Staphylococcus Species Overview

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Questions and Answers

Which symptom is commonly associated with Toxic Shock Syndrome caused by Staphylococcus aureus?

  • Petechiae (correct)
  • Nausea and diarrhea
  • High blood pressure
  • Blistering of skin

What is the characteristic colony appearance of Staphylococcus aureus on NAM agar?

  • Greenish and slimy
  • Pink and smooth
  • Golden and convex (correct)
  • White and flat

Which test differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis?

  • Mannitol salt agar growth (correct)
  • Thioglycolate test
  • Catalase test
  • Gram staining

What would indicate a non-fermenter in Staphylococcus epidermidis growth on mannitol salt agar?

<p>Pink coloration (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which molecular test is commonly used to amplify genes associated with bacterial strains like MRSA?

<p>RT-PCR (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the Gram stain result for both Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis?

<p>Gram positive, cocci in cluster arrangement (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is Staphylococcus epidermidis commonly associated with in at-risk patients?

<p>Infective endocarditis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which test is NOT used to identify Staphylococcus epidermidis?

<p>Coagulase test (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary treatment for staphylococcal infections?

<p>Drain and clean infected areas with anti-bacterials (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following antibiotics is classified as a semi-synthetic penicillin?

<p>Dicloxacillin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of organism causes strep throat?

<p>Streptococcus pyogenes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following symptoms is commonly associated with Streptococcus pneumoniae infections?

<p>Respiratory distress (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is Vibrio cholerae primarily diagnosed?

<p>Culturing from stool or vomiting samples (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of agar is used for culturing Vibrio cholerae due to its specificity?

<p>Thiosulfate citrate bile salt sucrose agar (TCBS) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key symptom of Helicobacter pylori infection?

<p>Bloating and cramps (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a treatment option for food poisoning caused by Campylobacter jejuni?

<p>Food poisoning typically resolves self-limiting (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of Gram staining result is expected for Treponema pallidum?

<p>Gram-negative spirochetes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which stage of syphilis presents with a maculopapular rash?

<p>Secondary stage (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following antibiotics can develop resistance when treating Helicobacter pylori?

<p>Metronidazole (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What laboratory test confirms the presence of coagulase-negative Staphylococcus?

<p>Latex agglutination test (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main causative agent of cholera?

<p>Vibrio cholerae (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following tests is used to differentiate between lactose fermenters and non-fermenters?

<p>MacConkey agar (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary treatment for Herpes Zoster?

<p>Acyclovir (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is characteristic of infectious mononucleosis?

<p>Cervical lymphadenopathy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of rash is typically seen in Varicella?

<p>Macular rash leading to vesicles (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what age group is Herpes Zoster most likely to recur?

<p>Adults over 60 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What diagnostic method is most appropriate for detecting Cytomegalovirus?

<p>PCR for CMV early antigen detection (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which treatment option is specifically recommended for prophylaxis in transplant patients against Cytomegalovirus?

<p>Valganciclovir (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary cause of malaria in sub-Saharan regions?

<p>Plasmodium falciparum (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary symptom sequence of a malarial paroxysm?

<p>Cold, fever, sweating (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of vaccine is Varilrix?

<p>Live-attenuated vaccine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic presentation of primary amoebic meningoencephalitis caused by Naegleria fowleri?

<p>Headaches and delirium (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following treatments is NOT associated with Plasmodium vivax?

<p>Ganciclovir (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which herpesvirus is associated with causing oral hairy leukoplakia?

<p>Epstein-Barr Virus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following treatments is recommended for falciparum malaria that shows resistance to artemisinin?

<p>Combination therapy with artemether and mefloquine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the Dieterle stain in diagnosing certain infections?

<p>It allows visualization of spirochaetes against a yellow background. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which bacterial treatment is recommended for early Lyme disease?

<p>Doxycycline or tetracycline as first-line therapy. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary method of diagnosing influenzavirus infections?

<p>Direct nasal swab followed by PCR. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Lyme disease?

<p>Severe respiratory problems lasting over two weeks. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of virus is the influenzavirus classified as?

<p>ssRNA negative-sense virus with HA/NA antigens. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mode of transmission for herpes-simplex virus type 2?

<p>Direct intimate contact. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic method is least sensitive for detecting treponemal infections?

<p>FTA ABS testing for fluorescent treponemal antibodies. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For which condition is IV penicillin commonly administered?

<p>Tertiary syphilis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following laboratory techniques is used for direct detection of adenovirus?

<p>PCR and sequencing alignment. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What symptom is specifically associated with acute herpes simplex viral infections?

<p>Prodromal paraesthesia before lesions appear. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a typical treatment approach for adenovirus-related conjunctivitis?

<p>Increased chlorine in swimming pools. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the preferred method for confirming a current infection of herpes simplex in a symptomatic patient?

<p>PCR using HSV1-2 specific primers. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of secondary bacterial pneumonia during influenza infections?

<p>Weakness of the immune system during influenza. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most significant complication associated with the treatment of fungal infections with Amphotericin B?

<p>It has a 97% death rate even with treatment. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is commonly associated with Giardiasis caused by Giardia intestinalis?

<p>Eggy breath. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary method of diagnosing Balantidiasis?

<p>Presence of cysts in stool samples. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which treatment is effective against Ascaris lumbricoides infection?

<p>Albendazole. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of Acute Invasive Aspergillosis (AIA)?

<p>Has a 50-100% mortality rate. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which treatment option is recommended for Trichinella spiralis infection?

<p>Albendazole. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic method is most important for confirming a diagnosis of Aspergillus species?

<p>Sputum and blood cultures. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor contributes to the high mortality rate in patients with Acute Invasive Aspergillosis?

<p>Delay in treatment administration. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following agents is used in the treatment of Taeniasis caused by Taenia solium?

<p>Niclosamide. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does Lactobacillus spp. play in the new therapy investigations for Giardiasis?

<p>It converts conjugated bile salts into free bile salts. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common diagnosis method for Non-invasive Aspergillosis?

<p>Patient symptom history and X-rays. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which parameter is not typically used in the diagnosis of Taenia infections?

<p>Serological tests for antibodies. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What symptom characterizes allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)?

<p>Brown mucus plugs. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is true about the diagnostic approach for Giardia intestinalis?

<p>Stool sample must show presence of trophozoites. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common treatment for mucosal candidiasis in immunocompromised patients?

<p>Nystatin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is NOT a predisposing condition for skin candidiasis?

<p>High fiber diet (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which method is used to confirm the presence of Candida albicans using culture?

<p>Sabouraud's with Cycloheximide (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the case of invasive candidiasis, which symptom is least likely to be observed?

<p>Visible plaques in the mouth (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of a germ tube test in diagnosing Candida species?

<p>It confirms the presence of Candida albicans specifically (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which treatment option may be considered potentially toxic for patients with Candida infections?

<p>IV Amphotericin B (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes Cryptococcus neoformans infection?

<p>Associated with avian environments and is more severe in HIV patients (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which laboratory technique is used for the diagnosis of pulmonary cryptococcosis?

<p>Latex agglutination for polysaccharide antigen (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which population is most at risk for developing meningeal cryptococcosis?

<p>Immunocompromised patients, particularly those with HIV (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the presence of white, creamy brown colonies on Sabouraud's agar indicate?

<p>Possible Candida infection (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is commonly associated with vaginal candidiasis?

<p>Red itchy area with white discharge (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of infections can invasive candidiasis lead to in immunocompromised patients?

<p>Meningitis and renal abscess (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mode of acquiring Cryptococcus neoformans?

<p>Inhalation of spores from soil or bird droppings (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which therapeutic class does echinocandins belong to?

<p>Antifungals targeting cell wall synthesis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Staphylococcus aureus causes

SSTIs, conjunctivitis, impetigo, rashes, food poisoning, infective endocarditis, UTIs, toxic shock syndrome, osteomyelitis, and community-acquired pneumonia

Staphylococcus epidermidis causes

Skin infections, biofilm on IV catheters, UTIs, and infective endocarditis, which is usually more of a risk for patients with IV drugs or any device that punctures skin.

Staphylococcus aureus colony appearance

Gold/yellow colored, convex, 2 micrometer colonies on NAM

Staphylococcus epidermidis colony appearance

White, convex, 2 micrometer colonies on NAM

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S.aureus Gram stain

Gram-positive cocci in clusters

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S.epidermidis Gram stain

Gram-positive cocci in clusters

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S.aureus Mannitol Salt test result

Fermenting (yellow color)

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S.aureus and S.epidermidis Catalase test result

Positive (bubbles formed)

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Time of Flight (TOF)

A method to separate particles based on their travel time through a chamber. Larger particles take longer.

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Staphylococcal infections

Infections caused by Staphylococcus bacteria, often treated by draining infected areas and using antibiotics like penicillins and cephalosporins.

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MRSA

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus – a strain of staph bacteria resistant to many common antibiotics.

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Nosocomial MRSA

MRSA infections acquired in healthcare settings.

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Streptococcus pyogenes

A type of Streptococcus bacteria causing strep throat, skin infections, and potentially severe conditions like necrotizing fasciitis.

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Streptococcus pneumoniae

A type of Streptococcus causing pneumonia, meningitis, and other respiratory infections.

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Vibrio cholerae

A bacteria that causes cholera, a severe diarrheal illness.

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Campylobacter jejuni

A bacteria often causing food poisoning. Can lead to serious complications.

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Helicobacter pylori

A bacteria that can cause ulcers and gastritis in the stomach.

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Treponema pallidum

A bacteria causing syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection that can be harmful if left untreated.

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Gram Stain

A technique used to distinguish bacteria with different cell wall structures.

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Blood Agar

Growth medium used to observe the hemolysis (breakdown of red blood cells) caused by bacteria.

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TCBS agar

Selective and differential medium for Vibrio cholerae. Allows the differentiation of vibrios by noticing yellow/no color colonies based on carbohydrate fermentation.

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Culture

Growing bacteria in controlled conditions for identification and testing.

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Antibiotics

Drugs that fight bacterial infections.

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Syphilis causative agent

Treponema pallidum, a spirochete bacterium.

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Syphilis stages

Primary, secondary, and tertiary, each with distinct symptoms.

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Syphilis diagnosis

Typically diagnosed by identifying spirochetes in lesions using darkfield microscopy.

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Spirochetes in syphilis

Appear as black spirals against a yellow background using Dieterle stain.

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Syphilis primary-latent treatment

Intravenous penicillin, administered in four doses for late latent stages.

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Lyme disease causative agent

Borrelia burgdorferi, a spirochete bacterium.

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Lyme disease symptoms

Bullseye rash, flu-like symptoms, facial paralysis, arthritis, palpitations.

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Lyme disease early treatment

Doxycycline, tetracycline, amoxicillin, or cephalosporins, typically in high doses for a long period.

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Influenza causative agent

Influenzavirus, an RNA virus with HA and NA antigens on its envelope.

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Influenza symptoms

Fever, chills, headache, cough, and respiratory problems. Mainly affects children.

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Influenza diagnosis

PCR for virus-specific sequences or IFA for antigen detection.

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Influenza treatment

Amantadine for type A, neuraminidase inhibitors, and vaccination are important preventative measures.

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Adenovirus causes

Cold symptoms, mild pneumonia, gastrointestinal problems, conjunctivitis, and UTIs.

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Adenovirus diagnosis

Cultured in cells, PCR or serological tests for antibodies.

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Herpesvirus types and diseases

HSV1-2, VZV, CMV, HV6-7, KS, and EBV cause various diseases, from cold sores to mononucleosis.

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Balantidium coli

A parasitic protozoan that causes balantidiasis, a rare infection primarily found in tropical regions.

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Balantidiasis

A parasitic infection caused by Balantidium coli, typically affecting the gastrointestinal tract.

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Giardia intestinalis

A common parasitic protozoan that causes giardiasis, an intestinal infection.

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Giardiasis

An intestinal infection caused by Giardia intestinalis, characterized by cramps, diarrhea, and 'eggy' breath.

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Ascaris lumbricoides

A parasitic roundworm that can cause intestinal obstruction and malabsorption.

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Metronidazole

An antibiotic used to treat anaerobic infections like those caused by Giardia and Balantidium.

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Aspergillosis

A fungal infection caused by Aspergillus fumigatus that can affect the lungs based on the patient's immune status.

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Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis (ABPA)

A non-disseminating form of aspergillosis that occurs in patients with pre-existing lung damage and involves an allergic reaction to Aspergillus fumigatus.

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Non-invasive Aspergillosis (NIA)

A non-disseminating form of aspergillosis in patients with lung cavities, characterized by asymptomatic periods and occasional blood-stained sputum.

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Acute Invasive Aspergillosis (AIA)

A life-threatening form of aspergillosis that occurs in immunocompromised patients, characterized by rapid lung infection and potential spread to other organs.

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Sabouraud's Agar

A culture medium used to grow fungi, including Aspergillus fumigatus.

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Trophozoite

The active, motile stage of a protozoan parasite.

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Praziquantel

An antiparasitic drug used to treat Taeniasis, a tapeworm infection.

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Niclosamide

An antiparasitic drug used to treat Taeniasis, a tapeworm infection.

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What causes chickenpox?

Varicella-Zoster virus (VZV) causes chickenpox, a highly contagious disease characterized by a distinctive rash of fluid-filled vesicles.

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What is a varicella rash like?

The varicella rash starts as red, flat spots (macules) that progress to raised bumps (papules) before developing into clear, fluid-filled blisters (vesicles). These lesions spread over the body.

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What is shingles?

Shingles is a reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus (VZV) in adulthood, typically causing a painful, blistering rash confined to a single dermatome (area innervated by a single nerve).

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What are the symptoms of shingles?

Shingles symptoms include prodromal pain or numbness, followed by a characteristic rash that mimics chickenpox but is limited to a specific dermatome. It can be debilitating, even without the rash.

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How is shingles diagnosed?

Diagnosis often involves a combination of symptoms and a physical exam. Samples from the rash (vesicle fluid or lesion swab) may be collected for viral testing.

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What is a CMV infection?

Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is common, especially in daycare or during nursing. It usually causes no symptoms in healthy adults, but can lead to mononucleosis-like symptoms or serious problems in immunocompromised people.

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How is CMV diagnosed?

Diagnosis involves identifying the virus in samples like urine, saliva, blood, or tissue biopsies. Tests include cultures, PCR, and antibody detection.

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What is Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)?

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is known for causing infectious mononucleosis (mono), but it can also cause other diseases, especially in people with weakened immune systems.

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What is a classic symptom of infectious mononucleosis?

The 'triad' of fever, cervical lymphadenopathy (swollen lymph nodes in the neck), and sore throat is typically seen in infectious mononucleosis.

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How is infectious mononucleosis diagnosed?

Diagnosis typically involves a combination of clinical signs and laboratory tests, including blood smears, antibody tests, and sometimes PCR.

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What is Malaria?

Malaria is a mosquito-borne disease caused by the Plasmodium parasite. It is a serious and sometimes fatal disease that affects millions of people worldwide.

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What are the symptoms of malaria?

Malaria typically presents with a cyclical pattern of chills, fever, and sweating, known as a malarial paroxysm. Symptoms can vary depending on the species of Plasmodium involved.

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How is malaria diagnosed?

Diagnosis usually involves a blood smear to directly visualize the Plasmodium parasite in red blood cells. Rapid diagnostic tests and PCR can also be used.

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What is Naegleria fowleri and what does it cause?

Naegleria fowleri is a free-living amoeba that can cause a rare but fatal brain infection called primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) when it enters the body through the nose.

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What is the common symptom of PAM?

Patients with PAM usually develop severe headaches, delirium, and seizures due to increased intracranial pressure caused by the amoeba's presence in the brain.

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Candida albicans: Opportunistic Commensal

A fungus that normally lives in the human body without causing harm, but can become infectious in immunocompromised individuals, leading to candidiasis.

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Candidiasis

An infection caused by Candida albicans, occurring in various forms like oropharyngeal, skin, or vaginal candidiasis, depending on the site of infection.

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Superficial Candidiasis

An infection caused by Candida albicans primarily affecting the surface of the body, including the mouth, skin, or vagina.

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Oropharyngeal Candidiasis

A fungal infection affecting the mouth and throat caused by Candida albicans, characterized by visible white plaques on the roof of the mouth or esophagus.

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Skin Candidiasis

A fungal infection affecting the skin, typically occurring in warm, moist areas with compromised skin integrity.

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Vaginal Candidiasis

A common fungal infection affecting the vagina, characterized by red, itchy area with whitish discharge.

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Invasive Candidiasis

A serious fungal infection where Candida albicans spreads beyond the surface, affecting internal organs and potentially leading to blood stream infections (candidemia).

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Cryptococcus neoformans/gatti: Pulmonary cryptococcosis/cryptococcal meningitis

A fungus that can cause lung infections (pulmonary cryptococcosis) and severe meningitis, primarily affecting individuals with compromised immune systems, especially HIV patients.

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Cryptococcal Meningitis

A type of meningitis caused by Cryptococcus neoformans/ gatti, characterized by headaches, delirium, nausea, coma, and low-grade fever.

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Titan Yeast

A large, giant-cell form of Cryptococcus neoformans/ gatti found in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) of patients with cryptococcal meningitis.

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Empirical Therapy

Administering treatment based on educated guesswork, prior to a definitive diagnosis, especially in time-critical situations with high mortality rates.

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Voriconazole

An antifungal medication frequently used for treating invasive fungal infections, including candidiasis and aspergillosis.

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IV Amphotericin B

A powerful antifungal medication administered intravenously (IV), widely used for treating serious fungal infections including cryptococcal meningitis.

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Echinocandins

A group of antifungal medications that target fungal cell walls, commonly used to treat candidiasis but ineffective against Cryptococcus neoformans/ gatti.

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Study Notes

Staphylococcus Species

  • Staphylococcus aureus causes skin and soft tissue infections (SSTIs), conjunctivitis, impetigo, rashes, food poisoning, infective endocarditis, UTIs, toxic shock syndrome, osteomyelitis, and community-acquired pneumonia. Symptoms vary depending on the infection, potentially including pus-filled lesions, skin rashes, eye inflammation, nausea, diarrhea, vomiting, fever, low blood pressure, petechiae, and heart murmurs.

  • Staphylococcus epidermidis causes SSTIs, forming biofilms on catheters, UTIs, and infective endocarditis. Patients with IV drug use or any skin-penetrating devices are high-risk.

Diagnosis of Staphylococcus Species

  • Staphylococcus aureus

    • Sample collection from sterile or non-sterile sites, evaluating for common skin flora.
    • Colony isolation on nutrient agar (NAM): Observe gold, convex 2µm colonies.
    • Gram stain: Gram-positive cocci in clusters.
    • Blood agar: Alpha or beta hemolysis.
    • Mannitol salt agar: Mannitol fermenter (yellow).
    • Thioglycolate: Facultative aerobe.
    • Catalase test: Positive (bubbles).
    • Latex agglutination test: Coagulase positive.
  • Staphylococcus epidermidis

    • Sample collection from sterile or non-sterile sites, evaluating for common skin flora.
    • Colony isolation on nutrient agar (NAM): Observe white, convex 2µm colonies.
    • Gram stain: Gram-positive cocci in clusters.
    • Blood agar: Gamma hemolysis.
    • Mannitol salt agar: Non-fermenter (remains pink).
    • Thioglycolate: Facultative anaerobe.
    • Catalase test: Positive (bubbles).
    • Latex agglutination test: Coagulase negative.

Molecular and Genotypic Testing

  • PCR/RT-PCR: Amplifies specific bacterial genes (e.g., 16S, MecA in MRSA) for identification and strain determination. Results can be analysed through Sanger sequencing and alignment to existing databases. Chromatogram quality can influence accuracy.

  • PFGE: Evaluates bacterial strain transmission and epidemiology.

  • MLST: Analyzes housekeeping and cell surface genes (e.g., spa) to identify bacterial strains.

  • MALDI-TOF MS: Time- and cost-effective method: Allows identification of protein fragments. A spectrum of protein fragments is produced by zapping samples in a well with a laser. Time of Flight is recorded and analyzed, separating molecules based on size. alignment to pre-existing BLAST database sequences can be conducted.

Treatments for Staphylococcal Infections

  • General: Drain and clean infected areas (boils/SSTIs) with antimicrobials to decolonize. Autoclave patient bedding (Health-care-associated infections).

  • Antibiotics:

    • Semi-synthetic penicillins (Flucloxacillin, dicloxacillin)
    • Cephalosporins (Clindamycin, lincomycin, erythromycin)
    • MRSA Treatments (Clindamycin, minocycline, doxycycline, vancomycin - developing resistance)
    • Nosocomial MRSA (Rifampicin and Fusidic acid)
    • Newer (Linezolid, quinupristin/dalfopristin)

Streptococcus Species

  • Streptococcus pyogenes causes strep throat, SSTIs, necrotizing fasciitis, scarlet fever, and rheumatic fever. Associated symptoms include sore throat/pharyngitis, swollen tonsils, temperature changes, rashes (scarlet fever), skin itching, cellulitis lesions, and other conditions.

  • Streptococcus pneumoniae causes pneumonia, bacterial meningitis, otitis media, and sinusitis. Characterized by respiratory distress, inflammation, earache, breathing obstruction, increased intracranial pressure, fever, and confusion.

  • Diagnosis (Streptococcus spp): - Sample acquisition (sterile/non-sterile, evaluate skin flora) - Colony isolation on NAM: Observe white convex 2µm colonies - Gram stain: Gram-positive cocci in chains. - Blood agar: Alpha or beta hemolysis. - Mannitol salt agar: Non-fermenter (pink) (pyogenes) - Thioglycolate: Facultative aerobe. - Catalase test: Negative. - Latex agglutination test: Coagulase negative (pyogenes).

    • Treat with Penicillin, amoxicillin, flucloxacillin

Vibrio cholerae, Campylobacter jejuni, Helicobacter pylori

  • These pathogens cause various gastrointestinal infections, and the notes describe their respective causes, symptoms, diagnosis (including specific culture media and biochemical tests), and treatment procedures. The details are unique in terms of microbiology information, relevant aspects of diagnosis and treatments tailored for each causative pathogen.

Treponema pallidum (Syphilis)

  • Syphilis progresses through four stages:

    1. Primary: Chancre formation, usually self-limiting.
    2. Secondary: Skin rash, systemic symptoms.
    3. Latent: Asymptomatic, but infectious.
    4. Tertiary: Severe organ damage (gummas, neuro-syphilis, endocarditis).
  • Diagnosis is primarily based on visual symptoms, dark-field microscopy (Dieterle stain), and serological tests (FTA-ABS).

  • Treatment is typically penicillin IV, tailored to the stage and severity of infection.

Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme Disease)

  • Lyme disease is characterized by a bullseye rash (erythema migrans), flu-like symptoms, and potential long-term complications (neurological, arthritic).

  • Diagnosed via blood tests (EIA, IFA, western blot), PCR, and possibly a blood smear.

  • Treatment typically involves antibiotics (long-term high dose for late-stage).

Influenza Virus (Type A, B, and C), Adenovirus

  • These viruses cause various respiratory and other symptoms

  • Diagnosis involves testing for viral antigens (IFA), viral isolation, and PCR. Treatment is typically supportive care, and vaccine is type-specific for prevention.

Herpesviruses (Alpha, Beta, Gamma)

  • The notes provide detailed information on herpes simplex viruses (HSV-1, HSV-2), varicella-zoster virus (VZV), cytomegalovirus (CMV), and Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), including their subtypes, tropisms, causative diseases, symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment.

Protozoa (Malaria, Naegleria fowleri, Balantidium coli, Giardia intestinalis)

  • These notes detail the causes, symptoms, diagnosis, and treatments of protozoan infections, differentiating between various Plasmodium species (Falciparum, Vivax, Ovale, Knowlesi, Malariae) , Naegleria fowleri, Balantidium coli, and Giardia intestinalis. Information relevant for diagnosis (microscopy, serology, PCR) and treatment is included.

Helminths (Ascaris lumbricoides, Trichinella spiralis, Taenia solium)

  • These notes provide comprehensive information on roundworms and tapeworms, including causes, symptoms, diagnosis (stool samples, biopsies), and treatment (medication, potentially surgery).

Fungi (Aspergillus fumigatus, Candida albicans, Cryptococcus neoformans/gatti)

  • These notes describe fungal infections, including allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA), non-invasive aspergillosis, acute invasive aspergillosis (AIA), superficial (oropharyngeal, skin, vaginal) and invasive candidiasis, and pulmonary/meningeal cryptococcosis, covering causes, symptoms, diagnosis (cultures, microscopy, serology), and specific treatment strategies for each type.

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