Podcast
Questions and Answers
During the compensatory stage of shock, which physiological response is least likely to occur as the body attempts to maintain homeostasis?
During the compensatory stage of shock, which physiological response is least likely to occur as the body attempts to maintain homeostasis?
- Decreased cortisol release from the adrenal glands (correct)
- Release of renin, leading to sodium and water retention
- Increased heart rate and vasoconstriction
- Hyperventilation resulting in respiratory alkalosis
In the progressive stage of shock, a patient's condition deteriorates, leading to multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). Which of the following pathophysiological changes is least likely to contribute directly to MODS during this stage?
In the progressive stage of shock, a patient's condition deteriorates, leading to multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). Which of the following pathophysiological changes is least likely to contribute directly to MODS during this stage?
- Hypotension leading to decreased tissue perfusion
- Shift from aerobic to anaerobic metabolism, increasing lactic acid levels
- Widespread edema and third-spacing of fluids
- Improved tissue oxygenation due to compensatory mechanisms (correct)
In the treatment of shock, prioritizing interventions is critical. Considering the stages of shock, which intervention requires the most immediate attention, regardless of the specific type of shock present?
In the treatment of shock, prioritizing interventions is critical. Considering the stages of shock, which intervention requires the most immediate attention, regardless of the specific type of shock present?
- Administering medications to support blood pressure
- Ensuring adequate oxygen delivery to tissues (correct)
- Performing a comprehensive assessment to identify the underlying cause of shock
- Administering intravenous fluids to increase circulating volume
A patient in hypovolemic shock exhibits cool, clammy skin, decreased urine output, and altered mental status. Which additional assessment finding would provide the strongest support for the diagnosis of hypovolemic shock over other forms of shock?
A patient in hypovolemic shock exhibits cool, clammy skin, decreased urine output, and altered mental status. Which additional assessment finding would provide the strongest support for the diagnosis of hypovolemic shock over other forms of shock?
A patient with known heart failure is admitted with symptoms of cardiogenic shock. The physician orders a pulmonary artery catheter to assess hemodynamic parameters. Which set of findings would most strongly suggest cardiogenic shock rather than hypovolemic shock?
A patient with known heart failure is admitted with symptoms of cardiogenic shock. The physician orders a pulmonary artery catheter to assess hemodynamic parameters. Which set of findings would most strongly suggest cardiogenic shock rather than hypovolemic shock?
What is the rationale for administering fluids cautiously to patients in cardiogenic shock?
What is the rationale for administering fluids cautiously to patients in cardiogenic shock?
A patient is suspected of having obstructive shock. Which assessment finding would be most indicative of this type of shock, differentiating it from cardiogenic or hypovolemic shock?
A patient is suspected of having obstructive shock. Which assessment finding would be most indicative of this type of shock, differentiating it from cardiogenic or hypovolemic shock?
A patient in the emergency department exhibits hypotension, bradycardia, and warm, dry skin. Which intervention would be most appropriate to address the underlying cause of this patient's shock?
A patient in the emergency department exhibits hypotension, bradycardia, and warm, dry skin. Which intervention would be most appropriate to address the underlying cause of this patient's shock?
A patient experiencing anaphylactic shock is prescribed intramuscular epinephrine. What is the rationale for administering epinephrine via the intramuscular route rather than the intravenous route in this emergency situation?
A patient experiencing anaphylactic shock is prescribed intramuscular epinephrine. What is the rationale for administering epinephrine via the intramuscular route rather than the intravenous route in this emergency situation?
A patient with septic shock has persistent hypotension despite aggressive fluid resuscitation. Which additional intervention should the nurse anticipate to improve the patient's blood pressure and tissue perfusion?
A patient with septic shock has persistent hypotension despite aggressive fluid resuscitation. Which additional intervention should the nurse anticipate to improve the patient's blood pressure and tissue perfusion?
Which of the following assessment findings is the least indicative of sepsis, requiring immediate intervention?
Which of the following assessment findings is the least indicative of sepsis, requiring immediate intervention?
A patient is diagnosed with severe sepsis. Which of the following clinical manifestations indicates the onset of end-organ damage, requiring immediate and aggressive intervention?
A patient is diagnosed with severe sepsis. Which of the following clinical manifestations indicates the onset of end-organ damage, requiring immediate and aggressive intervention?
Which statement best explains the relationship between SIRS, sepsis, and septic shock?
Which statement best explains the relationship between SIRS, sepsis, and septic shock?
A patient with MODS is exhibiting signs of liver dysfunction. Which lab finding would provide the strongest evidence for this?
A patient with MODS is exhibiting signs of liver dysfunction. Which lab finding would provide the strongest evidence for this?
What is the primary reason for the maldistribution of blood flow in MODS?
What is the primary reason for the maldistribution of blood flow in MODS?
During the management of a patient with atelectasis, which intervention is most effective in preventing further alveolar collapse?
During the management of a patient with atelectasis, which intervention is most effective in preventing further alveolar collapse?
An unresponsive patient is at high risk for aspiration. Which nursing intervention is most important to prevent aspiration in this patient?
An unresponsive patient is at high risk for aspiration. Which nursing intervention is most important to prevent aspiration in this patient?
A patient with acute respiratory failure requires mechanical ventilation. The physician orders the initial ventilator settings. Which setting is most critical to monitor for the development of barotrauma?
A patient with acute respiratory failure requires mechanical ventilation. The physician orders the initial ventilator settings. Which setting is most critical to monitor for the development of barotrauma?
A patient with ARDS is placed on mechanical ventilation. The nurse notices that the patient is increasingly restless and appears to be fighting the ventilator. Which initial intervention is most appropriate?
A patient with ARDS is placed on mechanical ventilation. The nurse notices that the patient is increasingly restless and appears to be fighting the ventilator. Which initial intervention is most appropriate?
Which ABG result indicates a need for intubation and mechanical ventilation?
Which ABG result indicates a need for intubation and mechanical ventilation?
A patient with ARDS develops worsening hypoxemia despite increasing FiO2 and PEEP. What intervention is most likely to improve oxygenation in this patient?
A patient with ARDS develops worsening hypoxemia despite increasing FiO2 and PEEP. What intervention is most likely to improve oxygenation in this patient?
Which of the following is the most life-threatening consequence of flail chest?
Which of the following is the most life-threatening consequence of flail chest?
A patient presents with chest pain, dyspnea, and anxiety following a long-distance flight. Which is the most immediate intervention?
A patient presents with chest pain, dyspnea, and anxiety following a long-distance flight. Which is the most immediate intervention?
A patient is admitted to the burn unit with full thickness burns over 40% of their body. During the emergent/resuscitative phase, which finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
A patient is admitted to the burn unit with full thickness burns over 40% of their body. During the emergent/resuscitative phase, which finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
A patient with a severe burn injury is receiving intravenous fluids for resuscitation. Which assessment finding indicates the MOST effective fluid resuscitation?
A patient with a severe burn injury is receiving intravenous fluids for resuscitation. Which assessment finding indicates the MOST effective fluid resuscitation?
A patient is being resuscitated after a severe burn injury in the emergent phase. Which electrolyte imbalance is the nurse most likely to observe and what is the cause?
A patient is being resuscitated after a severe burn injury in the emergent phase. Which electrolyte imbalance is the nurse most likely to observe and what is the cause?
The P/F ratio is calculated for a patient with ARDS. The PaO2 is 60 mm Hg, and the FiO2 is 60%. What does this indicate?
The P/F ratio is calculated for a patient with ARDS. The PaO2 is 60 mm Hg, and the FiO2 is 60%. What does this indicate?
Which intervention for a patient with ARDS would most likely require neuromuscular blockade?
Which intervention for a patient with ARDS would most likely require neuromuscular blockade?
When assessing a patient with neurogenic shock, which finding differentiate it from other forms of shock?
When assessing a patient with neurogenic shock, which finding differentiate it from other forms of shock?
A patient experiencing anaphylaxis eats almonds, to which they are allergic. The patient is wheezing, has facial edema, and is hypotensive. What medication should you prepare to administer?
A patient experiencing anaphylaxis eats almonds, to which they are allergic. The patient is wheezing, has facial edema, and is hypotensive. What medication should you prepare to administer?
Which of the following is a late sign of septic shock that requires aggressive intervention?
Which of the following is a late sign of septic shock that requires aggressive intervention?
Which is the first stage shock in which there are no obvious clinical signs?
Which is the first stage shock in which there are no obvious clinical signs?
In the shock cascade, which of the following is likely to be the earliest sign in SIRS?
In the shock cascade, which of the following is likely to be the earliest sign in SIRS?
A patient with hypovolemic shock requires fluid and electrolyte administration. The patient is complaining of shortness of breath and has an elevated respiratory rate. What intervention should the nurse prioritize?
A patient with hypovolemic shock requires fluid and electrolyte administration. The patient is complaining of shortness of breath and has an elevated respiratory rate. What intervention should the nurse prioritize?
Which of the following situations may lead to hypovolemic shock?
Which of the following situations may lead to hypovolemic shock?
Patients being treated for pneumonia may also experience ARDS. Which of the following values are important to monitor for an ARDS diagnosis?
Patients being treated for pneumonia may also experience ARDS. Which of the following values are important to monitor for an ARDS diagnosis?
Which of the following should be avoided during treatment for rib fractures?
Which of the following should be avoided during treatment for rib fractures?
During the refractory stage of shock, the body's response to interventions diminishes, leading to irreversible organ damage. Which statement best explains the primary reason for this lack of responsiveness?
During the refractory stage of shock, the body's response to interventions diminishes, leading to irreversible organ damage. Which statement best explains the primary reason for this lack of responsiveness?
A patient in the progressive stage of shock exhibits a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 55 mm Hg, a heart rate of 140 bpm, and a serum lactate level of 4.0 mmol/L. The patient's spouse expresses concern about the patient's mottled skin and decreased level of consciousness. Which nursing intervention is most crucial to prevent the patient's condition from deteriorating further?
A patient in the progressive stage of shock exhibits a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 55 mm Hg, a heart rate of 140 bpm, and a serum lactate level of 4.0 mmol/L. The patient's spouse expresses concern about the patient's mottled skin and decreased level of consciousness. Which nursing intervention is most crucial to prevent the patient's condition from deteriorating further?
A patient with a history of anaphylaxis presents to the emergency department after being stung by a bee. The patient is wheezing, hypotensive, and has facial swelling. After administering epinephrine, which assessment finding would indicate the most effective response to this initial intervention?
A patient with a history of anaphylaxis presents to the emergency department after being stung by a bee. The patient is wheezing, hypotensive, and has facial swelling. After administering epinephrine, which assessment finding would indicate the most effective response to this initial intervention?
A patient with septic shock develops new onset atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response. The patient is hypotensive despite fluid resuscitation and vasopressor support. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize to address both the arrhythmia and hypotension?
A patient with septic shock develops new onset atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response. The patient is hypotensive despite fluid resuscitation and vasopressor support. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize to address both the arrhythmia and hypotension?
A patient with ARDS is receiving mechanical ventilation with high levels of PEEP. The nurse observes a sudden decrease in blood pressure, increased heart rate, and decreased oxygen saturation. Breath sounds are diminished on the left side of the chest. What is the most likely cause of this patient’s deterioration?
A patient with ARDS is receiving mechanical ventilation with high levels of PEEP. The nurse observes a sudden decrease in blood pressure, increased heart rate, and decreased oxygen saturation. Breath sounds are diminished on the left side of the chest. What is the most likely cause of this patient’s deterioration?
Flashcards
Stages of Shock
Stages of Shock
Initiation: no obvious clinical signs. Compensatory: compensatory mechanisms initiated. Progressive: profound cardiovascular effects. Refractory: inadequate tissue perfusion unresponsive to therapy
Shock: Stage 1 (Initiation)
Shock: Stage 1 (Initiation)
Begins with hypoperfusion of the tissues, but no obvious clinical signs are present yet.
Shock: Stage 2 (Compensatory)
Shock: Stage 2 (Compensatory)
The body initiates compensatory mechanisms, such as hyperventilation causing respiratory alkalosis and SNS stimulation (increased HR, vasoconstriction) to maintain perfusion.
Shock: Stage 3 (Progressive)
Shock: Stage 3 (Progressive)
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Shock: Stage 4 (Refractory)
Shock: Stage 4 (Refractory)
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Oxygen Goal in Shock
Oxygen Goal in Shock
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Treat underlying cause of shock
Treat underlying cause of shock
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Combination Therapy (Shock)
Combination Therapy (Shock)
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CVP (Central Venous Pressure)
CVP (Central Venous Pressure)
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Phlebostatic Axis
Phlebostatic Axis
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Arterial Line Complications
Arterial Line Complications
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Hypovolemic Shock: Priorities of Care
Hypovolemic Shock: Priorities of Care
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Hypovolemic Shock: Causes
Hypovolemic Shock: Causes
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Hypovolemic Shock: SNS Effects
Hypovolemic Shock: SNS Effects
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Hypovolemic Shock: Cardiac Status
Hypovolemic Shock: Cardiac Status
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Cardiogenic Shock: Priorities
Cardiogenic Shock: Priorities
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Cardiogenic Shock: Focus
Cardiogenic Shock: Focus
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Cardiogenic Shock: Evaluation
Cardiogenic Shock: Evaluation
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Cardiogenic Shock
Cardiogenic Shock
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IABP Goals
IABP Goals
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Obstructive Shock: Causes
Obstructive Shock: Causes
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Obstructive Shock: Assessments
Obstructive Shock: Assessments
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Neurogenic Shock: Clinical Manifestations
Neurogenic Shock: Clinical Manifestations
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Anaphylactic Shock
Anaphylactic Shock
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Anaphylactic Shock: Treatment
Anaphylactic Shock: Treatment
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Septic Shock: Clinical Manifestations
Septic Shock: Clinical Manifestations
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Septic Shock: Treatment
Septic Shock: Treatment
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Atelectasis: Prevention
Atelectasis: Prevention
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Aspiration: Risk Factors
Aspiration: Risk Factors
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Acute Respiratory Failure
Acute Respiratory Failure
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Ventilator Settings
Ventilator Settings
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ABG Normal Values
ABG Normal Values
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ARDS Symptoms
ARDS Symptoms
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Flail Chest
Flail Chest
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Pulmonary Embolism Risk Factors
Pulmonary Embolism Risk Factors
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Burn Severity
Burn Severity
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1st Degree Burn (Superficial Burn)
1st Degree Burn (Superficial Burn)
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2nd Degree Burn (Partial Thickness Burn)
2nd Degree Burn (Partial Thickness Burn)
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4th Degree Burns
4th Degree Burns
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Smoke Inhalation Injury
Smoke Inhalation Injury
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Emergent/Resuscitative Phase
Emergent/Resuscitative Phase
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Infection Prevention
Infection Prevention
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Rules of Nines
Rules of Nines
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Parkland Formula
Parkland Formula
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Hypoxemia
Hypoxemia
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Study Notes
Stages of Shock
- Shock results from decreased tissue perfusion
- Prioritization of care includes addressing the stages of shock
Stage 1: Initiation
- There are no obvious clinical signs during the initiation stage
- Hypoperfusion of the tissues begins when the cause occurs
Stage 2: Compensatory
- Compensatory mechanisms are initiated, and hyperventilation causes respiratory alkalosis
- SNS stimulation leads to increased heart rate and vasoconstriction
- The kidneys release renin, stimulating RAAS and leading to decreased urine output, in which the body secretes aldosterone and retains sodium and water
- The body releases glucose stores causing hyperglycemia
- Adrenal glands release cortisol
Stage 3: Progressive
- Profound cardiovascular effects occur, including tissue ischemia and cellular hypoxia
- Anaerobic metabolism elevates lactic acid levels (>2.5)
- Hypotension and widespread edema (third-spacing) occurs
- Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome (MODS) can begin
Stage 4: Refractory
- The refractory stage is irreversible
- The patient will not survive and is considered terminal
- Advanced Life Support such as ECHMO and CRRT are used
- Inadequate tissue perfusion becomes unresponsive to therapy, and MODS occurs
Oxygen and Prioritization of Care
- Maximizing oxygen delivery to tissues is the overall goal
- The first priority is to administer oxygen to the patient to prevent complications and shock
Monitoring and Treatment
- Monitor laboratory values like CBC, chemistry, coagulation studies and lactate
- Treatment includes addressing the underlying cause via reversing altered circulatory components and maintaining circulatory volume
- Combination therapy includes fluids, pharmacotherapy, mechanical therapy and maximizing oxygen delivery
Hemodynamic Monitoring - CVP
- CVP (Central Venous Pressure) helps determine when to administer fluids
- It is measured through a central venous catheter/triple lumen catheter
- CVP provides direct measurements of pressures in the right side of the heart
- CVP is used to evaluate the fluid needed by assessing variables like blood pressure(BP), urine output, heart rate (HR) and PLR
- Fluid administration is based on CVP levels that normally range from 2-6 mmHg
- Phlebostatic axis is the reference point used to measure blood pressure returning to the heart and needs to be leveled and zeroed
Arterial Line Complications
- Complications include pain, swelling, bleeding, hematoma formation, infection, thrombosis, air embolism and distal ischemia
Hypovolemic Shock
- Hypovolemic shock results from decreased intravascular volume due to fluid loss
- Causes include external fluid losses like traumatic blood loss or internal shifts like severe dehydration, edema or ascites
- Risk factors include external factors like trauma, surgery, vomiting, diarrhea, DKA and internal factors like hemorrhage, burns, ascites, and dehydration
- Clinical manifestations include tachycardia, narrowed pulse pressure, decreased BP, cool/pale/clammy skin, decreased urine output, restlessness, and tachypnea
- Priorities of care are to treat the underlying cause, and fluid/blood replacement, redistribute fluid, and use pharmacological therapy
- For studoc cases, administer fluids; unless the airway is compromised, then administer electrolytes
- Studoc includes hemorrhage, burns, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, and GI bleeding
- The SNS kicks in, increasing HR and vasoconstriction
- Cardiac output and preload are decreased, and circulation is inadequate
Cardiogenic Shock
- Cardiogenic shock results from impairment or failure of the myocardium
- Impaired ability of the heart to contract and pump blood, leading to inadequate oxygen supply to the heart and tissues
- Causes include coronary or noncoronary factors, most commonly myocardial infarction (MI)
- Clinical manifestations include angina, arrhythmias, fatigue, feelings of doom, and hemodynamic instability
- Priorities of care include correcting the underlying cause, initiating first-line treatment and ensuring adequate oxygenation, pain control and hemodynamic stability
- Treatment includes dobutamine, nitroglycerin, dopamine, vasoactive medications, antiarrhythmic medications, and mechanical assistive devices
- Focus on adequate oxygenation, pain control and hemodynamic stability
- Evaluation of response includes monitoring vital signs, urine output, and mental status improvements
- Cardiogenic shock is commonly caused by an MI, which reduces the heart's ability to contract
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