Sulfonamides: Key Concepts
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Questions and Answers

Sulfonamides exert their bacteriostatic effect by interfering with which metabolic process in sensitive microorganisms?

  • Interference with folic acid synthesis, essential for bacterial growth and metabolism. (correct)
  • Direct inhibition of DNA replication by intercalating into the DNA structure.
  • Disruption of bacterial cell wall synthesis through inhibiting peptidoglycan cross-linking.
  • Inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit.

Why are sulfonamides no longer the first-line therapy for urinary tract infections (UTIs) in many cases?

  • They are only effective against gram-positive bacteria, while most UTIs are caused by gram-negative bacteria.
  • A significant percentage of UTIs are now caused by sulfonamide-resistant microorganisms. (correct)
  • Sulfonamides have been shown to have a high incidence of causing opportunistic fungal infections in the urinary tract.
  • They cause irreversible nephrotoxicity, making them unsafe for long-term use.

A patient taking sulfonamides is advised to maintain a high urine output. What is the primary reason for this advice?

  • To prevent crystalluria, a common adverse effect associated with sulfonamide use. (correct)
  • To reduce the risk of developing a secondary bacterial infection in the urinary tract.
  • To minimize the drug's potential to cause liver damage.
  • To enhance the drug's efficacy by increasing its concentration in the urinary tract.

Sulfonamides can interact with several other drugs due to their high protein binding. Which of the following is a potential consequence of a sulfonamide interaction with warfarin?

<p>Increased risk of bleeding due to displacement of warfarin from albumin. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are sulfonamides contraindicated or used with caution in pregnant women?

<p>They increase the risk of neural tube defects due to folic acid antagonism. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with G6PD deficiency is prescribed a sulfonamide. What is the most significant risk associated with this drug combination?

<p>Increased risk of hemolytic anemia due to oxidative stress on red blood cells. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient develops a widespread blistering rash after starting sulfonamide therapy. Which severe adverse reaction is most likely?

<p>Stevens-Johnson syndrome. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structural feature is essential for the antimicrobial activity of sulfonamides?

<p>Direct linkage of a sulfur atom to the benzene ring. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antiviral agent is primarily indicated for the treatment of CMV retinitis?

<p>Ganciclovir (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with herpes zoster (shingles). To maximize the efficacy of antiviral treatment, within what timeframe should famciclovir therapy be initiated?

<p>Within 72 hours of eruption (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following scenarios would warrant against the use of valacyclovir due to potential adverse effects?

<p>An immunocompromised patient with recurrent herpes simplex infections (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of action by which nucleoside analogues exert their antiviral effects?

<p>Interfering with viral DNA synthesis and replication (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

To reduce the risk of neurotoxicity and nephrotoxicity associated with acyclovir or valacyclovir, what precaution is most important, especially in patients with renal insufficiency?

<p>Ensuring adequate hydration and adjusting the drug dosage (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A healthcare provider is considering prescribing an antiviral medication for a pregnant woman with a herpes simplex virus (HSV) outbreak. Based on safety profiles during pregnancy, which of the following is generally considered the safest choice?

<p>Acyclovir (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A new mother who is breastfeeding requires antiviral treatment for a recurrent herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection. Which antiviral agent is generally considered the safest option for use during breastfeeding?

<p>Acyclovir (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed acyclovir for herpes simplex virus (HSV) suppression therapy. After a few weeks, the patient reports experiencing persistent headaches and mild nausea. What is the most appropriate initial course of action?

<p>Reduce the dosage of acyclovir and monitor the patient's symptoms (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of frequent herpes simplex virus (HSV) outbreaks is considering chronic suppressive therapy with acyclovir. How long has chronic acyclovir suppression been safely used for?

<p>Up to 10 years (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is oral valacyclovir often preferred over oral acyclovir for the treatment of herpes zoster?

<p>Valacyclovir is converted to acyclovir in the body and achieves higher serum concentrations (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are fluoroquinolones contraindicated for use in children under 16, pregnant women, and breastfeeding mothers?

<p>There's a lack of comprehensive studies on their safety, coupled with potential risks of harm to these individuals. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An elderly patient (>60) taking corticosteroids is prescribed a fluoroquinolone. What specific risk should the healthcare provider be most concerned about?

<p>Significantly higher chance of tendonitis and subsequent tendon rupture. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with end-stage renal disease requires antibiotic therapy. Considering the ADME (absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion) properties of fluoroquinolones, what is the most important factor to consider when prescribing this medication?

<p>Renal clearance is a major route of elimination, making dosage adjustments essential to avoid drug accumulation and toxicity. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are glycopeptides, such as vancomycin, administered orally to treat Clostridium difficile colitis?

<p>Systemic glycopeptides do not reach high enough concentration in the colon. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed vancomycin for a MRSA infection. What is the most critical consideration regarding the spectrum of activity of vancomycin?

<p>Vancomycin is primarily effective against gram-positive bacteria only; gram-negative organisms are inherently resistant. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking an antidiabetic agent concurrently begins fluoroquinolone therapy. What potential drug interaction should be closely monitored?

<p>Potential for hypo- or hyperglycemic events, requiring careful blood glucose monitoring. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on multiple medications, including amiodarone, is prescribed a fluoroquinolone. What is the primary concern regarding this drug combination?

<p>Synergistic prolongation of the QT interval, elevating the risk of Torsade's de pointes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoing a solid-organ transplant is prescribed a fluoroquinolone for a severe infection. Taking into account all risk factors, what specific adverse effect needs careful monitoring?

<p>Elevated susceptibility to tendon damage or rupture, exacerbated by immunosuppressant medications. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports experiencing confusion and headache shortly after starting fluoroquinolone therapy. What action should the healthcare provider prioritize?

<p>Assess for other common side effects and consider temporarily discontinuing the medication, pending symptom evaluation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately contrasts avibactam and relebactam's mechanisms of action?

<p>Avibactam and relebactam both inhibit narrow, extended-spectrum β-lactamase (ESBL)-type, chromosomal AmpC, and KPC-type β-lactamases. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a resistant bacterial infection. Current literature indicates resistance is increasing to fluoroquinolones for all the following organisms EXCEPT:

<p>Staphylococcus aureus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is piperacillin/tazobactam considered to have the broadest spectrum of activity among penicillins?

<p>It is active against a wide range of organisms, including MRSA, <em>H. influenzae</em>, <em>B. fragilis</em>, and most <em>E. coli</em> and <em>Klebsiella</em> strains. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the mechanism of action of vaborbactam differ from that of tazobactam?

<p>Vaborbactam is a boronic acid-based β-lactamase inhibitor, while tazobactam is a β-lactamase inhibitor with activity against plasmid-mediated β-lactamases. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key pharmacological characteristic of tazobactam when used in combination therapy?

<p>Tazobactam has good activity against many plasmid-mediated β-lactamases, including some extended-spectrum classes. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the mechanism by which penicillinase-resistant penicillins (e.g., nafcillin, oxacillin) combat bacterial resistance?

<p>They evade inactivation by bacterial penicillinase enzymes, maintaining their antibacterial activity. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do avibactam, relebactam, and vaborbactam enhance the efficacy of their co-administered antibiotics?

<p>By inhibiting a broad spectrum of β-lactamases, thus protecting the co-administered antibiotics from degradation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is penicillin G typically preferred over penicillin V in certain clinical scenarios?

<p>Penicillin G/PCN V-active against sensitive strains of gram + cocci, but ineffective against most strains of S.aureus. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In treating a patient with a confirmed Acinetobacter spp. infection resistant to multiple drugs, which beta-lactamase inhibitor-containing regimen might be considered, and why?

<p>A high dosage of tazobactam combined with ampicillin, given tazobactam's intrinsic activity against <em>Acinetobacter</em> spp. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a severe infection caused by methicillin-susceptible Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA). Which penicillin-based antibiotic would be most appropriate for initial treatment?

<p>Dicloxacillin, as it resists degradation by staphylococcal penicillinase. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the chemical structure of penicillins relate to their mechanism of action?

<p>The β-lactam ring is opened by bacterial enzymes, forming a stable acyl-enzyme derivative that inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient receiving vancomycin intravenously develops hypotension and flushing. What is the most appropriate initial nursing intervention?

<p>Slow the vancomycin infusion rate and administer antihistamines. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which monitoring parameter is MOST critical to assess in a patient receiving long-term vancomycin therapy, given the drug's potential for adverse effects?

<p>Renal function tests, such as serum creatinine and BUN levels. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are allergy history assessments crucial before administering vancomycin, beyond the general importance of allergy checks for all medications?

<p>Legal and malpractice risks are particularly high with vancomycin allergy-related incidents. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Current guidelines recommend monitoring vancomycin therapy using AUC (Area Under the Curve) targeting between 400 and 600 mg*h/L for serious MRSA infections. Why is AUC monitoring preferred over trough level monitoring?

<p>AUC monitoring directly reflects the total drug exposure over time and better predicts efficacy. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following antifungal medications is MOST appropriately used for the treatment of invasive aspergillosis?

<p>Voriconazole (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with cryptococcal meningitis is being treated with fluconazole for secondary prophylaxis. What is the primary goal of this treatment strategy?

<p>To prevent recurrence of the cryptococcal meningitis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is ketoconazole primarily used topically rather than systemically?

<p>Systemic administration is associated with a higher risk of drug interactions and adverse effects. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Vancomycin uses

Used for skin/soft-tissue, bone/joint, respiratory tract, CNS infections, endocarditis & vascular catheter infections.

Vancomycin Side Effects

Phlebosclerotic (irritating to tissue), rare nephrotoxicity & ototoxicity, hypotension & 'Red Man Syndrome'.

Vancomycin Allergy Check

Assess patient's allergy history. High risk of lawsuits if ignored.

Vancomycin Dosing Goal

Targeting an area under the curve between 400 and 600 mg*h/L for serious MRSA infections.

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Azole Categories

Azole antifungals are categorized into imidazoles and triazoles.

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Fluconazole (Diflucan):

Effective against Candida and Cryptococcus, used for mucocutaneous candidiasis and secondary prophylaxis of cryptococcal meningitis.

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Ketoconazole Use

Ketoconazole is mainly used topically.

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Sulfonamides

Para-aminobenzenesulfonamide derivatives; act on bacteria synthesizing their own folic acid.

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Bacteriostatic

Inhibits bacterial growth without killing them directly.

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Sulfonamide uses

Primarily used for UTIs, nocardiosis, and toxoplasmosis.

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Sulfonamide Absorption

Absorbed rapidly, reaching peak plasma levels in 2-6 hours. Excreted in urine.

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Sulfonamide Side Effects

Rash, fever, GI upset. Severe: SJS, vasculitis, hemolytic anemia (G6PD deficiency).

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Preventative measure for Crystalluria

Encourage 1200ml urine output daily. Increases risk for defects.

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Sulfonamide Interactions

Anticoagulants, sulfonylurea hypoglycemic agents, and hydantoin anticonvulsants.

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Sulfonamides & Pregnancy

Folic acid antagonist during pregnancy increases risk of defects.

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Antiviral Drug Action

Antiviral drugs must either block entry into cells or be active inside host cells to be effective.

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Nucleoside Analogues: MOA

Inhibit viral DNA synthesis and replication.

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Acyclovir (Zovirax) Target

Active against HSV-1, HSV-2, VZV, EBV, CMV, and HSV-6

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Valacyclovir (Valtrex)

Converted to acyclovir after oral administration; more effective against VZV.

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Famciclovir (Famvir)

Active against HSV-1, HSV-2, VZV, EBV, and hepatitis B virus.

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Penciclovir

Topical treatment for HSV or VZV infections.

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Ganciclovir & Valganciclovir

Active against CMV and all herpes viruses; indicated for CMV retinitis.

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Acyclovir Use: HSV

Treats initial outbreaks and suppression therapy for herpes simplex virus.

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Acyclovir Use: Shingles

Start within 3 days of the outbreak to treat herpes zoster (shingles).

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Acyclovir/Valacyclovir: SE

N/V/D, HA, neuro/nephrotoxicity (rare).

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Tendon Rupture Risk

Possible side effect of Fluoroquinolones, especially in patients over 60.

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Fluoroquinolone Resistance

Resistance is increasing among MRSA, gonorrhea, Pseudomonas, E. coli, and others.

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Fluoroquinolone Absorption

Well-absorbed orally with high volume of distribution.

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Fluoroquinolone Excretion

Requires dosage adjustment in renal failure due to renal clearance.

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Common Glycopeptides

Vancomycin, Teicoplanin, Telavancin, Dalbavancin, Oritavancin.

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Glycopeptide MOA

Inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis in gram-positive bacteria; bactericidal.

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Glycopeptide Uses

Clostridium difficile colitis (oral), skin/soft tissue, bone/joint, respiratory, CNS infections; endocarditis.

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Gram-Negative Bacteria

They are resistant.

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Vancomycin Effectiveness

MRSA, streptococci, and enterococci.

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Glycopeptides Uses

Effective against the majority of gram + bacteria

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Tazobactam

Inhibits many plasmid-mediated β-lactamases, including some extended-spectrum types, available with piperacillin and ceftolozane.

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Avibactam & Relebactam

Non-β-lactam β-lactamase inhibitors effective against narrow, extended-spectrum, AmpC, and KPC-type β-lactamases; co-formulated with ceftazidime or imipenem/cilastatin.

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Vaborbactam

A non-β-lactam β-lactamase inhibitor that provides broad inhibition of β-lactamases. It is co-formulated with meropenem.

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Piperacillin & Ticarcillin

Extended-spectrum penicillins effective against Pseudomonas, E. coli, and Klebsiella.

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PCN Structure

PCN consists of a thiazolidine ring connected to a β-lactam ring attached to a side chain.

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PCN G/PCN V

Active against sensitive strains of gram + cocci but ineffective against most S. aureus.

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Penicillinase-resistant PCNs

Preferred for penicillinase-producing S. aureus and S. epidermidis (MSSA).

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PCN Mechanism of Action

Blocks bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs)

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Piperacillin/tazobactam Spectrum

Has the broadest spectrum of all PCNs, including activity against MRSA, H influenzae, B fragilis, most E. coli, and Klebsiella

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Beta-lactamases

Enzymes produced by bacteria that inactivate penicillins by cleaving the beta-lactam ring.

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Study Notes

  • When prescribing, avoid over-prescribing antibiotics as some conditions like URI are commonly viral
  • Distinguish between when to prescribe broad-spectrum antibiotics versus when to prescribe based on culture and sensitivity results (C&S)
  • Diagnostic tests associated with antibiotic stewardship and drug monitoring include cultures, Vancomycin trough levels, and assessing renal and liver function

Infectious Agents

Tetracyclines

  • Common tetracyclines available for systemic use in the U.S. include Demeclocycline, tetracycline, minocycline, and doxycycline
  • Mechanism of Action (MOA): inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 30S bacterial ribosome, preventing aminoacyl tRNA access
  • Broad-spectrum bacteriostatic drugs, generally considered second-line choices
  • Active against MSSA and MRSA, contrary to general use for Staph/Strep infections
  • Typically bacteriostatic with a broad spectrum of activity but are more effective agaisnt gram-positive microorganisms
  • Doxycycline treats atypical community-acquired pneumonia, prevents malaria, and serves as an alternative for syphilis caused by Treponema pallidum
  • Minocycline treats acne
  • Glycylcyclines like Tigecycline (Tygacil) is effective against Enterobacteriaceae, Acinetobacter, and B. fragilis, for organisms resistant to tetracycline
  • Tetracycline activity varies by pathogen, and resistance has been observed
  • Effective against S. pneumoniae, H.influenzae, mycoplasma and chlamydophilia pneumonia
  • Doxycycline is no longer recommended for gonococcal infections due to resistance, but can treat chlamydia as well as Epididymitis (Rocephin + doxycycline)
  • Side effects include GI distress, photosensitivity, hepatic and renal toxicity, leukocytosis, and tooth discoloration in children and fetal bone problems
  • Black Box Warning: readily bind to calcium in newly formed bone or teeth, causing discoloration and enamel dysplasia, and retardation of fetal bone growth
  • Tetracyclines are avoided in pregnancy due to risks of deformity and growth inhibition -Potentiate warfarin and can cause rare hepatotoxicity
  • Distribute widely, including urine, prostate, and tissues
  • Calcium, antacids, and minerals form chelates and interfere with tetracycline absorption
  • Tetracycline elimination pathways vary, requiring dose adjustments
  • Effective against Streptococcal pneumoniae, Bacillus anthracis, Clostridium tetani, Brucella (brucellosis), Helicobacter pylori, and more

Sulfonamides

  • Common medications include Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim/DS)

  • MOA: competitively inhibits dihydropteroate synthase, blocking folic acid synthesis

  • Have antimicrobial activity against Gram + and Gram - bacteria, and parasites, but many strains of E.coli are resistant

  • Sulfur must be directly linked to the benzene ring for sensitivity

  • Highly protein-bound (albumin)

  • No longer first choice for UTIs, but TMP-SMX preferred

  • Treat Nocardiosis and Toxoplasmosis

  • Treat E.coli, S. pyogenese, S.pneumonia, H. influenza, and some protozoa

  • Absorbed rapidly from the GI tract, with 70-100% absorption and peak levels achieved in typically 2 - 6 hours

  • Adverse Reactions: may take a week to manifest unless previously sensitized; primarily derm hypersensitivity reactions; rashes, fever, GI

  • Black Box Warning: severe reactions include Steven-Johnson's syndrome, Vasculitis, Hemolytic anemia in patients with G6PD deficiency

  • Interact with anticoagulants, sulfonylurea hypoglycemic agents, and hydantoin anticonvulsants

  • Avoid use in pregnancy: increases risk for defects

  • Bactrim still has a high usage due to its effectiveness despite resistance and allergies

  • Trimethoprim (TMP) exerts a synergistic effect with sulfonamides; TMP inhibits bacterial dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR)

  • Coadministration of a sulfonamide and TMP (TMP-SMX) introduces sequential blocks for production of tetrahydrofolic acid

  • Figure 57-2 shows Steps in folate metabolism blocked by sulfonamides and trimethoprim

  • Effective against UTIs, Chronic Bronchitis, Acute OM in children and AC Maxillary Sinusitis in adults

  • Some use of GI infections (Shigella), Pneumocystis jiroveci in HIV, MRSA, Nocardia, and bacterial prostatitis

  • Contraindicated in CCr is <50ml/min and amplifies affect of sulfa drug, with high resistance to pseudomonas

Beta-lactam antibiotics (\u03B2-Lactams)

  • Includes PCN, cephalosporins, carbapenems, and monobactams with common structure (ẞ-lactam ring)

  • MOA: inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis by acylating the transpeptidase via cleavage of the ẞ-lactam ring as well as lytic and nonlytic mechanisms

  • Naturally active against aerobic, gram (+) organisms

  • Greater activity against Gram(-) bacteria (Ex: Ampicillin, Amoxicillin, Augmentin)

  • Mechanisms to Resistance: Alterations in PBP target, reduction of concentration at the target site, and enzymatic degradation of ẞ-lactam

  • Resistance mechanisms include mutations, acquisition of low-affinity PBPs, and enzymatic inactivation

  • Reduced penetration in gram-negative bacteria due to outer membrane barrier, active efflux pumps, and enzymatic inactivation via ẞ-lactamases produced by bacteria

  • Targets for the actions of beta-lactam antibiotics are known as penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) and induces loss of viability and lysis

  • Bacteria often develop resistance to ẞ-lactam antibiotics by synthesizing ẞ-lactamase, and overcomes by using of ẞ-lactamase inhibitors

  • ẞ-lactamase Inhibitors “protect” the ẞ-lactam from the ẞ-lactamase and prevent the enzymes from destruction

  • Clavulanic acid has poor intrinsic antimicrobial activity but binds ẞ-lactamases produced by gram-positive and gram-negative microorganisms -Sulbactam is similar to clavulanic acid for Acinetobacter spp. and high dosages

  • Tazobactam has good activity against many plasmid-mediated ẞ-lactamases and is available with piperacillin and ceftolozane

  • Avibactam and relebactam are structurally similar non-ẞ-lactam ẞ-lactamase inhibitors for narrow- and extended-spectrum ẞ-lactamase

  • Avibactam is co-formulated with ceftazidime, and relebactam with imipenem/cilastatin

  • Vaborbactam is a boronic acid-based non-ẞ-lactam ẞ-lactamase inhibitor that provides broad inhibition and co-formulated with meropenem

Penicillin's

  • Agents used for Pseudomonas, E.coli, Klebsiella and common with beta-lactamase inhibitors (tazobactam).

  • Pipracillin/tazobactam has the broadest spectrum of all PCNs including MRSA, H.influenza, B. fragilis, and most E.coli and Klebsiella

  • MOA: PCN consists of a thiazolidine ring connected to a ẞ-lactam ring attached to a side chain and classified by antimicrobial activity

  • PCN G/PCN V- active against strains of gram + cocci but ineffective against most S. aureus

  • Penicillinase-resistant PCN (nafcillin, dicloxacillin, oxacillin)- preferred agents for penicillinase-producing S. Aureus and Staphylococcus epidermis

  • Isoxazolyl Penicillins: Oxacillin, Cloxacillin, Dicloxacillin for resistant strains

  • Aminopenicillins (Ampicillin, amoxicillin)- cover gram +/-; can be compounded with clavulanate or sulbactam for A ẞ-lactamases; Effective for respiratory infections, urinary tract infections, enterococcal infections

  • Used as antibacterial prophylaxis for asplenic patients and Penicillin for rheumatic fever prophylaxis

  • Pnuemococcal infections require penicillin G for sensitive strains and Vancomycin and 3rd generation ceftriaxone for meningitis if resistance.

  • B-Hemolytic Streptococcal Infections used Penicillin V preferred with Penicillin reduces risk of rheumatic fever, but less impact on glomerulonephritis.

  • Other Streptococci and Enterococci Infections such Virdans group in endocarditis, Penicillin G is used for Gas gangrene and N. meningitidis

  • Syphilis is treated best with with Penicillin G with desensitization for penicillin-allergic pregnant women and long term therapy for Actinomycosis.

Cephalosporins

  • MOA: Inhibit bacterial synthesis, similar to penicillin, with different PBP binding profiles and lack of binding to essential PBPs in Enterococcus so the drug is innefective

  • Used in sinusitis, otitis media, gonorrhea, bronchitis, and skin infections

  • Therapeutic uses: skin and soft-tissue infections (Cefazolin for surgical prophylaxis) and meningitis

  • Ceftriaxone is excellent and used for gonorrhea, empiric treatment of meningitis

  • 1st Generation: For gram+ bacteria, E. coli, Klesiella, and Proteus. Cephalexin and cefadroxil.

  • 2nd Generation has both gram+ and gram- bacteria. Cefuroxime and cefaclor.

  • 3rd Generation has Gram- bacteria, B-Lactamase, and has weak Gram+ action. Ceftibuten and Cefixime

  • 4th generation has primarily Gram+ actions, and Ceftolazone/tazobactam

  • 5th Generation are Anti-MRSA and have structural modifications for altered PBPs.

Nucleoside analogues

  • MOA: antiviral drugs must either block entry into the cells or be active inside host cells to be effective, by Inhibition of DNA synthesis and replication
  • Acyclovir (Zovirax): treats HSV-1, HSV-2, varicella-zoster, Epstein-Barr, cytomegalovirus, and herpes virus 6
  • Valacyclovir (Valtrex) is converted to acyclovir after oral administration; more effective against VZV
  • Famciclovir (Famvir): treats HSV-1, HSV-2, VZV, EBV, and hepatitis B virus
  • Penciclovir: Topical tx for HSV or VZV infections
  • Ganciclovir & valganciclovir: are active against CMV and all herpes viruses. Indicated for CMV retinitis

Fluoroquinolones

  • Common generation Meds:
    • 2nd generation: Ciprofloxacin and Ofloxacin
    • 3rd Generation: Levofloxacin
    • 4th Generation: Moxifloxacin, Gemifloxacin, Delafloxacin
  • MOA: Target bacterial DNA gyrase and topiosomerase IV, which are enzymes essential for DNA replication
  • Not used for cellulitis, but it is used in UTIs, prostatitis, sexually transmitted diseases , GI and abdominal infections, respiratory tract infections, bone and joint infections, other infections.
  • -Administered for 4-6 whs for prostitis, or STDs with ofloxacin and Levofloxacin and for Travlers diarhea 1-3 days

Glycopeptides

  • Common Meds:(Vancomycin, Teicoplanin, Telavancin, Dalbavancin, Oritavancin)
  • MOA: bactericidal, Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis in gram-positive bacteria
  • Vancomycin indications include infections with Clostridium difficile colitis, Skin/soft tissue and Bone/joint infections CNS endocarditis and Vascular catheter infections
  • Allergy history must be assessed because it is a very high law suit and malpractice issue ★Black box: PT Education:

Azole antifungals

  • •Azole antifungals categorized into imidazoles and triazoles Available Azole Agents: -Ketoconazole: Replaced by itraconazole, mainly used topically.
  • Itraconazole: Triazole with a broad spectrum, especially active agains
  • Fluconazole: Effective against Candida and
  • Voriconazole: Superior efficacy against invasive apergillosis Treatment - - Approved for Prophylaxis
  • broad spectrum for Candida, asperigilillus cryptococcus, and mucormycosis.
  • treats thrush, yeast infections, and fungal infections.
  • Topical treatments - micronazole, clonrimazole
  • systemetic therapy with keto carries risk of hepatoxicity, so not used
  • Systemetic side effects includ minor GI issues, rarely serious liver issues.

AntiProtozoals

  • Treat ameobiasis with cornerstone with metronidazole, or timidazole to get anti-infection. if Colitis or liver abscess
  • Giardias: treat 5-7 days metronidazole
  • -Trichomoniasis
  • treat balbesosis

Helinth Infections

  • Treat nematode and cestode with albendazole and mebendazole
  • Side effects mostly mild gi effects monitor liver action

Ivermectin causes increased membrance permeablity to nerve and muscle cells and paralysis Death Treats :

  • Onchocerciasis, l filariasiastrongyloidiasisenterobiasis, cabieshead licTopical moxidectin and praziquantel drug of choice for treatment with schistomes and liverslucks

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Test your knowledge of sulfonamide antibiotics. Explore their mechanisms of action, clinical uses, and potential adverse effects. Learn about drug interactions and contraindications associated with sulfonamide therapy.

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