Stages of Shock

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Questions and Answers

During the compensatory stage of shock, which physiological response is least likely to occur as the body attempts to maintain homeostasis?

  • Decreased cortisol release from the adrenal glands (correct)
  • Release of renin, leading to sodium and water retention
  • Increased heart rate and vasoconstriction
  • Hyperventilation resulting in respiratory alkalosis

In the progressive stage of shock, a patient's condition deteriorates, leading to multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). Which of the following pathophysiological changes is least likely to contribute directly to MODS during this stage?

  • Hypotension leading to decreased tissue perfusion
  • Shift from aerobic to anaerobic metabolism, increasing lactic acid levels
  • Widespread edema and third-spacing of fluids
  • Improved tissue oxygenation due to compensatory mechanisms (correct)

In the treatment of shock, prioritizing interventions is critical. Considering the stages of shock, which intervention requires the most immediate attention, regardless of the specific type of shock present?

  • Administering medications to support blood pressure
  • Ensuring adequate oxygen delivery to tissues (correct)
  • Performing a comprehensive assessment to identify the underlying cause of shock
  • Administering intravenous fluids to increase circulating volume

A patient in hypovolemic shock exhibits cool, clammy skin, decreased urine output, and altered mental status. Which additional assessment finding would provide the strongest support for the diagnosis of hypovolemic shock over other forms of shock?

<p>Decreased central venous pressure (CVP) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with known heart failure is admitted with symptoms of cardiogenic shock. The physician orders a pulmonary artery catheter to assess hemodynamic parameters. Which set of findings would most strongly suggest cardiogenic shock rather than hypovolemic shock?

<p>Low cardiac output, elevated PAWP, and increased SVR (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale for administering fluids cautiously to patients in cardiogenic shock?

<p>The already compromised heart may be unable to manage an increased fluid volume, potentially leading to pulmonary edema (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is suspected of having obstructive shock. Which assessment finding would be most indicative of this type of shock, differentiating it from cardiogenic or hypovolemic shock?

<p>Jugular venous distension, muffled heart sounds, and hypotension (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient in the emergency department exhibits hypotension, bradycardia, and warm, dry skin. Which intervention would be most appropriate to address the underlying cause of this patient's shock?

<p>Determining the cause of the loss of sympathetic tone (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient experiencing anaphylactic shock is prescribed intramuscular epinephrine. What is the rationale for administering epinephrine via the intramuscular route rather than the intravenous route in this emergency situation?

<p>Intramuscular administration provides a more sustained release of epinephrine, promoting longer-lasting bronchodilation and vasoconstriction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with septic shock has persistent hypotension despite aggressive fluid resuscitation. Which additional intervention should the nurse anticipate to improve the patient's blood pressure and tissue perfusion?

<p>Administering vasopressors to increase systemic vascular resistance (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following assessment findings is the least indicative of sepsis, requiring immediate intervention?

<p>Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with severe sepsis. Which of the following clinical manifestations indicates the onset of end-organ damage, requiring immediate and aggressive intervention?

<p>Decreased urine output (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best explains the relationship between SIRS, sepsis, and septic shock?

<p>Sepsis is a type of SIRS caused by an infection, and septic shock is sepsis with hypotension despite fluid resuscitation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with MODS is exhibiting signs of liver dysfunction. Which lab finding would provide the strongest evidence for this?

<p>Elevated bilirubin levels (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for the maldistribution of blood flow in MODS?

<p>Widespread vasodilation and capillary permeability (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the management of a patient with atelectasis, which intervention is most effective in preventing further alveolar collapse?

<p>Encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An unresponsive patient is at high risk for aspiration. Which nursing intervention is most important to prevent aspiration in this patient?

<p>Positioning the patient in a side-lying position with the head of the bed elevated (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with acute respiratory failure requires mechanical ventilation. The physician orders the initial ventilator settings. Which setting is most critical to monitor for the development of barotrauma?

<p>Peak inspiratory pressure (PIP) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with ARDS is placed on mechanical ventilation. The nurse notices that the patient is increasingly restless and appears to be fighting the ventilator. Which initial intervention is most appropriate?

<p>Adjusting the ventilator settings to better synchronize with the patient's breathing (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which ABG result indicates a need for intubation and mechanical ventilation?

<p>pH 7.30, PaCO2 55 mm Hg, PaO2 58 mm Hg (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with ARDS develops worsening hypoxemia despite increasing FiO2 and PEEP. What intervention is most likely to improve oxygenation in this patient?

<p>Prone positioning (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most life-threatening consequence of flail chest?

<p>Hypoxemia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with chest pain, dyspnea, and anxiety following a long-distance flight. Which is the most immediate intervention?

<p>Administration of oxygen (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is admitted to the burn unit with full thickness burns over 40% of their body. During the emergent/resuscitative phase, which finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

<p>Increasing hoarseness (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a severe burn injury is receiving intravenous fluids for resuscitation. Which assessment finding indicates the MOST effective fluid resuscitation?

<p>Adequate urine output (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is being resuscitated after a severe burn injury in the emergent phase. Which electrolyte imbalance is the nurse most likely to observe and what is the cause?

<p>Hyperkalemia due to cell destruction at the burn site (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The P/F ratio is calculated for a patient with ARDS. The PaO2 is 60 mm Hg, and the FiO2 is 60%. What does this indicate?

<p>P/F ratio 100. This indicates severe ARDS. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which intervention for a patient with ARDS would most likely require neuromuscular blockade?

<p>Facilitating prone positioning (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When assessing a patient with neurogenic shock, which finding differentiate it from other forms of shock?

<p>Bradycardia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient experiencing anaphylaxis eats almonds, to which they are allergic. The patient is wheezing, has facial edema, and is hypotensive. What medication should you prepare to administer?

<p>Epinephrine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a late sign of septic shock that requires aggressive intervention?

<p>Decreased urine output (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is the first stage shock in which there are no obvious clinical signs?

<p>Initial (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the shock cascade, which of the following is likely to be the earliest sign in SIRS?

<p>Increased pulse rate. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with hypovolemic shock requires fluid and electrolyte administration. The patient is complaining of shortness of breath and has an elevated respiratory rate. What intervention should the nurse prioritize?

<p>Airway support. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following situations may lead to hypovolemic shock?

<p>A patient with a known history of diabetes insipidus. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Patients being treated for pneumonia may also experience ARDS. Which of the following values are important to monitor for an ARDS diagnosis?

<p>P/F ratio. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following should be avoided during treatment for rib fractures?

<p>Coughing. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the refractory stage of shock, the body's response to interventions diminishes, leading to irreversible organ damage. Which statement best explains the primary reason for this lack of responsiveness?

<p>Cellular hypoxia and widespread tissue damage result in the depletion of ATP and accumulation of toxic metabolites, which prevent cells from utilizing the delivered oxygen and nutrients. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient in the progressive stage of shock exhibits a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 55 mm Hg, a heart rate of 140 bpm, and a serum lactate level of 4.0 mmol/L. The patient's spouse expresses concern about the patient's mottled skin and decreased level of consciousness. Which nursing intervention is most crucial to prevent the patient's condition from deteriorating further?

<p>Titrate a vasopressor medication to achieve a target MAP of 65 mm Hg, carefully assessing distal pulses and perfusion to avoid excessive vasoconstriction. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of anaphylaxis presents to the emergency department after being stung by a bee. The patient is wheezing, hypotensive, and has facial swelling. After administering epinephrine, which assessment finding would indicate the most effective response to this initial intervention?

<p>Increased systolic blood pressure from 70 mm Hg to 90 mm Hg, demonstrating improved vascular tone. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with septic shock develops new onset atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response. The patient is hypotensive despite fluid resuscitation and vasopressor support. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize to address both the arrhythmia and hypotension?

<p>Administer amiodarone to control the heart rate and rhythm, while closely monitoring for potential drug interactions and adverse effects. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with ARDS is receiving mechanical ventilation with high levels of PEEP. The nurse observes a sudden decrease in blood pressure, increased heart rate, and decreased oxygen saturation. Breath sounds are diminished on the left side of the chest. What is the most likely cause of this patient’s deterioration?

<p>Development of a tension pneumothorax secondary to barotrauma. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Stages of Shock

Initiation: no obvious clinical signs. Compensatory: compensatory mechanisms initiated. Progressive: profound cardiovascular effects. Refractory: inadequate tissue perfusion unresponsive to therapy

Shock: Stage 1 (Initiation)

Begins with hypoperfusion of the tissues, but no obvious clinical signs are present yet.

Shock: Stage 2 (Compensatory)

The body initiates compensatory mechanisms, such as hyperventilation causing respiratory alkalosis and SNS stimulation (increased HR, vasoconstriction) to maintain perfusion.

Shock: Stage 3 (Progressive)

Profound cardiovascular effects occur resulting in tissue ischemia, cellular hypoxia, anaerobic metabolism and widespread edema which can lead to MODS.

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Shock: Stage 4 (Refractory)

The stage of shock when inadequate tissue perfusion is unresponsive to therapy and the patient will not survive.

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Oxygen Goal in Shock

Prioritize oxygen delivery to tissues.

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Treat underlying cause of shock

Reverse altered circulatory component and maintain circulatory volume

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Combination Therapy (Shock)

Combination of fluids, pharmacotherapy, mechanical therapy, and maximized oxygen delivery.

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CVP (Central Venous Pressure)

Measured through a central venous catheter/triple lumen catheter that provides direct measurements of pressures in the right side of the heart. It's used to evaluate the fluid needed for the patient, and you give fluids based on the CVP level.

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Phlebostatic Axis

Reference point used to measure blood pressure returning to the heart, need to level & zero.

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Arterial Line Complications

Pain, swelling, bleeding, hematoma formation, infection, thrombosis, air embolism, distal ischemia.

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Hypovolemic Shock: Priorities of Care

Treatment of underlying cause, fluid and blood replacement, redistribution of fluid, pharmacological therapy.

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Hypovolemic Shock: Causes

Hemorrhage, burns, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, GI bleeding.

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Hypovolemic Shock: SNS Effects

Increased HR, vasoconstriction.

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Hypovolemic Shock: Cardiac Status

Decreased cardiac output, decreased preload (volume).

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Cardiogenic Shock: Priorities

Correction of underlying cause, initiation of first-line treatment (ensuring adequate oxygenation, pain control, and maintaining hemodynamic stability).

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Cardiogenic Shock: Focus

Ensuring adequate oxygenation, pain control, and maintaining hemodynamic stability.

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Cardiogenic Shock: Evaluation

Monitoring vital signs, urine output, and mental status to assess improvement in circulation and organ perfusion.

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Cardiogenic Shock

Decreased cardiac output, decreased tissue perfusion, increased wedge pressure, increased CVP .

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IABP Goals

Increases blood supply to the coronary arteries, moves blood forward, increases CO/CI, increases MAP, and decreases PAOP and pulmonary edema.

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Obstructive Shock: Causes

Physical impairment to adequate circulatory blood flow.

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Obstructive Shock: Assessments

Hypotension and tachycardia.

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Neurogenic Shock: Clinical Manifestations

Inadequate BP results in insufficient perfusion of tissues and cells, dry, warm, skin, hypotension with bradycardia.

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Anaphylactic Shock

A severe allergic reaction producing acute systemic vasodilation and relative hypovolemia.

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Anaphylactic Shock: Treatment

Removing the causative antigen (discontinuing medication), administer medication that restore vascular tone, fluid management, intravascular epinephrine, diphenhydramine, nebulized medications (albuterol)

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Septic Shock: Clinical Manifestations

Hypotensive, hyperthermia, fever, warm, flushed skin, bounding pulses, GI status may become compromised, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, decreased gastric motility, confusion, agitation, hepatic dysfunction

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Septic Shock: Treatment

Correction of underlying cause, fluid replacement therapy, pharmacological therapy, nutrition therapy.

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Atelectasis: Prevention

Nursing measures should focus on prevention! Frequent turning and repositioning, Early mobilization, Deep breathing and coughing, Use of Incentive Spirometer

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Aspiration: Risk Factors

Seizure activity, Brain Injury, Decreased level of consciousness, Flat body positioning, Stroke, Swallowing disorders and Cardiac arrest

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Acute Respiratory Failure

PaO2 <55 mm Hg ,PaCO2 >50 mm Hg & pH <7.32, Vital Capacity <10 mL/kg, Negative Inspiratory force <25 cm H20, FEV1, <10 mL/kg

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Ventilator Settings

Set the machine to deliver the tidal volume required (6 to 10 mL/kg) or (4 to 8 mL/kg for patients with ARDS), Adjust the machine to deliver the lowest concentration of oxygen to maintain normal PaO2 (greater than 60 mm Hg) or an SpO2 level greater than 92%

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ABG Normal Values

pH = 7.35-7.45 paCO2 = 35-45 paO2 = 80-100 HCO3 = 22-26 O2 sat = 95-100

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ARDS Symptoms

Increased PIP on ventilation, Worsening chest x-rays that progress to “white out”, Dyspnea and tachypnea, Hyperventilation with normal breath sounds, Respiratory alkalosis, Increased temperature and pulse, Eventual severe hypoxemia Management of ARDS

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Flail Chest

Could be medical emergency, Splint and stabilize, Will need surgery

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Pulmonary Embolism Risk Factors

History of pulmonary embolism, Family history of blood clots, Certain inherited clotting disorders, Heart disease, such as heart failure or atrial fibrillation, Cancer

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Burn Severity

Burns are categorized by type and depth (degree)

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1st Degree Burn (Superficial Burn)

Superficial burn into epidermis

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2nd Degree Burn (Partial Thickness Burn)

Burn into the epidermis and dermis

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4th Degree Burns

Burns down to muscle, bone, and connective structures

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Smoke Inhalation Injury

Erythema or blistering of lips or buccal mucosa, Singed nasal hairs, Burns of face, neck, or chest, increasing hoarseness

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Emergent/Resuscitative Phase

Primary Survey: ABCDE, Prevention of shock and respiratory distress o Address additional patient injuries, Parkland formula, FLUIDS!

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Infection Prevention

Appropriate use of antibiotics (only in the presence of infection- not prophylactically)

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Rules of Nines

Need to calculate % TBSA burned given description of burns and Rule of Nines photo

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Parkland Formula

Need to calculate how much fluid patients should receive using Parkland Formula = amount of fluid in 24 hours, amount in 8 hours, infusion rate

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Hypoxemia

Calculate P/F Ratio = severity of hypoxemia

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Study Notes

Stages of Shock

  • Shock results from decreased tissue perfusion
  • Prioritization of care includes addressing the stages of shock

Stage 1: Initiation

  • There are no obvious clinical signs during the initiation stage
  • Hypoperfusion of the tissues begins when the cause occurs

Stage 2: Compensatory

  • Compensatory mechanisms are initiated, and hyperventilation causes respiratory alkalosis
  • SNS stimulation leads to increased heart rate and vasoconstriction
  • The kidneys release renin, stimulating RAAS and leading to decreased urine output, in which the body secretes aldosterone and retains sodium and water
  • The body releases glucose stores causing hyperglycemia
  • Adrenal glands release cortisol

Stage 3: Progressive

  • Profound cardiovascular effects occur, including tissue ischemia and cellular hypoxia
  • Anaerobic metabolism elevates lactic acid levels (>2.5)
  • Hypotension and widespread edema (third-spacing) occurs
  • Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome (MODS) can begin

Stage 4: Refractory

  • The refractory stage is irreversible
  • The patient will not survive and is considered terminal
  • Advanced Life Support such as ECHMO and CRRT are used
  • Inadequate tissue perfusion becomes unresponsive to therapy, and MODS occurs

Oxygen and Prioritization of Care

  • Maximizing oxygen delivery to tissues is the overall goal
  • The first priority is to administer oxygen to the patient to prevent complications and shock

Monitoring and Treatment

  • Monitor laboratory values like CBC, chemistry, coagulation studies and lactate
  • Treatment includes addressing the underlying cause via reversing altered circulatory components and maintaining circulatory volume
  • Combination therapy includes fluids, pharmacotherapy, mechanical therapy and maximizing oxygen delivery

Hemodynamic Monitoring - CVP

  • CVP (Central Venous Pressure) helps determine when to administer fluids
  • It is measured through a central venous catheter/triple lumen catheter
  • CVP provides direct measurements of pressures in the right side of the heart
  • CVP is used to evaluate the fluid needed by assessing variables like blood pressure(BP), urine output, heart rate (HR) and PLR
  • Fluid administration is based on CVP levels that normally range from 2-6 mmHg
  • Phlebostatic axis is the reference point used to measure blood pressure returning to the heart and needs to be leveled and zeroed

Arterial Line Complications

  • Complications include pain, swelling, bleeding, hematoma formation, infection, thrombosis, air embolism and distal ischemia

Hypovolemic Shock

  • Hypovolemic shock results from decreased intravascular volume due to fluid loss
  • Causes include external fluid losses like traumatic blood loss or internal shifts like severe dehydration, edema or ascites
  • Risk factors include external factors like trauma, surgery, vomiting, diarrhea, DKA and internal factors like hemorrhage, burns, ascites, and dehydration
  • Clinical manifestations include tachycardia, narrowed pulse pressure, decreased BP, cool/pale/clammy skin, decreased urine output, restlessness, and tachypnea
  • Priorities of care are to treat the underlying cause, and fluid/blood replacement, redistribute fluid, and use pharmacological therapy
  • For studoc cases, administer fluids; unless the airway is compromised, then administer electrolytes
  • Studoc includes hemorrhage, burns, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, and GI bleeding
  • The SNS kicks in, increasing HR and vasoconstriction
  • Cardiac output and preload are decreased, and circulation is inadequate

Cardiogenic Shock

  • Cardiogenic shock results from impairment or failure of the myocardium
  • Impaired ability of the heart to contract and pump blood, leading to inadequate oxygen supply to the heart and tissues
  • Causes include coronary or noncoronary factors, most commonly myocardial infarction (MI)
  • Clinical manifestations include angina, arrhythmias, fatigue, feelings of doom, and hemodynamic instability
  • Priorities of care include correcting the underlying cause, initiating first-line treatment and ensuring adequate oxygenation, pain control and hemodynamic stability
  • Treatment includes dobutamine, nitroglycerin, dopamine, vasoactive medications, antiarrhythmic medications, and mechanical assistive devices
  • Focus on adequate oxygenation, pain control and hemodynamic stability
  • Evaluation of response includes monitoring vital signs, urine output, and mental status improvements
  • Cardiogenic shock is commonly caused by an MI, which reduces the heart's ability to contract

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