitigate hazards.

Miscellaneous

  • Warning signs must be placed no more than 200 meters apart within danger zones.
  • Deviations for non-participating personnel within the SDZ can be granted for certain exercises.
  • The goal of a danger zone is to contain munitions and hazardous fragments with an escapement probability not exceeding 1 in 1,000,000.

Definitions

  • A deviation is any departure from requirements in AR 385-63 or DA Pam 385-63.
  • The ricochet area is designed to contain projectiles after initial contact.
  • Angle P defines the area containing projectiles post impact with the target medium.

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Test your knowledge on the Surface Danger Zones with these flashcards. This quiz covers key terms and definitions related to Army regulations, including the overall deviation authority and range safety policies. A perfect way to enhance your understanding of safety procedures in military environments.

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