Podcast
Questions and Answers
A patient presents with a pressure injury characterized by non-blanchable erythema of intact skin. Which stage of pressure injury does this represent?
A patient presents with a pressure injury characterized by non-blanchable erythema of intact skin. Which stage of pressure injury does this represent?
- Stage 1 (correct)
- Stage 2
- Deep tissue
- Stage 3
A stage 2 pressure injury involves only the epidermis, without any dermis exposure.
A stage 2 pressure injury involves only the epidermis, without any dermis exposure.
False (B)
A pressure injury that extends into the subcutaneous tissue, with rolled edges, is classified as stage?
A pressure injury that extends into the subcutaneous tissue, with rolled edges, is classified as stage?
3
A pressure injury where the eschar must be removed before staging is classified as __________.
A pressure injury where the eschar must be removed before staging is classified as __________.
Match the pressure injury stage with its corresponding description:
Match the pressure injury stage with its corresponding description:
Which of the following best describes a deep tissue pressure injury?
Which of the following best describes a deep tissue pressure injury?
Lanugo is the term for the thick, cheesy substance present at birth that aids in temperature regulation.
Lanugo is the term for the thick, cheesy substance present at birth that aids in temperature regulation.
The skin condition commonly known as 'baby acne' is medically termed?
The skin condition commonly known as 'baby acne' is medically termed?
__________ is a common term for dry skin on a baby's scalp.
__________ is a common term for dry skin on a baby's scalp.
Match the skin condition commonly found in newborns with its description:
Match the skin condition commonly found in newborns with its description:
Which characteristic is most indicative of melanoma when assessing a skin lesion?
Which characteristic is most indicative of melanoma when assessing a skin lesion?
Basal cell carcinoma is known for its rapid growth and does not always require removal.
Basal cell carcinoma is known for its rapid growth and does not always require removal.
A skin cancer that presents as an erythmatic scaly patch with sharp margins, requiring complete removal due to its rapid growth potential is?
A skin cancer that presents as an erythmatic scaly patch with sharp margins, requiring complete removal due to its rapid growth potential is?
A basal cell carcinoma typically presents with a __________ translucent top.
A basal cell carcinoma typically presents with a __________ translucent top.
Match the type of skin cancer with its distinguishing characteristic:
Match the type of skin cancer with its distinguishing characteristic:
Which term describes a skin lesion that begins in the center and spreads to the periphery, forming a circular pattern?
Which term describes a skin lesion that begins in the center and spreads to the periphery, forming a circular pattern?
Urticaria (hives) is an example of an annular lesion.
Urticaria (hives) is an example of an annular lesion.
Lesions that run together are referred to as?
Lesions that run together are referred to as?
Acne and skin tags are examples of __________ lesions, which remain separate.
Acne and skin tags are examples of __________ lesions, which remain separate.
Match the lesion pattern with its corresponding description:
Match the lesion pattern with its corresponding description:
Contact dermatitis is characterized by which type of lesion arrangement?
Contact dermatitis is characterized by which type of lesion arrangement?
A scratch is an example of a target lesion.
A scratch is an example of a target lesion.
Lesions arranged along a unilateral nerve route are described as?
Lesions arranged along a unilateral nerve route are described as?
Tick bites commonly result in __________ lesions, which resemble a bullseye.
Tick bites commonly result in __________ lesions, which resemble a bullseye.
Match the lesion arrangement with its typical example:
Match the lesion arrangement with its typical example:
What term refers to fluid or other substances that drain from a lesion?
What term refers to fluid or other substances that drain from a lesion?
Fissures are classified as primary skin lesions.
Fissures are classified as primary skin lesions.
A scooped-out, shallow depression in the skin is called?
A scooped-out, shallow depression in the skin is called?
A deep depression extending into the dermis, potentially leaving a scar, is identified as an __________.
A deep depression extending into the dermis, potentially leaving a scar, is identified as an __________.
Match the type of skin lesion with its classification:
Match the type of skin lesion with its classification:
Which of the following is an example of a primary skin lesion?
Which of the following is an example of a primary skin lesion?
Telangiectasia is considered a primary skin lesion.
Telangiectasia is considered a primary skin lesion.
A flat, non-palpable color change on the skin, less than 1 cm in diameter, is termed a?
A flat, non-palpable color change on the skin, less than 1 cm in diameter, is termed a?
A Mongolian spot is an example of a __________ lesion, characterized by a flat, non-palpable color change greater than 1 cm.
A Mongolian spot is an example of a __________ lesion, characterized by a flat, non-palpable color change greater than 1 cm.
Match the primary skin lesion with its description:
Match the primary skin lesion with its description:
Which skin lesion is described as solid, elevated, hard or soft, and extends deeper into the dermis, with a size greater than 1 cm?
Which skin lesion is described as solid, elevated, hard or soft, and extends deeper into the dermis, with a size greater than 1 cm?
A wheal is a superficial, raised, transient, and erythematous lesion that is often irregular in shape.
A wheal is a superficial, raised, transient, and erythematous lesion that is often irregular in shape.
A lesion characterized as an encapsulated fluid-filled cavity in the dermis or subcutaneous layer is known as a?
A lesion characterized as an encapsulated fluid-filled cavity in the dermis or subcutaneous layer is known as a?
Acne and impetigo commonly present with __________ which are pus-filled, elevated cavities.
Acne and impetigo commonly present with __________ which are pus-filled, elevated cavities.
Match the skin lesion with its corresponding description:
Match the skin lesion with its corresponding description:
Which statement best describes vellus hair?
Which statement best describes vellus hair?
Terminal hair primarily functions to regulate body temperature.
Terminal hair primarily functions to regulate body temperature.
Seborrheic dermatitis is commonly known as?
Seborrheic dermatitis is commonly known as?
Beau's lines on the nails are indicative of __________ deficiency.
Beau's lines on the nails are indicative of __________ deficiency.
Match the hair type with its primary function:
Match the hair type with its primary function:
Which of the following is the primary characteristic of a Stage 1 pressure injury?
Which of the following is the primary characteristic of a Stage 1 pressure injury?
A Stage 2 pressure injury is characterized by intact skin with non-blanchable redness.
A Stage 2 pressure injury is characterized by intact skin with non-blanchable redness.
A pressure injury that extends into the subcutaneous tissue, potentially with rolled edges, is classified as stage?
A pressure injury that extends into the subcutaneous tissue, potentially with rolled edges, is classified as stage?
A Stage 4 pressure injury involves all layers of skin and surrounding tissue being ______.
A Stage 4 pressure injury involves all layers of skin and surrounding tissue being ______.
An unstageable pressure injury can be accurately staged without removing the eschar.
An unstageable pressure injury can be accurately staged without removing the eschar.
What is lanugo?
What is lanugo?
The thick, cheesy substance present at birth that aids in temperature regulation is called ______.
The thick, cheesy substance present at birth that aids in temperature regulation is called ______.
Milia is commonly known as:
Milia is commonly known as:
Cradle cap is characterized by excessive sweating on a newborn's face.
Cradle cap is characterized by excessive sweating on a newborn's face.
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of melanoma?
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of melanoma?
Basal cell carcinoma typically presents with a ______ top.
Basal cell carcinoma typically presents with a ______ top.
Squamous cell carcinoma rarely requires removal due to its slow growth rate.
Squamous cell carcinoma rarely requires removal due to its slow growth rate.
Which of the following describes an annular lesion?
Which of the following describes an annular lesion?
Tinea corporis, commonly known as ringworm, is an example of what type of lesion?
Tinea corporis, commonly known as ringworm, is an example of what type of lesion?
Confluent lesions are characterized by individual lesions that remain distinctly separate.
Confluent lesions are characterized by individual lesions that remain distinctly separate.
Urticaria, also known as hives, is an example of which type of lesion?
Urticaria, also known as hives, is an example of which type of lesion?
Acne and skin tags are examples of ______ lesions.
Acne and skin tags are examples of ______ lesions.
Contact dermatitis typically presents as linear lesions following a nerve route.
Contact dermatitis typically presents as linear lesions following a nerve route.
Which type of lesion configuration is characterized by a straight line arrangement?
Which type of lesion configuration is characterized by a straight line arrangement?
A scratch is an example of a [blank] lesion.
A scratch is an example of a [blank] lesion.
A lesion that resembles the iris of a bullseye with concentric rings of color is referred to as a:
A lesion that resembles the iris of a bullseye with concentric rings of color is referred to as a:
Herpes zoster (shingles) is an example of target lesions.
Herpes zoster (shingles) is an example of target lesions.
Which of the following best describes zosteriform lesions?
Which of the following best describes zosteriform lesions?
Herpes zoster (shingles) is classic example of what type of lesion distribution pattern?
Herpes zoster (shingles) is classic example of what type of lesion distribution pattern?
What is the term used for any fluid or material that drains from a lesion?
What is the term used for any fluid or material that drains from a lesion?
A macule is categorized as a secondary lesion.
A macule is categorized as a secondary lesion.
Papules and plaque are classified as what kind of lesions?
Papules and plaque are classified as what kind of lesions?
Nodules and tumors are classified as [blank] lesions.
Nodules and tumors are classified as [blank] lesions.
Which of the following is categorized as a primary skin lesion?
Which of the following is categorized as a primary skin lesion?
Vesicles and bullae are considered secondary skin lesions due to their fluid-filled nature.
Vesicles and bullae are considered secondary skin lesions due to their fluid-filled nature.
Which of the following is classified as a primary skin lesion?
Which of the following is classified as a primary skin lesion?
A pustule is a primary skin lesion filled with what?
A pustule is a primary skin lesion filled with what?
Which of the following is classified as a secondary skin lesion?
Which of the following is classified as a secondary skin lesion?
Erosion is classified as a primary skin lesion.
Erosion is classified as a primary skin lesion.
Which of the following lesions extends into the dermis and may leave a scar?
Which of the following lesions extends into the dermis and may leave a scar?
A skin mark that remains after a wound heals is called a(n) [blank].
A skin mark that remains after a wound heals is called a(n) [blank].
Hemangiomas are examples of primary skin lesions.
Hemangiomas are examples of primary skin lesions.
Telangiectasia, also known as spider angioma, is an example of a:
Telangiectasia, also known as spider angioma, is an example of a:
Petechiae are classified as [blank] lesions.
Petechiae are classified as [blank] lesions.
A patient presents with non-blanchable erythema on their heel. Which stage of pressure injury is this?
A patient presents with non-blanchable erythema on their heel. Which stage of pressure injury is this?
A stage 2 pressure injury extends into the subcutaneous tissue with rolled edges.
A stage 2 pressure injury extends into the subcutaneous tissue with rolled edges.
An unstageable pressure injury requires what intervention before it can be staged?
An unstageable pressure injury requires what intervention before it can be staged?
The fine, downy hair of newborns is known as ______.
The fine, downy hair of newborns is known as ______.
Match the following skin conditions with their descriptions:
Match the following skin conditions with their descriptions:
Which type of skin lesion is described as circular, beginning in the center and spreading to the periphery?
Which type of skin lesion is described as circular, beginning in the center and spreading to the periphery?
Urticaria (hives) is an example of discrete lesions.
Urticaria (hives) is an example of discrete lesions.
Contact dermatitis is an example of what type of lesion arrangement?
Contact dermatitis is an example of what type of lesion arrangement?
A scratch is an example of a ______ lesion.
A scratch is an example of a ______ lesion.
Match the lesion description with its example:
Match the lesion description with its example:
Exudate is best described as:
Exudate is best described as:
A hemangioma is a primary skin lesion.
A hemangioma is a primary skin lesion.
Freckles are examples of what primary type of lesion?
Freckles are examples of what primary type of lesion?
Psoriasis is characterized by ______, which are elevated and palpable.
Psoriasis is characterized by ______, which are elevated and palpable.
Match the following primary lesions with their definitions:
Match the following primary lesions with their definitions:
Which of the following is considered a secondary skin lesion?
Which of the following is considered a secondary skin lesion?
A young scar typically appears white.
A young scar typically appears white.
What type of hair helps with thermoregulation?
What type of hair helps with thermoregulation?
An angle greater than 160 degrees at the nail base can be an indication of ______.
An angle greater than 160 degrees at the nail base can be an indication of ______.
Match the lymph node location (Right Column) with its corresponding number (Left Column):
Match the lymph node location (Right Column) with its corresponding number (Left Column):
Which of the following is NOT a primary function of bones?
Which of the following is NOT a primary function of bones?
Skeletal muscles enable movement through contraction and relaxation.
Skeletal muscles enable movement through contraction and relaxation.
What type of joint allows for the greatest range of motion?
What type of joint allows for the greatest range of motion?
A(n) ________ connects muscle to bone.
A(n) ________ connects muscle to bone.
Match the following movements with their definitions:
Match the following movements with their definitions:
Which term describes movement toward the midline of the body?
Which term describes movement toward the midline of the body?
Fibrous joints are highly mobile and allow for a wide range of motion.
Fibrous joints are highly mobile and allow for a wide range of motion.
What is the purpose of bursae?
What is the purpose of bursae?
The goniometer is used to measure the ______ of joints.
The goniometer is used to measure the ______ of joints.
Match the following muscle strength test ratings with their descriptions:
Match the following muscle strength test ratings with their descriptions:
During a musculoskeletal exam, what is the correct sequence of objective data collection?
During a musculoskeletal exam, what is the correct sequence of objective data collection?
Active range of motion is when the examiner moves the patient's joint.
Active range of motion is when the examiner moves the patient's joint.
What type of movement is involved when you turn your palm upwards?
What type of movement is involved when you turn your palm upwards?
Movement of the ankle so the toes point upward is called ________.
Movement of the ankle so the toes point upward is called ________.
Match the following spinal curvatures with their descriptions:
Match the following spinal curvatures with their descriptions:
Which of the following ROM exercises demonstrates external rotation of the shoulder?
Which of the following ROM exercises demonstrates external rotation of the shoulder?
A rotator cuff tear typically limits adduction of the shoulder.
A rotator cuff tear typically limits adduction of the shoulder.
What are the two special tests for carpal tunnel syndrome?
What are the two special tests for carpal tunnel syndrome?
The straight leg raising test is used to determine ________ and a herniated nucleus pulposus.
The straight leg raising test is used to determine ________ and a herniated nucleus pulposus.
Match the following conditions of the knee:
Match the following conditions of the knee:
What ROM exercise is specific to assess the cervical spine?
What ROM exercise is specific to assess the cervical spine?
A positive Phalen's test is indicated by a decrease in range of motion within 30 seconds of wrist flexion.
A positive Phalen's test is indicated by a decrease in range of motion within 30 seconds of wrist flexion.
What is being assessed when a provider presses on the lateral side of the knee and observes the medial side?
What is being assessed when a provider presses on the lateral side of the knee and observes the medial side?
A patient with kyphosis has an exaggerated curvature in the _______ spine.
A patient with kyphosis has an exaggerated curvature in the _______ spine.
Match the following abdominal regions to their corresponding organs or structures:
Match the following abdominal regions to their corresponding organs or structures:
Which spinal condition is most commonly observed in pregnant women?
Which spinal condition is most commonly observed in pregnant women?
The liver is primarily located in the LUQ.
The liver is primarily located in the LUQ.
If performing ROM exercises to the spine, what four movements would you have the patient perform?
If performing ROM exercises to the spine, what four movements would you have the patient perform?
A ________ joint is slightly moveable because the bones are joined by cartilage.
A ________ joint is slightly moveable because the bones are joined by cartilage.
Match the following terms to their definitions
Match the following terms to their definitions
Which of the following tests is used to screen for scoliosis?
Which of the following tests is used to screen for scoliosis?
If the bladder is distended it can be assessed in the upper quadrants of the abdomen.
If the bladder is distended it can be assessed in the upper quadrants of the abdomen.
What finding during an assessment indicates a grade 2 muscle strength?
What finding during an assessment indicates a grade 2 muscle strength?
A lack of ________ can cause bone on bone breakdown.
A lack of ________ can cause bone on bone breakdown.
Match the muscle type with its location:
Match the muscle type with its location:
Which of the following assessments can discern the presence of swelling or soft tissue swelling in the knee?
Which of the following assessments can discern the presence of swelling or soft tissue swelling in the knee?
Internal rotation of the shoulder can be performed by putting one's hands up like you're getting arrested.
Internal rotation of the shoulder can be performed by putting one's hands up like you're getting arrested.
When performing ROM exercises to the hip, what position should the knee be in when the patient flexes at the hip?
When performing ROM exercises to the hip, what position should the knee be in when the patient flexes at the hip?
The normal curves of the lumber and cervical spine are considered ________.
The normal curves of the lumber and cervical spine are considered ________.
Match the description with the appropriate definition
Match the description with the appropriate definition
Cardiac muscle is a type of skeletal muscle.
Cardiac muscle is a type of skeletal muscle.
What type of tissue connects muscle to bone?
What type of tissue connects muscle to bone?
The movement that decreases the angle of a joint is known as ______.
The movement that decreases the angle of a joint is known as ______.
Match the following joint movements with their descriptions:
Match the following joint movements with their descriptions:
The term 'dorsiflexion' refers to the movement of pointing the toes downward.
The term 'dorsiflexion' refers to the movement of pointing the toes downward.
What instrument is used to measure the angle of a joint?
What instrument is used to measure the angle of a joint?
Synovial fluid-filled sacs that cushion muscles and tendons as they glide over bone are called ______.
Synovial fluid-filled sacs that cushion muscles and tendons as they glide over bone are called ______.
Match the following muscle strength test scores with their corresponding descriptions:
Match the following muscle strength test scores with their corresponding descriptions:
Which movement is primarily limited by a rotator cuff tear?
Which movement is primarily limited by a rotator cuff tear?
The Phalen's test is used to assess range of motion in the hip.
The Phalen's test is used to assess range of motion in the hip.
What is indicated by numbness and burning during Phalen's test?
What is indicated by numbness and burning during Phalen's test?
Knock knees are clinically referred to as genu ______.
Knock knees are clinically referred to as genu ______.
The straight leg raising test is used to evaluate range of motion in the hip joint.
The straight leg raising test is used to evaluate range of motion in the hip joint.
What condition does the bend test screen for?
What condition does the bend test screen for?
Wasting away of muscle tissue is referred to as muscular ______.
Wasting away of muscle tissue is referred to as muscular ______.
Full range of motion (ROM) against gravity with some resistance would be graded as what when muscle testing?
Full range of motion (ROM) against gravity with some resistance would be graded as what when muscle testing?
Internal rotation of the shoulder involves raising your hands above your head as if you are being arrested.
Internal rotation of the shoulder involves raising your hands above your head as if you are being arrested.
Name one ROM exercise that can be done for the cervical spine.
Name one ROM exercise that can be done for the cervical spine.
When performing a musculoskeletal exam, the order of examination for objective data includes inspection, palpation, range of motion, and ______ testing.
When performing a musculoskeletal exam, the order of examination for objective data includes inspection, palpation, range of motion, and ______ testing.
Match the spinal regions:
Match the spinal regions:
Which of the following are types of joints?
Which of the following are types of joints?
An active range of motion occurs when the health care provider moves each joint to the point of resistance.
An active range of motion occurs when the health care provider moves each joint to the point of resistance.
What is the number of bones in the human body?
What is the number of bones in the human body?
A joint is where two ______ meet.
A joint is where two ______ meet.
Match the ligaments and tendons correct
Match the ligaments and tendons correct
Which quadrant is the sigmoid colon located in?
Which quadrant is the sigmoid colon located in?
The bladder is always located in the midline.
The bladder is always located in the midline.
In which quadrant is the spleen located?
In which quadrant is the spleen located?
The liver and gallbladder are located in the ______.
The liver and gallbladder are located in the ______.
Associate the spinal condition with its patient population
Associate the spinal condition with its patient population
What is an effect of scoliosis?
What is an effect of scoliosis?
When performing the straight leg raise test the patient will plantar flex once pain is felt.
When performing the straight leg raise test the patient will plantar flex once pain is felt.
During the hip range of motion exercises, name one.
During the hip range of motion exercises, name one.
When performing and assessing for a joint effusion, the healthcare provider will press on the ______ side of the knee and assess the bulge on the medial side of the knee.
When performing and assessing for a joint effusion, the healthcare provider will press on the ______ side of the knee and assess the bulge on the medial side of the knee.
Skeletal muscles are responsible for involuntary movements like heartbeats and digestion.
Skeletal muscles are responsible for involuntary movements like heartbeats and digestion.
A tear of the rotator cuff often limits the range of motion exercise known as ______.
A tear of the rotator cuff often limits the range of motion exercise known as ______.
During a musculoskeletal examination, what is the correct sequence for assessing objective data?
During a musculoskeletal examination, what is the correct sequence for assessing objective data?
Active range of motion involves the healthcare provider moving the patient's joint through its full range.
Active range of motion involves the healthcare provider moving the patient's joint through its full range.
What does a muscle strength test rating of '3' indicate?
What does a muscle strength test rating of '3' indicate?
The test used to measure the angle of a joint is called a(n) ______.
The test used to measure the angle of a joint is called a(n) ______.
Match the following spinal curvatures with their common associations:
Match the following spinal curvatures with their common associations:
Which of the following movements is NOT typically assessed when evaluating the cervical spine's range of motion?
Which of the following movements is NOT typically assessed when evaluating the cervical spine's range of motion?
A positive Phalen's test indicates the absence of carpal tunnel syndrome.
A positive Phalen's test indicates the absence of carpal tunnel syndrome.
What condition does the straight leg raising test primarily assess?
What condition does the straight leg raising test primarily assess?
The bulge test is used to determine whether swelling in the knee is due to fluid or ______ ______.
The bulge test is used to determine whether swelling in the knee is due to fluid or ______ ______.
Match the following movements with their corresponding descriptions:
Match the following movements with their corresponding descriptions:
Genu valgum, commonly known as knock knees, is a condition that:
Genu valgum, commonly known as knock knees, is a condition that:
Kyphosis is a spinal condition that is commonly seen in pregnant patients.
Kyphosis is a spinal condition that is commonly seen in pregnant patients.
What quadrant of the abdomen is the appendix located?
What quadrant of the abdomen is the appendix located?
A lack of ______ in joints can lead to bone breakdown due to bones rubbing together.
A lack of ______ in joints can lead to bone breakdown due to bones rubbing together.
Match the following terms with the correct definitions:
Match the following terms with the correct definitions:
Flashcards
Stage 1 Pressure Injury
Stage 1 Pressure Injury
Non-blanchable redness of intact skin.
Stage 2 Pressure Injury
Stage 2 Pressure Injury
Loss of epidermis with exposed dermis.
Stage 3 Pressure Injury
Stage 3 Pressure Injury
Extends into subcutaneous tissue; rolled edges present.
Stage 4 Pressure Injury
Stage 4 Pressure Injury
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Deep Tissue Pressure Injury
Deep Tissue Pressure Injury
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Unstageable Pressure Injury
Unstageable Pressure Injury
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Lanugo
Lanugo
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Vernix Caseosa
Vernix Caseosa
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Milia
Milia
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Cradle Cap
Cradle Cap
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Melanoma
Melanoma
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Basal Cell Carcinoma
Basal Cell Carcinoma
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Squamous Cell Carcinoma
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
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Annular Lesions
Annular Lesions
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Confluent Lesion
Confluent Lesion
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Discrete Lesions
Discrete Lesions
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Grouped Lesions
Grouped Lesions
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Linear Lesions
Linear Lesions
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Target Lesions
Target Lesions
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Zosteriform Lesions
Zosteriform Lesions
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Macule
Macule
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Patch
Patch
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Papule
Papule
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Plaque
Plaque
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Nodule
Nodule
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Tumor
Tumor
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Wheal
Wheal
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Vesicle
Vesicle
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Bulla
Bulla
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Cyst
Cyst
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Pustule
Pustule
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Fissure
Fissure
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Erosion
Erosion
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Ulcer
Ulcer
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Scar
Scar
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Hemangioma
Hemangioma
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Telangiectasia
Telangiectasia
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Petechiae
Petechiae
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Vellus Hair
Vellus Hair
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Terminal Hair
Terminal Hair
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Seborrheic Dermatitis
Seborrheic Dermatitis
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Normocephalic
Normocephalic
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Microcephaly
Microcephaly
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Macrocephaly
Macrocephaly
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Acromegaly
Acromegaly
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Sternomastoid Muscle
Sternomastoid Muscle
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Trapezius Muscle
Trapezius Muscle
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Lymph Nodes Function
Lymph Nodes Function
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How many bones are in the human body?
How many bones are in the human body?
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What are the three types of muscle tissue?
What are the three types of muscle tissue?
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What is the primary function of skeletal muscles?
What is the primary function of skeletal muscles?
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What are the functions of bones?
What are the functions of bones?
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What is hyperextension?
What is hyperextension?
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What is flexion?
What is flexion?
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What is extension?
What is extension?
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What is pronation?
What is pronation?
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What is supination?
What is supination?
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What is circumduction?
What is circumduction?
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What is a ligament?
What is a ligament?
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What is a tendon?
What is a tendon?
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What is the function of cartilage?
What is the function of cartilage?
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What are bursae?
What are bursae?
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How should a musculoskeletal exam be completed?
How should a musculoskeletal exam be completed?
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What does a goniometer measure?
What does a goniometer measure?
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Order of objective data collection: musculoskeletal exam?
Order of objective data collection: musculoskeletal exam?
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What is active range of motion (AROM)?
What is active range of motion (AROM)?
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What is passive range of motion (PROM)?
What is passive range of motion (PROM)?
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Muscle strength test score of 0 indicates?
Muscle strength test score of 0 indicates?
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Muscle strength test score of 1 indicates?
Muscle strength test score of 1 indicates?
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Muscle strength test score of 2 indicates?
Muscle strength test score of 2 indicates?
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Muscle strength test score of 3 indicates?
Muscle strength test score of 3 indicates?
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Muscle strength test score of 4 indicates?
Muscle strength test score of 4 indicates?
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Muscle strength test score of 5 indicates?
Muscle strength test score of 5 indicates?
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ROM exercises for the TMJ?
ROM exercises for the TMJ?
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ROM exercises for the cervical spine?
ROM exercises for the cervical spine?
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What ROM exercises can be done to the shoulder?
What ROM exercises can be done to the shoulder?
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ROM exercises for the elbow focus on?
ROM exercises for the elbow focus on?
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What exercises target wrist and hand ROM?
What exercises target wrist and hand ROM?
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Two tests screen for carpel tunnel syndrome?
Two tests screen for carpel tunnel syndrome?
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How is the Phalen's test performed?
How is the Phalen's test performed?
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What indicates a positive Phalen's or Tinel test?
What indicates a positive Phalen's or Tinel test?
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How to perform the Tinel's sign?
How to perform the Tinel's sign?
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Hip ROM exercises include?
Hip ROM exercises include?
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What actions assess knee ROM?
What actions assess knee ROM?
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Ankle and foot ROM exercises include?
Ankle and foot ROM exercises include?
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What movements assess spine ROM?
What movements assess spine ROM?
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Normal convex curves of the spine?
Normal convex curves of the spine?
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Normal concave curves of the spine?
Normal concave curves of the spine?
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What is scoliosis?
What is scoliosis?
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What is kyphosis?
What is kyphosis?
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What is lordosis?
What is lordosis?
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What does the straight leg raise test identify?
What does the straight leg raise test identify?
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How to perform straight leg raising test?
How to perform straight leg raising test?
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Study Notes
- The skin is the largest organ in the body.
Pressure Injuries
- Stage 1: Characterized by non-blanchable erythema of intact skin.
- Stage 2: Involves loss of the epidermis with the dermis exposed.
- Stage 3: Extends into the subcutaneous tissue; edges may be rolled.
- Stage 4: Involves exposure of all skin layers and surrounding tissue, potentially with tunneling and rounded edges.
- Deep tissue pressure injury: Presents as non-blanchable, deep red, maroon, or purple discoloration with pain and temperature changes.
- Unstageable: Eschar must be removed to determine if it is a Stage 3 or 4 injury.
Newborn Skin Conditions
- Lanugo: Fine, downy hair present in newborns.
- Vernix caseosa: A thick, cheesy substance present at birth that aids in temperature regulation.
- Milia: Commonly known as baby acne.
- Cradle cap: Dry skin condition affecting the scalp.
Skin Cancers
- Melanoma: Brown in color with irregular borders, commonly found on the trunk, head, and neck.
- Basal cell carcinoma: The most common type, characterized by slow growth and a pearly translucent top; requires removal.
- Squamous cell carcinoma: Presents as an erythmatic, scaly patch with sharp margins; rapid growth and requires complete removal.
Types of Lesions
- Annular: Circular, starts in the center and spreads to the periphery, an example is ringworm.
- Confluent: Lesions that merge together, an example is hives.
- Discrete: Individual lesions that remain separate, an example is acne, skin tags
- Grouped: Lesions clustered together, an example is contact dermatitis.
- Linear: Occurring in a straight line, an example is a scratch or streak.
- Target: Resembles a bullseye with concentric rings of color, an example is Lyme disease from a tick bite.
- Zosteriform: Arranged linearly along a unilateral nerve route, an example is shingles.
- Exudate: Refers to any fluid or skin that peels off a lesion.
Primary Skin Lesions
- Macule: Non-palpable, small, flat color change, less than 1 cm, an example is a freckle
- Patch: Non-palpable, flat color change, greater than 1 cm, an example is Mongolian spot.
- Papule: Elevated, palpable, and small, less than 1 cm, an example is warts.
- Plaque: Elevated, palpable, and larger, greater than 1 cm, an example is psoriasis.
- Nodule: Solid, elevated, hard or soft, extends into the dermis, greater than 1 cm, an example is fibroma.
- Tumor: Extends into the dermis, can be benign or malignant, less than a few cm, an example is lipoma.
- Wheal: Superficial, raised, erythmatous, and irregular in shape, an example is a mosquito bite.
- Vesicle: Elevated cavity with free fluid, up to 1 cm, an example is herpes simplex.
- Bulla: Greater than 1 cm, thin-walled and easily ruptured, an example is contact dermatitis.
- Cyst: Encapsulated fluid-filled cavity in the dermis or subcutaneous layer, elevating the skin, an example is a sebaceous cyst.
- Pustule: Pus-filled cavity, circumscribed and elevated, an example is acne.
Secondary Skin Lesions
- Fissure: Linear crack extending into the dermis, dry or moist, an example is chapped lips.
- Erosion: Scooped-out, shallow depression in the skin, an example is a canker sore.
- Ulcer: Deeper depression extending into the dermis, may bleed and scar, an example is a pressure injury.
- Scar: Skin mark after a wound heals, replacing injured tissue with connective tissue; young scars are red or purple, while old scars are white.
Vascular Skin Lesions
- Hemangioma: Benign tumor of newly formed blood vessels.
- Telangiectasia: Enlarged and dilated blood vessels, also known as spider angioma.
- Petechia: (Definition missing from source text).
Hair Types
- Vellus hair: Fine, short, and light-colored, also known as "peach fuzz," provides thermoregulation.
- Terminal hair: Darker, thicker hair, that protects the scalp, filtering dust and debris.
Scalp Conditions
- Seborrhea dermatitis: Commonly known as dandruff.
Nail Assessment
- Normal nail base angle: 160 degrees.
- Beau's lines: Indicate nutrient deficiency.
- Clubbing: (Definition missing from source text).
Head and Neck Anatomy
- Skull divisions: The cranium and the face.
- Sternomastoid muscle: Rotates and flexes the head.
- Trapezius muscle: Rotates the shoulder.
Lymph Nodes
- They filter lymph fluid and engulf pathogens.
- Lymph nodes produce lymphocytes and antibodies.
- Characteristics of lymph nodes: Less than 1 cm, soft, mobile, non-palpable, and non-tender.
- Infected lymph nodes: Large, tender, warm, firm, and mobile.
- Cancerous lymph nodes: Non-mobile.
Lymph Node Locations
- Preauricular: 1
- Postauricular: 2
- Occipital: 3
- Submental: 4
- Submandibular: 5
- Jugulodigastric (tonsillar): 6
- Superficial cervical: 7
- Deep cervical: 8
- Posterior cervical: 9
- Supraclavicular: 10
Thyroid Gland
- Hormones: T3 and T4, which stimulate the rate of cellular metabolism.
- During pregnancy: The thyroid gland slightly enlarges.
Head Size
- Normocephalic: Round, symmetric skull appropriately related to body size.
- Microcephaly: Abnormally small head.
- Macrocephaly: Abnormally large head.
- Acromegaly: Enlargement and thickening of skull and facial bones, potentially due to excess growth hormone.
Musculoskeletal System
- The human body has 206 bones.
- Skeletal muscles allow the body to move and contract
- Skeletal muscles, cardiac muscles and smooth muscles are the three types of skeletal muscles.
- Bones support, protect, store minerals, and produce WBCs, RBCs, and Platelets
Range of Motion
- Hyperextension is extension beyond the anatomical position.
- Flexion decreases the angle of a joint.
- Extension increases the angle of a joint.
- Pronation is when the palm is down.
- Supination is when the palm is up.
- Circumduction is movement in a circular motion.
- Internal rotation is like you are putting on a bathing suit
- External rotation is like you are getting arrested hands up
Joints
- Joints are where two bones meet.
- Fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial are the three joint types.
- Fibrous joints are generally immovable; bones are united by fibrous tissue. Examples include sutures or syndesmoses joints.
- Cartilaginous joints are slightly moveable; bones are joined by cartilage. Examples include intervertebral and pubic symphyses.
- Synovial joints contain a space filled with synovial fluid allowing movement; they are freely movable. Examples include wrists, knees, and ankles.
- Ligaments connect bone to bone.
- Tendons connect muscle to bone.
- Cartilage cushions bones and the lack of cartilage causes bone breakdown from rubbing together
- Bursae: Synovial fluid filled sacs that help muscles and tendons glide smoothly over bone
Musculoskeletal Exam
- A musculoskeletal exam should be completed head to toe or proximal to distal
- Goniometer: Measures the angle of joints.
- Order of Examination for Objective Data: Inspection, palpation, range of motion (ROM), and muscle testing
Range of Motion (ROM)
- Active range of motion is movement performed by the patient, with no assistance
- Passive range of motion is when a health care provider moves each joint to the point of resistance.
Muscle Strength Testing
- 0: Represents no contraction.
- 1: Indicates slight contraction.
- 2: Indicates full ROM with gravity eliminated (passive motion).
- 3: Indicates full ROM with gravity, actively, with no resistance.
- 4: Indicates full ROM with gravity and some resistance, actively.
- 5: Indicates full ROM against gravity, full resistance and is considered normal.
TMJ
- ROM exercises include opening the mouth wide, moving side to side, and protruding the jaw.
- Chin to chest: Flexion
- Chin to cieling: extension
- Ear to shoulder: lateral bending
- Chin to shoulder: rotation
Cervical Spine
- ROM exercises include flexion, extension, lateral bend, and rotation.
Shoulder
- ROM exercises include forward flexion, hyperextension, internal rotation, external rotation, abduction, and adduction.
- Abduction is limited by a rotator cuff tear.
- Rotator cuff tear: Traumatic adduction while arm is held in abduction d/t fall on shoulder, throwing, or heavy lifting
Elbow
- ROM exercises include flexion, extension, pronation, and supination.
- Muscular atrophy is the wasting of muscles
Wrist and Hand
- ROM exercises: Flexion, extension, hyperextension, ulnar deviation, radial deviation, abduction (fingers), and thumb to each finger.
- Tinel's sign and Phalen's test screen for carpal tunnel syndrome.
- Phalen's test: Hold hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90 degrees to screen for carpel tunnel syndrome
- A positive Phalen's or Tinel test is indicated by numbness and burning within 60 seconds.
- Tinel's sign: Direct percussion over the median nerve to screen for carpal tunnel syndrome
Hip
- ROM exercises: Flexion with knee straight, flexion with knee flexed, internal rotation, external rotation, abduction, adduction, and hyperextension (standing).
Knee
- ROM exercises include flexion, extension, hyperextension, walking around the room, and duck walking.
- Genu valgum: Knock knees (2-5 years often corrected naturally with growth)
- Genu varum: Bowed legs (slowly autocorrect's at 18 months)
- Bulge test: Determines if swelling is due to fluid or soft tissue swelling by pressing on the lateral side of the knee and observing the medial side for a bulge.
- Joint effusion: Bulge of fluid
Ankle and Foot
- ROM exercises include plantar flexion, dorsiflexion, eversion, inversion, flexing, and straightening toes.
Spine
- ROM exercises include flexion, extension, lateral bend, and rotation.
- Normal convex curves: Thoracic and sacral
- Normal concave curves: Cervical and lumbar
- Scoliosis is a lateral curvature, common in pediatric patients
- Kyphosis is a curve in the thoracic spine, common in elderly patients
- Lordosis is a curve in the lumbar spine, common in pregnant patients
- Scoliosis side effects: Decreased pulmonary function.
- Bend test: Screens for scoliosis.
- Straight leg raising test: Confirms presence of sciatica and herniated nucleus pulposus by raising one leg with knee extended supine until pain, once pain is felt then dorsiflex the foot
Musculoskeletal Conditions
- Osteoporosis is a common musculoskeletal condition in the IDD population
Abdominal Quadrants
- RUQ: Liver, gallbladder, Duodenum, Hepatic flexure of the colon
- RLQ: Cecum, Appendix
- LUQ: Stomach, Spleen, Body of the Pancreas
- LLQ: Sigmoid Colon
- MIDLINE: Aorta, bladder (if distended)
- Kidneys are in the upper quadrants.
- Ovaries and ureters are in the lower quadrants
Spinal Curvature in Toddlers
- Toddlers are most likely to have lordosis.
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Description
Overview of skin conditions like pressure injuries, categorized into stages based on tissue damage. Also covers newborn skin conditions such as lanugo and vernix caseosa. Additionally, it discusses skin cancers, including melanoma.
