Which stain (from a list) would be helpful in determining the size and shape of a colorless bacterium WITHOUT fixing.

In a Gram stain, a step could be ommitted and still alllow differentiation between Gram positive and Gram negative cells. Which step?

Which is NOT a type of inclusion (from a list)?

How can genomes from microbes that cannot be grown in the lab still be studied?

Six Staphylococcus aureus cells were accidently inoculated into an uncooked pie. How many cells would be in the pie after 3 hours. Assume generation time of 60 minutes.

If an F+, Cys+ cell recombines with an F-, Cys- cell, what might happen to the F-,Cys- cell?

During PCR, instead of using DNA polymerase from Thermus aquaticus, human DNA polymerase is used. Starting with 1 molecule of DNA, after 3 full cycles are completed (assuming all other conditions remain the same), how many DNA molecules do you expect to see?

How did the idea of spontaneous generation come about?

What role do microorganisms play in the biological control of pests?

What is the role do microorganisms play in recycling elements?

What role do microorganisms play in normal microbiota?

What role do microorganisms play in sewage treatment?

What role do microorganisms play in human insulin production?

What role does microorganisms play in vaccine production?

What role do microorganisms play in biofilms?

Match the microorganisms in column A to their descriptions in column B.

Match the microorganisms in column A to their descriptions in column B.

What type of microorganism has a peptidoglycan cell wall, has DNA that is not contained in a nucleus, and has flagella?

Where airborne microbes ended up in Pasteur’s experiment?

Which of the following is a scientific name?

Which of the following is not a characteristic of bacteria?

Which of the following is the most important element of Koch’s germ theory of disease? The animal shows disease symptoms when

Recombinant DNA is

Which of the following statements is the best definition of biogenesis?

Which of the following is a beneficial activity of microorganisms?

It has been said that bacteria are essential for the existence of life on Earth. Which of the following is the essential function performed by bacteria?

Which of the following is an example of bioremediation?

Spallanzani’s conclusion about spontaneous generation was challenged because Antoine Lavoisier had just shown that oxygen was the vital component of air. Which of the following statements is true?

Which of the following statements about E. coli is false?

How did the theory of biogenesis lead the way for the germ theory of disease?

Even though the germ theory of disease was not demonstrated until 1876, why did Semmelweis (1840) and Lister (1867) argue for the use of aseptic techniques?

Should antibacterial soaps and detergents be used in the home?

Which is NOT an emerging pathogen as described in your text.

Recombinant DNA technology has become an increasingly important part of our life. It is used for all of the following EXCEPT

Development of emerging infectious disease can be a result of all of the following EXCEPT

Which of the following is the best definition of oxidative phosphorylation?

In the figure, where is ATP produced?

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding prokaryotic cells?

Which of the following statements regarding metabolism is FALSE?

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

All of the below are examples of a biofilm EXCEPT

In non-cyclic photophosphorylation, excited electrons ultimately

Functions of the glycocalyx include all of the following EXCEPT

A microorganism measures 5 μm in length. What is its length in mm, nm, and m?

Which type of microscope would be best to use to observe a stained bacterial smear

Which type of microscope would be best to use to observe unstained bacterial cells: the cells are small, and no detail is needed

Which type of microscope would be best to use to observe unstained live tissue when it is desirable to see some intracellular detail?

Which type of microscope would be best to use to observe a sample that emits light when illuminated with ultraviolet light?

Which type of microscope would be best to use to observe intracellular detail of a cell that is 1 μm long?

Which type of microscope would be best to use to observe unstained live cells in which intracellular structures are shown in color?

Label the parts of the compound light microscope in the figure below, and then draw the path of light from the illuminator to your eye.

Calculate the total magnification of the nucleus of a cell being observed through a compound light microscope with a 10× ocular lens and an oil

The maximum magnification of a compound microscope is

The maximum magnification of an electron microscope

The maximum resolution of a compound microscope is

The maximum resolution of an electron microscope

One advantage of a scanning electron microscope over a transmission electron microscope is

In a hypertonic solution, what is likely to happen to a protoplast?

What is the fate of pyruvic acid in an organism that uses aerobic respiration?

An enzyme, citrate synthase, is inhibited by ATP. This is an example of:

Given a "recipe" for a specific culture medium, identify a complex or defined medium.

Which of the following disinfectants from a given list acts by disrupting the plasma membrane?

Which chemical method of microbial control damage DNA?

Repeating sequences of non-coding DNA that are used for forensic analysis is called

If tryptophan is present, the repressible operon is:

What are key features of a restriction enzyme?

How is cDNA made?

Why is a mordant used in the Gram stain?

Why is a mordant used in the flagella stain?

What is the purpose of a counterstain in the acid-fast stain?

What is the purpose of a decolorizer in the Gram stain?

What is the purpose of a decolorizer in the acid-fast stain?

Assume you stain Bacillus by applying malachite green with heat and then counterstain with safranin. Through the microscope, the green structures are

Three-dimensional images of live cells can be produced with

Carbolfuchsin can be used as a simple stain and a negative stain. As a simple stain, the pH is

Looking at the cell of a photosynthetic microorganism, you observe the chloroplasts are green in brightfield microscopy and red in fluorescence microscopy. You conclude:

Which of the following is not a functionally analogous pair of stains?

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

Assume you stain Clostridium by applying a basic stain, carbolfuchsin, with heat, decolorizing with acid-alcohol, and counterstaining with an acidic stain, nigrosin. Through the microscope, the endospores are 1, and the cells are stained 2.

Assume that you are viewing a Gram-stained field of red cocci and blue rods through the microscope. You can safely conclude that you have

In 1996, scientists described a new tapeworm parasite that had killed at least one person. The initial examination of the patient’s abdominal mass was most likely made using

Which of the following is not a modification of a compound light microscope?

In a Gram stain, a step could be omitted and still allow differentiation between gram-positive and gram-negative cells. What is it?

Using a good compound light microscope with a resolving power of 0.3 μm, a 10× ocular lens, and a 100× oil immersion lens, would you be able to discern two objects separated by 3 μm? 0.3 μm? 300 nm?

Endospores can be seen as refractile structures in unstained cells and as colorless areas in Gram-stained cells. Why is it necessary to do an endospore stain to verify the presence of endospores?

In 1882, German bacteriologist Paul Erhlich described a method for staining Mycobacterium and noted, “It may be that all disinfecting agents which are acidic will be without effect on this [tubercle] bacillus, and one will have to be limited to alkaline agents.” How did he reach this conclusion without testing disinfectants?

Which of the graphs in the figure best illustrates the activity of an enzyme that is saturated with substrate?

Cyanobacteria are a type of

Which compound is being reduced in the reaction shown in the figure?

An enzyme, citrate synthase, in the Krebs cycle is inhibited by ATP. This is an example of all of the following EXCEPT

Microorganisms are involved in each of the following processes EXCEPT

Microorganisms that catabolize sugars into ethanol and hydrogen gas would most likely be categorized as

Which of the following statements about gram-negative cell walls is FALSE?

Which of the following is not a distinguishing characteristic of prokaryotic cells?

Which statement best describes what happens when a gram-positive bacterium is placed in distilled water and penicillin?

Which statement best describes what happens when a gram-negative bacterium is placed in distilled water and penicillin?

Which statement best describes what happens when a gram-positive bacterium is placed in an aqueous solution of lysozyme and 10% sucrose?

Which of the following statements best describes what happens to a cell exposed to polymyxins that destroy phospholipids?

Which of the following is false about fimbriae?

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

You have isolated a motile, gram-positive cell with no visible nucleus. You can assume this cell has

The antibiotic amphotericin B disrupts plasma membranes by combining with sterols; it will affect all of the following cells except

Endospore formation is called

Endospore formation is initiated by

Formation of a new cell from an endospore is called

Germination is triggered by

Match the structures in column A to their functions in column B.

Match the structures in column A to their functions in column B

Why is an endospore called a resting structure?

Of what advantage is an endospore to a bacterial cell?

Compare and Contrast simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion.

Compare and contrast active transport and facilitated diffusion

Compare and contrast active transport and group translocation

Why does penicillin have no effect on most gram-negative cells?

How can prokaryotic cells be smaller than eukaryotic cells and still carry on all the functions of life?

Which of the following is NOT a functionally analogous pair?

By which of the following mechanisms can a cell transport a substance from a lower to a higher concentration?

Robert Koch identified the cause of

A virus measures 100 nm in length. What is its length in μm?

Which of the following uses glucose for carbon and energy?

Which statements correspond to amphibolic pathways?

1. Anabolic and catabolic reactions are joined through common intermediate.
2. They are shared metabolic pathways.
3. Feedback inhibition can help regulate rates of reactions.
4. Both types of reactions are necessary but do not occur simultaneously.

Which drawing in the figure is streptococci?

Which microscope is used to see internal structures of cells in a natural state?

Which of the following is NOT found or observed to occur in both mitochondria and prokaryotes?

Which microscope takes advantage of differences in the refractive indexes of cell structures?

Which two staining techniques employ a mordant?

Who challenged the idea of spontaneous generation with the concept of biogenesis?

Which of the following statements about anaerobic respiration is FALSE?

Differentiate the terms in each of the following pairs: etiology and pathogenesis

The emergence of new infectious diseases is probably due to all of the following except

All members of a group of ornithologists studying barn owls in the wild have had salmonellosis (Salmonella gastroenteritis). One birder is experiencing her third infection. What is the most likely source of their infections?

Which of the following statements is false?

Which of the following is not one of Koch’s postulates?

Which one of the following diseases is not correctly matched to its reservoir?

On September 6, a 6-year-old boy experienced fever, chills, and vomiting. On September 7, he was hospitalized with diarrhea and swollen lymph nodes under both arms. On September 3, the boy had been scratched and bitten by a cat. The cat was found dead on September 5, and Yersinia pestis was isolated from the cat. Chloramphenicol was administered to the boy from September 7, when Y. pestis was isolated from him. On September 17, the boy’s temperature returned to normal; and on September 22, he was released from the hospital.

identify the incubation period for this case of bubonic plague.

On September 6, a 6-year-old boy experienced fever, chills, and vomiting. On September 7, he was hospitalized with diarrhea and swollen lymph nodes under both arms. On September 3, the boy had been scratched and bitten by a cat. The cat was found dead on September 5, and Yersinia pestis was isolated from the cat. Chloramphenicol was administered to the boy from September 7, when Y. pestis was isolated from him. On September 17, the boy’s temperature returned to normal; and on September 22, he was released from the hospital.

Identify the prodromal period for this disease.

A Maryland woman was hospitalized with dehydration; Vibrio cholerae and Plesiomonas shigelloides were isolated from the patient. She had neither traveled outside the United States nor eaten raw shellfish during the preceding month. She had attended a party 2 days before her hospitalization. Two other people at the party had acute diarrheal illness and elevated levels of serum antibodies against Vibrio. Everyone at the party ate crabs and rice pudding with coconut milk. Crabs left over from this party were served at a second party. One of the 20 people at the second party had onset of mild diarrhea; specimens from 14 of these people were negative for vibriocidal antibodies.

This is an example of

A Maryland woman was hospitalized with dehydration; Vibrio cholerae and Plesiomonas shigelloides were isolated from the patient. She had neither traveled outside the United States nor eaten raw shellfish during the preceding month. She had attended a party 2 days before her hospitalization. Two other people at the party had acute diarrheal illness and elevated levels of serum antibodies against Vibrio. Everyone at the party ate crabs and rice pudding with coconut milk. Crabs left over from this party were served at a second party. One of the 20 people at the second party had onset of mild diarrhea; specimens from 14 of these people were negative for vibriocidal antibodies.

The etiologic agent of the disease is

A Maryland woman was hospitalized with dehydration; Vibrio cholerae and Plesiomonas shigelloides were isolated from the patient. She had neither traveled outside the United States nor eaten raw shellfish during the preceding month. She had attended a party 2 days before her hospitalization. Two other people at the party had acute diarrheal illness and elevated levels of serum antibodies against Vibrio. Everyone at the party ate crabs and rice pudding with coconut milk. Crabs left over from this party were served at a second party. One of the 20 people at the second party had onset of mild diarrhea; specimens from 14 of these people were negative for vibriocidal antibodies.

The source of the disease was

Differentiate the terms in each of the following pairs: infection and disease

Differentiate the terms in each of the following pairs: communicable disease and noncommunicable disease

Match

Indicate whether each of the following conditions is typical of subacute, chronic, or acute infections.

Among hospital patients who have infections, one-third did not enter the hospital with the infection but rather acquired it in the hospital. How do they acquire these infections?

Among hospital patients who have infections, one-third did not enter the hospital with the infection but rather acquired it in the hospital. What is the method of transmission of these infections?

Among hospital patients who have infections, one-third did not enter the hospital with the infection but rather acquired it in the hospital. What is the reservoir of infection?

Distinguish symptoms from signs as signals of disease.

How can a local infection become a systemic infection?

Why are some organisms that constitute the normal microbiota described as commensals, whereas others are described as mutualistic?

Put the following in the correct order to describe the pattern of disease: period of convalescence, prodromal period, period of decline, incubation period, period of illness.

Ten years before Robert Koch published his work on anthrax, Anton De Bary showed that potato blight was caused by the alga Phytophthora infestans. Why do you suppose we use Koch’s postulates instead of something called “De Bary’s postulates”?

Name the method of transmission of each of the following diseases:

Name the method of transmission of each of the following diseases:

Name the method of transmission of each of the following diseases:

Three days before a nurse developed meningococcemia, she assisted with intubation of a patient with a Neisseria meningitidis infection. Of the 24 medical personnel involved, only this nurse became ill. The nurse recalled that she was exposed to nasopharyngeal secretions and did not receive antibiotic prophylaxis. What two mistakes did the nurse make?

Three days before a nurse developed meningococcemia, she assisted with intubation of a patient with a Neisseria meningitidis infection. Of the 24 medical personnel involved, only this nurse became ill. The nurse recalled that she was exposed to nasopharyngeal secretions and did not receive antibiotic prophylaxis. How is meningitis transmitted?

Which of the following statements concerning pathology, infection, and disease is true?

Which of the following is an example of the symbiotic relationship known as mutualism?

Koch's postulates established criteria for proving that a specific organism causes a specific disease. Which of the following is NOT one of the criteria given by Koch's postulates?

Which of the following is classified as a latent disease?

Which of the following statements about the development of infectious diseases is correct?

Which of the following is a protozoan zoonosis that can be transmitted by direct contact?

Which of the following would be an example of disease transmission via indirect contact?

As a health care worker, you are keenly aware of how important it is to avoid harming patients. You worry about inadvertently transmitting an infectious disease to an already compromised individual. According to the CDC, what is the most important thing you can do to avoid this?

The following choices list several types of diseases, along with factors that may contribute to their emergence. Which disease and associated factor do NOT match?

Match

Match

Which statements accurately describe Koch’s postulates?

This activity presents experimental results obtained when a suspected pathogen was tested and asks you to identify appropriate conclusions based on each scenario.

A rabbit was found to have floppy ear disease, which causes long-ear infections. Its etiology (cause) is unknown. Unknown Microorganism X from the infected rabbit’s right ear is successfully isolated and cultured on laboratory growth media. The ear of a healthy laboratory mouse is then inoculated with isolated microorganism, and after a period of time, no disease is observed. Which of the following statements accurately describe(s) the conclusion(s) that can be drawn from this experiment?

Match

Match

During a six-month period, 239 cases of pneumonia occurred in a town of 300 people. A clinical case was defined as fever ≥ 39°C lasting >2 days with three or more symptoms (i.e., chills, sweats, severe headache, cough, aching muscles/joints, fatigue, or feeling ill). A laboratory-confirmed case was defined as a positive result for antibodies against Coxiella burnetii. Before the outbreak, 2000 sheep were kept northwest of the town. Of the 20 sheep tested from the flock, 15 were positive for C. burnetii antibodies. Wind blew from the northwest, and rainfall was 0.5 cm compared with 7 to 10 cm during each of the previous three years.

The etiologic agent of the disease in the situation is

A commensal bacterium

One effect of washing regularly with antibacterial agents is the removal of normal microbiota. This can result in

The major significance of Robert Koch's work is that

Focal infections initially start out as

Malaria is an infectious disease caused by infection with a protozoan. In certain tropical regions, malaria is constantly present. We would say that malaria is a(n) __________ disease in these regions.

Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms

Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT?

The CDC is located in

A researcher has performed a prospective study on a disease. To which specific kind of epidemiological study is this referring?

Which advance (from a list) occured during the Second Golden Age of Microbiology?

Which advance (from a list) occured during the Second Golden Age of Microbiology?

Which advance (from a list) occured during the Second Golden Age of Microbiology?

Which substance in the following reaction is being reduced?

Which of the following reactions produces the most molecules of ATP during aerobic metabolism?

Which of the following processes does not generate ATP?

Which of the following compounds has the greatest amount of energy for a cell?

Which of the following is the best definition of the Krebs cycle?

Which of the following is the best definition of respiration?

Which culture produces the most lactic acid?

Which culture produces the most ATP?

Which culture uses NAD+?

Which culture uses the most glucose?

Define oxidation-reduction

What is the difference between aerobic and anaerobic?

What is the difference between respiration and fermentation?

What is the difference between cyclic and noncyclic photophosphorylation?

All of the energy-producing biochemical reactions that occur in cells, such as photophosphorylation and glycolysis, are _____ reactions.

Match: What are their carbon sources?

Match: What are their energy sources?

Explain why, even under ideal conditions, Streptococcus grows slowly.

Microorganisms placed in high concentrations of salts and sugars undergo lysis.

A population of cells carrying a desired plasmid is called a

Which of the following does NOT achieve sterilization?

A sample of milk is tested for its bacterial content in a plate count assay. A one-milliliter sample of the milk is diluted in a 1:10 dilution series. One milliliter of the third dilution tube is plated in a pour plate. After incubation, the plate has 54 colonies, indicating that the original milk sample contained

Culture 1: F+, leucine+, histidine+ Culture 2: F-, leucine-, histidine-

In the table, if culture 1 mutates to Hfr, what will be the result of conjugation between the two cultures?

An experiment began with 4 cells in log phase and ended with 128 cells. How many generations did the cells go through?

Which enzyme catalyzes the following reaction? 2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2

The biosafety level (BSL) for most introductory microbiology laboratories is

A culture medium consisting of agar, peptone, and beef heart is a

The term aerotolerant anaerobe refers to an organism that

All of the following are effective for destroying prions EXCEPT

An advantage of cDNA over genomic DNA is that it

Which of the following could be used to sterilize plastic Petri plates in a plastic wrapper?

Medium 1 is

Medium 2 is

Which of the lines best depicts the log phase of a thermophile incubated at room temperature?

Which of the lines best depicts the log phase of Listeria monocytogenes growing in a human?

Assume you inoculated 100 facultatively anaerobic cells onto nutrient agar and incubated the plate aerobically. You then inoculated 100 cells of the same species onto nutrient agar and incubated the second plate anaerobically. After incubation for 24 hours, you should have

The term trace elements refers to

Which one of the following temperatures would most likely kill a mesophile?

Which of the following is not a characteristic of biofilms?

Which of the following types of media would not be used to culture aerobes?

An organism that has peroxidase and superoxide dismutase but lacks catalase is most likely an

The ability of some microbes, such as Trypanosoma or Giardia to alter their surface molecules and evade destruction by the host's antibodies is called

Which of the following toxins and descriptions do NOT match?

Which of the following statements about exotoxins is generally FALSE?

Which of the following is NOT a cytopathic effect (CPE) of viruses?

Which type of bacterial enzyme helps spread Streptococcus pyogenes by digesting blood clots?

Which statement regarding endotoxins is true?

In which of the following cases would the Limulus amebocyte lysate (LAL) assay be used?

Which of the following would be an example of an infection initiated via the parenteral route?

Which of the following is an example of direct damage due to bacterial infection?

All of the following contribute to a pathogen's invasiveness EXCEPT

All of the following are methods of avoiding host antibodies EXCEPT

A pathogen that is capable of antigenic variation can ________________.

Which of the following statements about adherence is true?

All of the following are used by bacteria to attach to host cells EXCEPT

The ID50 is

Ergot and aflatoxin are toxins sometimes found in grains contaminated with fungi.

Certain traits that allow pathogens to create infection and cause disease are termed

Which of the following enzymes breaks down the "glue" that holds cells together?

Which of the following virulence factors would be found in Staphylococcus aureus?

How do fibrinolysins enhance a pathogen's virulence?

Siderophores are bacterial proteins that compete with the host's

Which of the following statements about lysogenic conversion is true?

In mice, the LD50 for staphylococcal enterotoxin is 1350 ng/kg, and the LD50 for Shiga toxin is 250 ng/kg. Which of the following statements is true?

Which of the following cytopathic effects is cytocidal?

Antibiotics can lead to septic shock if used to treat

The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the

Symptoms of protozoan and helminthic diseases are due to

Most fungi grow best at pH

A suspension of 106 Bacillus cereus endospores was put in a hot-air oven at 170°C. Plate counts were used to determine the number of endospores surviving at the time intervals shown.

In the figure, the thermal death point for this culture is

Patients with indwelling catheters (long-term tubes inserted into body orifices for drainage, such as through the urethra and into the urinary bladder) are susceptible to infections because

If you knew the sequence of nucleotides within a gene, which one of the following could you determine with the most accuracy?

If you were preparing nutrient agar at home and did not have an autoclave, what could you use to sterilize the nutrient agar?

Which of the following best describes the pattern of microbial death?

One advantage of a viral vector over a plasmid vector is that the

A gene is defined as

The fact that people continue to be concerned about the safety of DNA technology can be attributed to the following:

If cells are grown in media containing amino acids labeled with radioactive nitrogen (15N), most of the radioactivity will be found in the cells'

Which of the following is NOT a desired characteristic of DNA vectors used in gene cloning procedures?

In the figure, which line best depicts a facultative anaerobe in the absence of O2?

During which growth phase will gram-positive bacteria be most susceptible to penicillin?

The reaction catalyzed by reverse transcriptase is

Which of the following is NOT a product of transcription?

A kitchen countertop has a spill of vegetable oil that was wiped up but a film remains. What should be the next step in disinfecting this surface?

Which of the following statements regarding a bacterium that is R+ is FALSE?

A source of heat-stable DNA polymerase is

In the figure, which model of the lac operon correctly shows RNA polymerase, lactose, and repressor protein when the structural genes are being transcribed?

Which of the following pairs of terms is mismatched?

Repair of damaged DNA, in some instances and mechanisms, might be viewed as a race between an endonuclease and

Which of the following is NOT an agricultural product made by DNA techniques?

According to the operon model, for the synthesis of an inducible enzyme to occur, the

There have been several changes in taxonomy over the years. Who proposed the current taxonomy described in your text with three Domains (1978):

Use of culture independent techniques like rRNA sequencing and FISH increased our understanding of microbial diversity. Why should microbiologists still attempt to grow new species?

Gram-negative rods that are aerobic and non-fermenting:

In what ways has PrPSc NOT been transmitted?

What phyla do the Methanobacteria and Halobacteria belong to?

During development of disease, what defines a short period after incubation; early, mild symptoms

Of a list, which are factors that determine the distribution and composition of normal microbiota?

What are the exceptions to Koch's postulates?

A mosquito carrying the causative agent of malaria bites a human. What mode and type of transmission is this?

Of a list, which epidemiologist is best described as using analytical epidemiology to address an issue?

Incidence of a specific notifiable disease

Which describes infectious dose (given ID50 and LD50)?

What cell wall components prevent phagocytosis?

Compare exotoxins and endotoxins

Compare exotoxins and endotoxins

Compare exotoxins and endotoxins

How do protozoa evade host defenses?

Which of the following exhibits the highest phagocytic activity?

Which of the following are best described as short chains of amino acids that are very stable and can have a variety of different antimicrobial activities, such as forming pores in bacterial plasma membranes and inhibiting cell wall synthesis?

Each of the following provides protection from phagocytic digestion EXCEPT

Innate immunity

Which statement regarding the lymphatic system is true?

You note that the body temperature of one of your patients is starting to increase. As a result, you can infer that all of the following may be occurring in this patient EXCEPT __________.

Which of the following can defend the body by either opsonizing bacteria, lysing bacteria, and/or promoting inflammation?

Normal microbiota provide resistance to disease in all of the following ways except __________________.

All of the following increase blood vessel permeability EXCEPT

All of the following pertain to fever EXCEPT that it

Which of the following is an effect of opsonization?

Which of the following statements concerning phagocytosis is true?

If one is examining a blood smear from a patient with a parasitic worm infection, which of the following leukocytes would be found in increased numbers?

Which non-specific defense mechanism is mismatched with its associated body structure or body fluid?

All of the following protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection EXCEPT

The lectin pathway for complement action is initiated by

Which of the following statements about innate immunity is true?

Lysozyme and the antibiotic penicillin have similar mechanisms of action in that they both cause damage to the bacterial

Which of the following statements about beta interferons is true?

Unbroken skin poses a substantial barrier to microbes. All of the following contribute to this barrier except

The complement protein cascade is the same for the classical pathway, alternative pathway, and lectin pathway after the point in the cascade where the activation of ________ takes place.

Which of the following is mismatched?

TLRs attach to all of the following EXCEPT

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

The thermal death time for a suspension of Bacillus subtilis endospores is 30 minutes in dry heat and less than 10 minutes in an autoclave. Which type of heat is more effective?

If pasteurization does not achieve sterilization, why is pasteurization used to treat food?

Which factors can alter thermal death point?

The antimicrobial effect of gamma radiation is due to (a)____ . The antimicrobial effect of ultraviolet radiation is due to (b)___

How do autoclaving, hot air, and pasteurization illustrate the concept of equivalent treatments?

How do salts and sugars preserve foods?

Name one food that is preserved with sugar and one preserved with salt.

The use-dilution values for two disinfectants tested under the same conditions are as follows: Disinfectant A—1:2; Disinfectant B—1:10,000. If both disinfectants are designed for the same purpose, which would you select?

Which of the following does not kill endospores?

Which of the following is most effective for sterilizing mattresses and plastic Petri dishes?

Which of these disinfectants does not act by disrupting the plasma membrane?

Which of the following cannot be used to sterilize a heat-labile solution stored in a plastic container?

Which of the following is used to control microbial growth in foods?

Which disinfectant is the most effective?

Which disinfectant(s) is (are) bactericidal?

Which of the following is not a characteristic of quaternary ammonium compounds?

A classmate is trying to determine how a disinfectant might kill cells. You observed that when he spilled the disinfectant in your reduced litmus milk, the litmus turned blue again. You suggest to your classmate that

Which of the following is most likely to be bactericidal?

Which disinfectant was the most effective against the organism?

Transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell by a bacteriophage.

Transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient as naked DNA in solution.

Feedback inhibition differs from repression because feedback inhibition

Bacteria can acquire antibiotic resistance by all of the following except

Suppose you inoculate three flasks of minimal salts broth with E. coli. Flask A contains glucose. Flask B contains glucose and lactose. Flask C contains lactose. After a few hours of incubation, you test the flasks for the presence of β-galactosidase. Which flask(s) do you predict will have this enzyme?

Plasmids differ from transposons in that plasmids

Mechanism by which the presence of glucose inhibits the lac operon.

The mechanism by which lactose controls the lac operon.

Two offspring cells are most likely to inherit which one of the following from the parent cell?

Which of the following is not a method of horizontal gene transfer?

Match the following examples of mutagens.

Match the following examples of mutagens.

When iron is not available, E. coli can stop synthesis of all proteins, such as superoxide dismutase and succinate dehydrogenase, that require iron. Describe a mechanism for this regulation.

Why are mutation and recombination important in the process of natural selection and the evolution of organisms?

Restriction enzymes were first discovered with the observation that

The DNA probe, 3’-GGCTTA, will hybridize with which of the following?

Which of the following is the fourth basic step to genetically modify a cell?

The following enzymes are used to make cDNA. What is the second enzyme used to make cDNA?

If you put a gene in a virus, the next step in genetic modification would be

You have a small gene that you want replicated by PCR. You add radioactively labeled nucleotides to the PCR thermal cycler. After three replication cycles, what percentage of the DNA single strands are radioactively labeled?

Pieces of human DNA stored in yeast cells.

A population of cells carrying a desired plasmid.

Self-replicating DNA for transmitting a gene from one organism to another.

DNA that hybridizes with mRNA.

Which are DNA?

Of what value are sticky ends in making rDNA?

Which of the following organisms are most closely related?

Are any two the same species?

Which of these organisms are most closely related?

The GC content of Micrococcus is 66–75 moles %, and of Staphylococcus, 30–40 moles %. According to this information, would you conclude that these two genera are closely related?

Describe the use of a DNA probe and PCR for: Rapid identification of an unknown bacterium and determining which of a group of bacterium are most closely related.

Bergey’s Manual of Systematic Bacteriology differs from Bergey’s Manual of Determinative Bacteriology in that the former

Bacillus and Lactobacillus are not in the same order. This indicates that which one of the following is not sufficient to assign an organism to a taxon?

Which of the following is used to classify organisms into the Kingdom Fungi?

You could identify an unknown bacterium by all of the following except

The wall-less mycoplasmas are considered to be related to gram-positive bacteria . Which of the following would provide the most compelling evidence for this?

Into which group would you place a multicellular organism that has a mouth and lives inside the human liver?

Into which group would you place a photosynthetic organism that lacks a nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan wall surrounded by an outer membrane?

Which is (are) found in all three domains?

1. 9 + 2 flagella
2. 70S ribosome
3. fimbria
4. nucleus
5. peptidoglycan
6. plasma membrane

Which is (are) found only in prokaryotes?

1. 9 + 2 flagella
2. 70S ribosome
3. fimbria
4. nucleus
5. peptidoglycan
6. plasma membrane

If you Gram-stained the bacteria that live in the human intestine, you would expect to find mostly

Which of the following does not belong with the others?

Pathogenic bacteria can be

Which of the following is an intracellular parasite?

Which of the following terms is the most specific?

Which one of the following does not belong with the others?

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

Spirillum is not classified as a spirochete because spirochetes

When Legionella was newly discovered, why was it classified with the pseudomonads?

Unlike purple and green phototrophic bacteria, cyanobacteria

Use of culture-independent techniques such as rRNA sequencing and FISH have increased our understanding of microbial diversity without cultivation. Do microbiologists still need to attempt to grow new species? Briefly explain.

To which of the following is the photosynthetic bacterium Chromatium most closely related? Briefly explain why.

After contact with a patient’s spinal fluid, a lab technician developed fever, nausea, and purple lesions on her neck and extremities. A throat culture grew gram-negative diplococci. What is the genus of the bacteria?

Between April 1 and May 15 of one year, 22 children in three states developed diarrhea, fever, and vomiting. The children had each received pet ducklings. Gram-negative, facultatively anaerobic bacteria were isolated from both the patients’ and the ducks’ feces; the bacteria were identified as serovar C2. What is the genus of these bacteria?

A woman complaining of lower abdominal pain with a temper-ature of 39°C gave birth soon after to a stillborn baby. Blood cultures from the infant revealed gram-positive rods. The woman had a history of eating unheated hot dogs during her pregnancy. Which organism is most likely involved?

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of B cells?

In the figure, which areas are similar for all IgG antibodies?

Which of the following statements concerning immunological memory is true?

What type of immunity results from vaccination?

What is the correct sequence of events for activation of a B cell by a T-dependent antigen?

Which type of T cell is involved in activating macrophages and stimulating development of cytotoxic T cells?

Which of the following statements about cytokines is FALSE?

Consider a helminthic infection in which an individual is colonized by a parasitic worm. The worm is too big to be engulfed by a phagocytic cell. How does the immune system respond?

Which immunoglobulin class, found in blood, lymph, and the intestine, can cross the placenta and help to protect a fetus?

When an antibody binds to a toxin, the resulting action is referred to as

Which of the following cells is NOT an APC?

In the figure, what portion will typically attach to a host cell?

The antibodies found in mucus, saliva, and tears are

Which of the following statements concerning antigen-presenting cells is true?

If a patient has been exposed to an antigen for the first time, which class of immunoglobulin appears first?

Which of the following is the best definition of epitope?

The following events elicit an antibody response. What is the third step?

Newborns' immunity due to the transfer of antibodies across the placenta is an example of

Which of the following statements concerning cellular immunity is FALSE?

A Treg cell deficiency could result in

An individual may be exposed to a pathogen and become infected without actually getting sick. This is known as a subclinical infection. Even in subclinical infections, the individual's adaptive immune system can generate memory for the pathogen. What type of adaptive immunity is this?

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cellular immunity?

Which cytokines are believed to contribute to autoimmune disease, such as rheumatoid arthritis?

CD4+ T cells are activated by

The following events occur in cellular immunity, leading to a response from TH cells. What is the third step?

Which of the following terms regarding roles of chemical messengers is mismatched?

What type of immunity results from recovery from mumps?

Which of the following statements about members of the Kingdom Plantae is FALSE?

A bacterial species differs from a species of eukaryotic organisms in that a bacterial species

Fatty acid methyl ester analysis is commonly used

In the table, which features are found in nearly all eukarya?

1. 9+2 flagella
2. Nucleus
3. Plasma membrane
4. Peptidoglycan
5. Mitochondrion
6. Fimbriae

Phage typing is based on the fact that

In a direct ELISA test, the method is determining if ________ is/are present in the patient's sample by attempting to bind a labeled antibody to it.

This figure shows the results of a gel electrophoresis separation of restriction fragments of the DNA of different organisms. In the figure, which two are most closely related?

Into which group would you place a photosynthetic cell that lacks a nucleus?

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

You have isolated an aerobic gram-positive, endospore-forming bacterium that grows well on nutrient agar. To which of the following groups does it most likely belong?

Which of the following best describes the enterics, a bacterial group found primarily in the intestines of humans?

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of spirochetes?

The genus of bacteria that are particularly problematic in hospital settings due to their ability to grow in solutions with minute traces of unusual carbon sources is

Actinomycetes differ from fungi in that actinomycetes

Staphylococcus and Streptococcus can usually be differentiated by microscope examination because of

Assume you have isolated a multicellular heterotrophic organism that produces coenocytic hyphae, motile zoospores, and cellulose cell walls. It is most likely a(n)

You observe a mass of amoeba-like cells that swarm together, form a stalk, and produce spores. This is a(n)

Which of the following is the most effective control for malaria?

If a larva of Echinococcus granulosus is found in humans, humans are the

Which of the following statements regarding lichens is FALSE?

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

A definitive host harbors which stage of a parasite?

Which of the following arthropods does NOT transmit diseases by sucking blood from a human host?

A feature that may be found in viruses but never in bacteria is

The most conclusive evidence that viruses cause cancers was provided by

Which of the following is NOT utilized to culture viruses?

What contributes to antigenic shift in influenza viruses?

The mechanism whereby an enveloped virus leaves a host cell is called

What is NOT true regarding viruses that infect plants?

Which of the following is necessary for replication of a prion?

When monocytes leave circulating blood and enter body tissues, they mature into:

In the classical pathway of complement activation, C2a binds:

Opsonization of ____ enhances phagocytosis; membrane attack Complex is made up of ____.

List the effects of IFN gamma

List the steps in order of phagocytosis

What portion of the T cells can recognize an antigenic peptide?

When an antibody binds attachment points of a toxin, bacteria or virus is called:

Type of T cell that stimulates production of eosinophils, IgM and IgE

A recent survivor of Ebola virus donates their plasma (containing antibodies) to a current family member and patient with Ebola. This hopefully results in which type of immunity for the current patient?

Which are components of an antibody?

Following is a list of fungi, their methods of entry into the body, and sites of infections they cause. Categorize each type of mycosis as cutaneous, opportunistic, subcutaneous, superficial, or systemic.

A mixed culture of Escherichia coli and Penicillium chrysogenum is inoculated onto the following culture media. On which medium would you expect each to grow?

Briefly discuss the importance of lichens in nature.

Briefly discuss the importance of algae in nature.

Why is it significant that Trichomonas does not have a cyst stage?

By what means are helminthic parasites transmitted to humans?

Most roundworms are dioecious. What does this term mean

How many phyla are represented in the following list of organisms: Echinococcus, Cyclospora, Aspergillus, Taenia, Toxoplasma, Trichinella?

Put the above stages in order of development, beginning with the egg.

1. metacercaria
2. redia
3. adult
4. miracidium 5.cercaria

If a snail is the first intermediate host of a parasite with these stages, which stage would be found in the snail?

1. metacercaria
2. redia
3. adult
4. miracidium 5.cercaria

Fleas are the intermediate host for Dipylidium caninum tapeworm, and dogs are the definitive host. Which stage of the parasite could be found in the flea?

Which of the following statements about yeasts are true?

1. Yeasts are fungi.
2. Yeasts can form pseudohyphae.
3. Yeasts reproduce asexually by budding.
4. Yeasts are facultatively anaerobic.
5. All yeasts are pathogenic.
6. All yeasts are dimorphic.

Which of the following events follows cell fusion in an ascomycete?

The definitive host for Plasmodium vivax

These are obligate intracellular parasites that lack mitochondria.

These are nonmotile parasites with special organelles for penetrating host tissue.

These photosynthetic organisms can cause paralytic shellfish poisoning.

Why are freshwater fish more likely to be a source of tapeworm infection than marine fish?

Why do we classify viruses as obligatory intracellular parasites?

List the four properties that define a virus.

What is a virion?

Compare biosynthesis of a + stranded RNA and a − stranded RNA virus.

Some antibiotics activate phage genes. MRSA releasing Panton-Valentine leukocidin causes a life-threatening disease. Why can this happen following antibiotic treatment?

Koch’s postulates are used to determine the etiology of a disease. Why is it difficult to determine the etiology of a viral infection, such as influenza?

Koch’s postulates are used to determine the etiology of a disease. Why is it difficult to determine the etiology of cancer?

Persistent viral infections such as (a) ___________ might be caused by (b) ___________ that are (c ) ___________.

Plant viruses can’t penetrate intact plant cells because (a) ___________; therefore, they enter cells by (b) ___________. Plant viruses can be cultured in (c) ___________.

Discuss the arguments for and against the classification of viruses as living organisms.

Why was the discovery of simian AIDS and feline AIDS important?

Place the following in the most likely order for biosynthesis of a bacteriophage: (1) phage lysozyme; (2) mRNA; (3) DNA; (4) viral proteins; (5) DNA polymerase.

The molecule serving as mRNA can be incorporated in the newly synthesized virus capsids of all of the following except

A virus with RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

Which of the following would be the first step in the biosynthesis of a virus with reverse transcriptase?

An example of lysogeny in animals could be

The ability of a virus to infect an organism is regulated by

Which of the following statements is false?

Place the following in the order in which they are found in a host cell: (1) capsid proteins; (2) infective phage particles; (3) phage nucleic acid.

Which of the following does not initiate DNA synthesis?

A viral species is not defined on the basis of the disease symptoms it causes. The best example of this is

Cancer patients undergoing chemotherapy are normally more susceptible to infections. However, a patient receiving an antitumor drug that affects eukaryotic cytoskeletons was resistant to Salmonella. Provide a possible mechanism for the resistance.

How are capsules and cell wall components related to pathogenicity?

Explain how drugs that bind each of the following would affect pathogenicity: iron in the host’s blood

Explain how drugs that bind each of the following would affect pathogenicity: Neisseria gonorrhoeae fimbriae

Explain how drugs that bind each of the following would affect pathogenicity: Streptococcus pyogenes M protein

How can viruses and protozoa avoid being killed by the host’s immune response?

The removal of plasmids reduces virulence in which of the following organisms?

What is the LD50 for the bacterial toxin tested in the example below?

Which of the following is not a portal of entry for pathogens?

All of the following can occur during bacterial infection. Which would prevent all of the others?

The ID50 for Campylobacter sp. is 500 cells; the ID50 for Cryptosporidium sp. is 100 cells. Which of the following statements is false?

An encapsulated bacterium can be virulent because the capsule

A drug that binds to mannose on human cells would prevent

The earliest smallpox vaccines were infected tissue rubbed into the skin of a healthy person. The recipient of such a vaccine usually developed a mild case of smallpox, recovered, and was immune thereafter. What is the most likely reason this vaccine did not kill more people?

Which of the following does not represent the same mechanism for avoiding host defenses as the others?

Which of the following statements is true?

Identify at least one physical factor and one chemical factor that prevent microbes from entering the body through each of the following: urinary tract

Identify at least one physical factor and one chemical factor that prevent microbes from entering the body through each of the following:reproductive tract

Define inflammation, and list its characteristics.

What are interferons?

Patients with X-linked chronic granulomatous disease are susceptible to infections because their neutrophils don’t generate an oxidative burst. What is the relation of the oxidative burst to infection?

Why does hemolysis of red blood cells occur when a person receives a transfusion of the wrong type of blood?

Give examples of how microbes evade the complement system.

Are the following involved in innate or in adaptive immunity? Identify the role of each in immunity:

What role does transferrin play in fighting an infection?

Leukocyte adherence deficiency (LAD) is an inherited disease resulting in the inability of neutrophils to recognize C3b-bound microorganisms. What are the most likely consequences of LAD?

The neutrophils of individuals with Chédiak-Higashi syndrome (CHS) have fewer than normal chemotactic receptors and lysosomes that spontaneously rupture. What are the consequences of CHS?

Legionella uses C3b receptors to enter monocytes. This...

Chlamydia can prevent the formation of phagolysosomes and therefore can

If the following are placed in the order of occurrence, which would be the third step?

If the following are placed in the order of occurrence, which would be the third step?

A human host can prevent a pathogen from getting enough iron by all of the following except

A decrease in the production of C3 would result in

In 1884, Elie Metchnikoff observed cells collected around a splinter inserted in a sea star embryo. This was the discovery of

Helicobacter pylori uses the enzyme urease to counteract a chemical defense in the human organ in which it lives. This chemical defense is

Which of the following statements about IFN-α is false?

Which of the following does not stimulate phagocytes?

What does MHC stand for?

What is the function of MHC?

What types of T cells interact with MHC class I? With MHC class II?

Explain a function for the following types of cells: CTL, TH, and Treg.

What is a cytokine?

How would each of the following prevent infection? antibodies against Neisseria gonorrhoeae fimbriae

prevent attachment of the pathogen; (a) interfere with the attachment site on the pathogen antibodies against host cell mannose

How can a human make over 10 billion different antibodies with only 25,000 different genes?

Explain why a person who recovers from a disease can attend others with the disease without fear of contracting it.

The type of protection provided by the injection of diphtheria toxoid.

The type of protection provided by the injection of antirabies serum.

The type of protection resulting from recovery from an infection.

A newborn’s immunity to yellow fever.

Antibodies that protect the fetus and newborn.

The first antibodies synthesized; especially effective against microorganisms.

Antibodies that are bound to mast cells and involved in allergic reactions.

Put the following in the correct sequence to elicit an antibody response: (1) TH cell recognizes B cell; (2) APC contacts antigen; (3) antigen fragment goes to surface of APC; (4) TH recognizes antigen digest and MHC; (5) B cell proliferates.

A kidney-transplant patient experienced a cytotoxic rejection of his new kidney. Place the following in order for that rejection: (1) apoptosis occurs; (2) CD8+ T cell becomes CTL; (3) granzymes released; (4) MHC class I activates CD8+ T cell; (5) perforin released.

Patients with Chédiak-Higashi syndrome suffer from various types of cancer. These patients are most likely lacking which of the following?

Where are heterocysts found?

Into which field of microbiology would the following scientists best fit:Studies biodegradation of toxic wastes

Into which field of microbiology would the following scientists best fit?:Studies the causative agent of Ebola virus disease

Into which field of microbiology would the following scientists best fit?: Studies the production of human proteins by bacteria

Into which field of microbiology would the following scientists best fit?: Studies the symptoms of AIDS

Into which field of microbiology would the following scientists best fit:Studies biodegradation of pollutants

Into which field of microbiology would the following scientists best fit: Develops gene therapy for a disease

Into which field of microbiology would the following scientists best fit: Studies the fungus Candida albicans

which field of microbiology would the following scientists best fit Into: Studies the production of toxin by E. coli