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Staphylococcus aureus Overview
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Staphylococcus aureus Overview

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Questions and Answers

Which antimicrobial agent inhibits gram-positive bacteria when growing Neisseria gonorrhoeae on selective chocolate agar?

  • Vancomycin (correct)
  • Nystatin
  • Trimethoprim Sulfamethoxazole
  • Colistin
  • Which confirmatory test can be used to identify Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

  • Gram stain
  • Catalase test (correct)
  • Fermentation test
  • Direct microscopy
  • What is the purpose of using cryoprotectants like 20% glycerol in storing Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

  • Preserve viability during freezing (correct)
  • Increase antibiotic resistance
  • Enhance growth rate
  • Prevent contamination
  • Which type of agar is commonly used for the isolation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

    <p>Thayer-Martin agar</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which sugar can Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Neisseria meningitidis ferment in the carbohydrate test?

    <p>Maltose</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test is used to differentiate between Streptococcus and Staphylococcus?

    <p>Catalase test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the cause of red man syndrome when overdosing on vancomycin?

    <p>Rapid infusion rate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of Staphylococcus aureus is resistant to methicillin?

    <p>MRSA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following antibiotics can be used to treat MRSA infections?

    <p>Vancomycin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is indicated by a positive DNAse test result on DNAse agar?

    <p>Clearing around the colony</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Impetigo, associated with Staphylococcus aureus infections, typically presents as which symptom?

    <p>Yellow crusted sores</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with Staphylococcus aureus?

    <p>Undulant fever</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a major side effect associated with therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) for vancomycin?

    <p>Red man syndrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of the CAMP test in relation to beta-hemolytic streptococci?

    <p>To identify group B streptococci</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of hemolytic activity is exhibited by viridans streptococci?

    <p>Alpha hemolytic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is required by Haemophilus influenzae for growth?

    <p>Factor V</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of blackening in the Bile Esculin Hydrolysis Test?

    <p>Indicates the presence of group D enterococci</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is true regarding Haemophilus ducreyi?

    <p>It is responsible for soft chancers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What differentiates Streptococcus pneumoniae from viridans streptococci?

    <p>Sensitivity to optochin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of sodium azide in the Bile Esculin Hydrolysis Test?

    <p>Inhibits the growth of gram-negative bacteria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic of Haemophilus spp. in terms of oxygen requirement?

    <p>They are microaerophiles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic distinguishes Rickettsia from typical bacteria?

    <p>It is an obligate intracellular parasite.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vector is responsible for the transmission of epidemic typhus caused by R. peowazekki?

    <p>Human body louse</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common symptom associated with Rocky Mountain spotted fever caused by R. rickettsii?

    <p>High fever and hypotension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what type of laboratory setting can Rickettsia be cultivated?

    <p>Monolayer cell culture or embryonated eggs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which risk factor is associated with the transmission of epidemic typhus?

    <p>Poor sanitation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of organism is Rickettsia classified as?

    <p>In between bacteria and viruses</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is Brill-Zinsser disease a result of?

    <p>Reactivation of louse-borne typhus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the main vectors for murine or endemic typhus?

    <p>Oriental rat flea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the major virulence factor associated with group A streptococcus?

    <p>M protein</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by a severe sore throat, enlarged tonsils, and a mild fever due to strain of group A streptococcus?

    <p>Streptococcal pharyngitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is responsible for the severe sore throat and rash seen in scarlet fever?

    <p>Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does rheumatic fever occur following a streptococcal infection?

    <p>Autoimmune response to streptococcal antigens</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial species is primarily responsible for invasive lung infections?

    <p>S.pneumoniae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Staphylococcus aureus

    • Identification:
      • Coagulase positive - forms a gel when mixed with rabbit plasma
      • Catalase positive - produces bubbles when mixed with hydrogen peroxide
      • DNAse positive - creates a clearing zone on DNAse agar
    • Types:
      • MSSA (methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus) - sensitive to Methicillin
      • MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) - resistant to Methicillin
    • MRSA:
      • Resistance to Methicillin, a type of beta-lactam antibiotic
      • Low incidence of MRSA in PH, treated with alternative antibiotics such as Vancomycin
    • Vancomycin:
      • Overdose can lead to "red man syndrome"
      • Requires therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) to manage dosage
    • Antibiotic Stewardship:
      • Antibiotics should not be available over-the-counter (OTC)
    • Diseases Associated with S.aureus
      • Impetigo: skin infection causing yellow crusts
      • Food poisoning: caused by toxins produced by S.aureus
      • Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS): associated with tampon use
      • Septic Shock: bacterial toxins lead to dangerously low blood pressure

    Streptococcus

    • Hemolytic Properties:
      • Beta-hemolytic: lyse red blood cells (RBCs)
        • Group A (S. pyogenes) and Group B (S. agalactiae)
        • CAMP test used to identify Group B beta-hemolytic streptococci (S. agalactiae)
      • Alpha-hemolytic: partial lysis of RBCs
        • Viridans streptococci and Streptococcus pneumoniae
        • Optochin sensitivity used to differentiate S. pneumoniae (sensitive) from Viridans streptococci (resistant)
      • Gamma-hemolytic: no hemolysis
        • Group D (enterococci)
    • Identification:
      • Lancefield grouping: based on polysaccharide components of the bacteria
      • Bile Esculin Hydrolysis Test: differentiates Group D enterococci from other streptococci - positive result indicated by blackening of the agar

    Haemophilus spp.

    • Characteristics:
      • Gram-negative coccobacilli, microaerophilic
      • Require growth factors: X factor (hemin) and V factor (NAD+)
      • Grow on chocolate agar but not on blood agar
    • Key Species:
        • Haemophilus influenzae*:
          • Cause of meningitis in neonates
          • Capnophile (requires carbon dioxide for growth)
          • Facultative anaerobe
        • Haemophilus ducreyi*: cause of soft chancre
        • Haemophilus parainfluenzae*: low pathogenicity
    • Specimen Collection and Identification:
      • Gram stain for preliminary identification
      • Culture on chocolate agar and selective chocolate agar (containing antimicrobials such as vancomycin, colistin, nystatin, anisomycin and trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole)
      • Confirmatory tests: catalase, oxidase, and PCR
      • Carbohydrate test (Cystine Trypticase Agar with 1% sugar) to determine sugar fermentation
      • N. gonorrhoeae and N. meningitidis can ferment MALTOSE
    • Storage:
      • Frozen: Brain heart infusion broth with 20% glycerol
      • Lyophilization: 2% skim milk, liquid nitrogen

    Rickettsia

    • Characteristics:
      • Smaller than bacteria; similar in size to myxoviruses
      • Non-motile
      • Arthropod-borne (transmitted by insects)
      • Small, gram-negative coccobacilli
      • Difficult to cultivate on ordinary media. Requires monolayer cell culture or embryonated eggs
      • Obligate intracellular parasites
    • Groups:
      • Typhus group
      • Spotted fever group
    • Typhus Group:
      • Rickettsia prowazekii
        • Causes epidemic typhus (louse-borne)
        • Reservoir hosts: humans and flying squirrels
        • Vectors: human body louse (pediculus humanus humanus), squirrel louse or flea
        • Brill-Zinsser disease: reactivation of louse-borne typhus
      • Rickettsia typhi
        • Causes murine or endemic typhus (rat-borne)
        • Vectors: oriental rat flea
        • Reservoir hosts: rats and cats
    • Spotted Fever Group:
      • Rickettsia rickettsii
        • Causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever (most common and severe)
        • Transmitted by tick bites
        • Sx: headache, high fever, hypotension, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

    Streptococcus pyogenes

    • Characteristics:
      • Group A streptococci (isolated from upper respiratory tract)
      • Major virulence factor: M protein
    • Diseases:
      • Streptococcal pharyngitis (strep throat)
      • Otitis media (middle ear infection)
      • Mastitis (mammary gland infection)
      • Impetigo (superficial skin infection)
    • Exotoxins:
      • Streptococcus pyrogenic exotoxins (SpeA, SpeB, SpeC, and SpeF): superantigens
        • Cause scarlet fever (severe sore throat, fever, and rash)
      • Necrotizing fasciitis (rapid and progressive destruction of soft tissues)
      • Rheumatic fever (autoimmune disease affecting heart valves and joints)

    Streptococcus pneumoniae

    • Characteristics:
      • Invasive lung infection
      • Encapsulated strains (S strain) are highly invasive
    • Disease:
      • Can cause bacteremia (infection of the blood) and complications, such as bone, middle ear, and heart valve infections (endocarditis)

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    Description

    Test your knowledge on Staphylococcus aureus, including its identification methods, types, and associated diseases. This quiz covers important aspects such as methicillin resistance, treatment options, and antibiotic stewardship. Understand the clinical significance of this pathogen in healthcare settings.

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