Non-Traumatic Skeleton

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following is the most common causative organism in osteomyelitis?

  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Staphylococcus aureus (correct)
  • Klebsiella pneumoniae
  • Escherichia coli

A patient presents with suspected osteomyelitis. Initial radiographs are negative. Which of the following imaging modalities is MOST appropriate to order next?

  • Computed Tomography (CT)
  • Bone scan (correct)
  • Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
  • Ultrasound

What is the definitive diagnostic test for osteomyelitis?

  • X-ray
  • Bone culture (correct)
  • MRI
  • Complete blood count

A 60-year-old patient presents with chronic osteomyelitis. An X-ray reveals dead bone tissue separated from the surrounding viable bone. This finding is best described as:

<p>Sequestrum (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of osteomyelitis, what is 'involucrum'?

<p>New bone growth around a sequestrum (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST likely causative organism of septic arthritis in a sexually active 25-year-old patient?

<p>Neisseria gonorrhoeae (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST sensitive imaging modality for detecting early septic arthritis?

<p>Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a typical radiographic finding in septic arthritis?

<p>Periarticular osteopenia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST critical step in the management of septic arthritis?

<p>Initiation of broad-spectrum antibiotics (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a typical risk factor for septic arthritis?

<p>Advanced age (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 70-year-old patient presents with joint pain that worsens with activity and is relieved by rest. Radiographic findings reveal asymmetric joint space narrowing, osteophyte formation, and subchondral sclerosis. These findings are MOST consistent with:

<p>Osteoarthritis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In osteoarthritis, which joints are MOST commonly affected?

<p>Distal interphalangeal joints, proximal interphalangeal joints, and weight-bearing joints (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following radiographic findings is LEAST likely to be associated with osteoarthritis?

<p>Joint space widening (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary underlying pathophysiology in osteoarthritis?

<p>Wear and tear of articular cartilage (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is characterized by pannus formation?

<p>Rheumatoid arthritis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the American College of Rheumatology criteria, how many criteria must be present to diagnose rheumatoid arthritis?

<p>4 of 7 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis presents with ulnar deviation of the digits and radial deviation of the carpus, creating a zig-zag pattern. What underlying pathological process is MOST likely responsible for this deformity?

<p>Ligamentous abnormalities (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the study of choice for diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis?

<p>MRI (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In patients diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis, which of the following imaging modalities is preferred for monitoring the condition's progression?

<p>X-ray (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common extra-articular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis?

<p>Pleuritis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is most consistent with acute osteomyelitis on imaging?

<p>Periosteal reaction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors indicates a less favorable prognosis in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis?

<p>Positive rheumatoid factor (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 10-year-old child presents with joint pain, fever, and a salmon-colored rash. Lab results show elevated inflammatory markers, and imaging reveals joint swelling and effusion. Which type of juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) is MOST likely?

<p>Systemic JIA (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has an infection of the bone seeded by bacteria from the bloodstream; this is an example of which pathway of osteomyelitis?

<p>Hematogenous spread (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A radiograph of a patient's hand reveals bony erosions concentrated at the MCP joints, along with uniform joint space narrowing and subluxations. There are no osteophytes. These characteristics are MOST suggestive of:

<p>Rheumatoid arthritis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic finding is MOST indicative of septic arthritis over other inflammatory arthropathies?

<p>Positive Gram stain on synovial fluid (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the initial imaging modality of choice for suspected septic arthritis?

<p>X-ray (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 5-year-old child presents with fever, irritability, and focal bone pain in the left distal femur. Radiographs show subtle lytic changes and periosteal reaction. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

<p>Osteomyelitis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Predicting whether a patient with septic arthritis will regain full joint function post-treatment is complex. Which of the following factors is the MOST reliable indicator of a POOR long-term outcome?

<p>Rapid destruction of articular cartilage evident on initial imaging (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a surgical debridement of a chronic osteomyelitis lesion, the surgeon encounters a cavity filled with thick, cheesy-like material adjacent to the sequestrum. Histopathological analysis would MOST likely reveal which of the following within this cavity?

<p>Avascular necrotic bone fragments encrusted with a biofilm of microorganisms (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A young athlete reports lower back pain that worsens with twisting movements. An X-ray reveals decreased disc height at L4-L5 and osteophytes. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?

<p>Spondylosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A radiograph of a patient with suspected spondylolysis is ordered. Which radiographic view is BEST for visualizing a defect in the pars interarticularis?

<p>Oblique view (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following findings is MOST indicative of ankylosing spondylitis on a radiograph?

<p>Fusion of the sacroiliac joints (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 28-year-old male presents with chronic lower back pain and stiffness, particularly in the morning, which improves with exercise. He also reports occasional eye pain and redness. Which of the following conditions is MOST likely?

<p>Ankylosing Spondylitis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 14-year-old male presents with anterior knee pain and tenderness over the tibial tubercle. The pain worsens with activity, particularly running and jumping. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

<p>Osgood-Schlatter Disease (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the underlying pathophysiology of Osgood-Schlatter disease?

<p>Traction apophysitis of the tibial tubercle (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a typical radiographic finding in Osgood-Schlatter disease?

<p>Bone fragmentation at the tibial tuberosity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 35-year-old male presents with hip pain that has gradually worsened over the past several months. He has a history of long-term steroid use for asthma. Which of the following conditions should be HIGHLY suspected?

<p>Avascular Necrosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which imaging modality is BEST for the early diagnosis of avascular necrosis (AVN)?

<p>MRI without contrast (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A radiograph of a 65-year-old female reveals a compression fracture of the L1 vertebra. Her bone mineral density (BMD) T-score is -2.8. According to WHO criteria, this indicates:

<p>Osteoporosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for osteoporosis?

<p>Low body weight (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 70-year-old male presents with bone pain, particularly in his pelvis and femur. Radiographs reveal thickened bone with areas of sclerosis and lysis. Alkaline phosphatase is elevated. Which diagnosis is MOST likely?

<p>Paget's Disease of the Bone (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential complication of Paget's disease of the bone?

<p>Osteosarcoma (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A radiograph of a patient with suspected Paget's disease shows a 'blade of grass' appearance in the tibia. This finding represents:

<p>A lytic lesion progressing up the bone (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 68-year-old patient with Paget's disease of bone reports new onset hearing loss. Which pathological process explains this?

<p>Sclerosis of the temporal bone leading to ossicle destruction (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial diagnostic test for osteoporosis?

<p>Bone mineral density test (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST common location for spondylolysis to occur?

<p>Lumbar spine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with ankylosing spondylitis develops a spinal fracture after a minor fall. Given the underlying condition, which type of imaging is MOST crucial for assessing the fracture and potential instability?

<p>Computed tomography (CT) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In evaluating a 12-year old with unilateral Osgood-Schlatter disease, what is the MOST important comparative assessment to make during the physical examination?

<p>Assess symmetry by comparing to the unaffected knee. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Avascular necrosis can progress through several stages of bone damage. What radiographic finding is MOST indicative of Stage 3 avascular necrosis?

<p>Flattening on the superolateral aspect (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the utility of performing X-rays on the spine in patients presenting with Osteoporosis?

<p>Monitoring response to therapy. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Paget's disease of the bone, what lab result will be most elevated?

<p>Alk Phos (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of virus could cause Paget's disease of bone?

<p>Paramyxovirus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 60-year-old patient presents with back pain and reports having a stooped posture. Her height has decreased over the past few years. Which condition is MOST likely?

<p>Osteoporosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You note 'osteoporosis circumscripta' when evaluating bone radiology. Which area of the body is MOST affected by this?

<p>Frontal Bone (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a normal spine, what area does spondylolysis affect?

<p>Interarticularis Pars (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease is:

<p>associated with children (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with suspected spondylolysis. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be associated with this condition?

<p>Advanced age (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ankylosing Spondylitis may include lumbar disc disease, especially if the patient is what age?

<p>35-45 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the normal T-score?

<p>$\ge$-1.0 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What T-score would indicate osteopenia?

<p>$&lt;-1.0$ to $&gt;-2.5$ (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient shows flattening on the superolateral aspect of the femoral head during an AP pelvic radiography, in which stage of avascular necrosis is the patient?

<p>Stage 3 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

With known Paget's disease of the bone, which of the following diagnoses is more likely?

<p>Osteogenic Sarcoma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Bamboo spine may be seen in patients who have

<p>Ankylosing Spondylitis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what area of the body would you expect to see squaring in Paget's?

<p>vertebrae (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 25-year old male presents to clinic to discuss joint pain that he has been experiencing for the last year. His pain is worse in the morning, but gradually improves as he begins moving around. Knowing the possible differential diagnoses, which lab marker would you order to help indicate Ankylosing Spondylitis?

<p>ESR (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 65-year-old female presents with a vertebral compression fracture. Upon further questioning, you discover she has several risk factors for osteoporosis. What is a non-modifiable risk factor for osteoporosis?

<p>White race (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Biconcave vertebral bodies result from:

<p>Decreased bone density (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a knee X-ray of a patient, bone fragmentation is detected at the tibial tuberosity. Upon physical examination, you palpate soft swelling directly anterior to the tibial tuberosity. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

<p>Osgood Schlatter Disease (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST important clinical factor when differentiating possible bone tumors?

<p>Patient age (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A radiograph of a 15-year-old male reveals a bone tumor in the proximal tibia. The lesion displays a 'sunburst' pattern of periosteal reaction. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?

<p>Osteogenic sarcoma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the typical radiographic appearance of multiple myeloma?

<p>Multiple, punched-out lytic lesions (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 25-year-old patient presents with a bone tumor in their hand. Radiographic imaging reveals a geographic lytic lesion with a sharp border. Which of the following benign tumors is MOST likely?

<p>Enchondroma (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 12-year-old patient presents with a bone lesion located on the metaphysis of the proximal humerus. The radiograph reveals a lucent lesion centrally located within the medullary cavity. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?

<p>Simple bone cyst (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What radiographic finding is MOST suggestive of osteosarcoma?

<p>Codman's triangle (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a suspected bone tumor. The radiograph reveals a lesion with a narrow zone of transition and a sclerotic rim around it. Which of the following characteristics BEST describes this lesion?

<p>Non-aggressive (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the BEST imaging modality to evaluate soft tissue involvement of a spinal bone tumor?

<p>MRI (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 45-year-old patient presents with facial pain and sinus pressure. Imaging reveals a well-defined, sclerotic bone lesion within the sinus. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

<p>Osteoma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a typical location for Ewing sarcoma?

<p>Diaphysis of long bones (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following radiographic features helps differentiate osteoblastoma from osteoid osteoma?

<p>Size of the lesion (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is MOST accurate regarding metastatic bone lesions?

<p>Metastatic lesions are more common than primary malignant bone tumors (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A radiograph reveals a bone tumor with a 'moth-eaten' appearance. What does this pattern of bone destruction indicate?

<p>Aggressive process (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST likely location of an osteochondroma?

<p>Outgrowth of the growth plate (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following zones would be associated with an aggressive lesion?

<p>Ill-defined wide zone of transition (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following tumors is NOT malignant?

<p>Chondroma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What age range is MOST associated with Ewing Sarcoma?

<p>5-30 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which bone tumor is most common in the face?

<p>Osteoma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which bones are most commonly involved with enchondroma?

<p>Humerus, Femur and Phalanges (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the initial imaging modality of choice for characterizing bone tumors?

<p>X-Ray (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following bone tumors usually appear in the axial skeleton?

<p>Multiple Myeloma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these is the preferred study to determine prognosis and staging of bone tumors?

<p>MRI (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following bone tumors is characterized by an outgrowth of the growth plate?

<p>Osteochondroma (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pathologist is examining a bone biopsy under a microscope. The report comes back with a woven bone spicules surrounded by plump, active osteoblasts. Giant cells are scattered throughout the lesion. The pathologist notes a prominent 'blue bone' appearance due to increased osteoid production. What’s most likely on the differential?

<p>Osteoblastoma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A radiologist is evaluating a series of radiographs of various bone tumors. In one case, they observe a lesion that appears to expand outward from the bone surface, exhibiting a dense, opaque appearance resembling mature, well-organized bone tissue. The lesion has a broad base and blends smoothly with the underlying cortex, without disrupting it. Given these radiographic features, what type of bone tumor is MOST likely?

<p>Osteoma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 7-year-old child presents with fever and localized bone pain in the distal femur. Radiographic imaging reveals soft tissue swelling but no bony changes. Which of the following stages of osteomyelitis is MOST consistent with these findings?

<p>Acute osteomyelitis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with sickle cell disease develops osteomyelitis. Which of the following organisms is MOST likely to be the causative agent in this specific patient population?

<p>Salmonella species (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In chronic osteomyelitis, which radiographic finding represents devitalized bone that has separated from the surrounding viable bone?

<p>Sequestrum (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with septic arthritis. Which of the following is the MOST crucial next step in management after confirming the diagnosis?

<p>Prompt drainage of the affected joint (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following radiographic findings is MOST suggestive of septic arthritis in the early stages?

<p>Periarticular osteopenia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 28-year-old sexually active male presents with acute onset of monoarticular knee pain, swelling, and warmth. Which organism should be HIGHLY suspected as the cause of septic arthritis in this patient?

<p>Neisseria gonorrhoeae (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of osteoarthritis?

<p>Wear and tear of articular cartilage leading to bone-on-bone friction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 65-year-old patient presents with hip pain that worsens with activity and improves with rest. Radiographic findings include asymmetric joint space narrowing and osteophytes. Which additional radiographic finding is MOST characteristic of osteoarthritis?

<p>Subchondral cysts (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In osteoarthritis, which of the following radiographic features is associated with the 'lipping' of marginal bones?

<p>Osteophytes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the primary pathophysiological process in rheumatoid arthritis?

<p>Chronic autoimmune inflammation of the synovium (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis presents with zig-zag deformity of the hand. This deformity is characterized by which combination of deviations?

<p>Ulnar deviation of digits and radial deviation of carpus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which imaging modality is considered the study of choice for diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis, particularly in the early stages?

<p>Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For monitoring the progression of rheumatoid arthritis and assessing structural damage over time, which imaging modality is typically preferred?

<p>Radiography (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the American College of Rheumatology criteria for rheumatoid arthritis diagnosis, how many of the criteria must be present for at least 6 weeks to classify a patient as having RA?

<p>4 out of 7 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a recognized extra-articular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis?

<p>Pleuritis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 6-year-old girl presents with joint pain in multiple joints including hands and feet. She has been experiencing symptoms for 8 weeks. Which subtype of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) is MOST likely, given the polyarticular joint involvement?

<p>Polyarticular JIA (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 15-year-old male presents with anterior knee pain that is exacerbated by physical activity, especially jumping. Tenderness is elicited over the tibial tuberosity. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

<p>Osgood-Schlatter disease (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 40-year-old patient with a history of chronic steroid use for asthma presents with insidious onset hip pain. Which condition should be HIGHLY suspected in this patient?

<p>Avascular Necrosis (AVN) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which imaging modality is BEST for early diagnosis of avascular necrosis (AVN) of the hip?

<p>Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 75-year-old female presents with back pain and is diagnosed with osteoporosis. Which of the following T-scores at the hip or spine, obtained from a DEXA scan, is consistent with osteoporosis according to WHO criteria?

<p>-2.5 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 70-year-old male presents with bone pain and elevated alkaline phosphatase. Radiographs reveal thickened bone with areas of sclerosis and lysis. Which condition is MOST likely?

<p>Paget's disease of bone (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A radiograph of a patient's tibia shows a V-shaped lucency extending into the cortex, described as a 'blade of grass' appearance. This finding is highly suggestive of which condition?

<p>Paget's disease of bone (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Paget's disease of bone develops hearing loss. What is the MOST likely pathological mechanism causing this symptom?

<p>Cranial nerve compression by thickened bone (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST appropriate initial diagnostic test for osteoporosis?

<p>Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following radiographic views is BEST to visualize a pars interarticularis defect in suspected spondylolysis?

<p>Oblique view (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which radiographic finding is MOST indicative of ankylosing spondylitis?

<p>Syndesmophytes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 26-year-old male presents with chronic low back pain and morning stiffness improving with exercise. He has sacroiliitis on imaging. Which lab marker is MOST helpful in supporting the diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis?

<p>HLA-B27 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In evaluating a 12-year-old with unilateral Osgood-Schlatter disease, what is the MOST important comparative assessment during physical examination?

<p>Palpation and comparison of the tibial tuberosity bilaterally (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Osteomyelitis

Infection of the bone, commonly caused by Staph aureus.

Complications of osteomyelitis

Periostitis, septic arthritis, diskitis, and sepsis.

Osteomyelitis Age Distribution and Location

Children (<20) and adults (>50); affects long bones in children, vertebrae in adults.

Diagnosing Osteomyelitis

Initial: X-ray. Definitive: Culture bone

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Stages of Osteomyelitis on X-ray

Soft tissue swelling, lytic lesions(Brodie's abscess), sclerosis with sequestrum.

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Septic Arthritis Definition

Infection of a joint due to bacteria, leads to arthritis.

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Diagnosis of Septic Arthritis

Synovial fluid analysis and culture, X-ray may be normal or show joint effusion.

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X-ray Findings in Septic Arthritis

Soft tissue swelling, periarticular osteopenia, and joint space narrowing.

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Osteoarthritis (OA) Pathophysiology

Bone on bone inflammatory reaction, Caused by wear and tear. Affects weight-bearing joints.

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History & Physical of OA

Insidious articular stiffness, relieved by rest.

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X-ray Findings in Osteoarthritis

Asymmetric joint space narrowing, lipping of marginal bones, and osteophytes.

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Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)

Chronic system inflammatory process of synovium and joints.

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RA Involvement

Metacarpophalangeal joints, heart, females.

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RA Diagnosis Criteria

Morning stiffness >1 hour, swelling in >3 joints, symmetric arthritis

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Imaging Findings in RA

Soft tissue swelling, periarticular osteopenia, and bony erosion.

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Treatment for Rheumatoid Arthritis

NSAIDs and DMARDs like methotrexate.

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MRI for RA

Study of choice for diagnosing RA

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Spondylosis

Degenerative disc disease associated with pain, often in young athletes due to repetitive stress. May lead to spondylolysis.

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Spondylosis X-ray Findings

X-ray findings include decreased disc space height and osteophyte formation, commonly at L4 or L5.

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Spondylolysis

A small crack between two vertebrae, often seen on oblique X-ray. Look for the "Scottie dog" collar sign.

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Spondylolysis Diagnosis

Oblique lumbar spine radiograph demonstrates a defect in the pars interarticularis. Best diagnostic view for spondylolysis.

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Ankylosing Spondylitis (AS)

Chronic inflammatory autoimmune disorder primarily affecting the spine, more common in males aged 20-30.

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Ankylosing Spondylitis X-ray

X-ray shows erosion, sclerosis, and fusion of SI joints and the axial skeleton, often after 8-10 years of disease.

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Late Ankylosing Spondylitis findings

Late X-ray finding showing fusion of the sacroiliac joints and other axial joints

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Ankylosing Spondylitis Spine Appearance

Bamboo spine appearance due to vertebral bridging by ligamentous calcifications (syndesmophytes).

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Ankylosing Spondylitis MRI findings

Activity (edema) in the bone marrow distal joints, seen on semi-coronal STIR sequence.

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Osgood-Schlatter Disease Pathophysiology

Traction apophysitis of the proximal tibial tubercle due to repetitive strain.

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Osgood-Schlatter Disease

Clinical diagnosis for the disease characterized by pain and swelling at the tibial tubercle in active adolescents (10-15 years).

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Avascular Necrosis (AVN)

Pathology characterized by ischemic death of bone elements due to compromised blood supply.

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Avascular Necrosis Progression

Bone death leads to poor blood supply. Joint deterioration leads to severe arthritis.

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Avascular Necrosis Risk Factors

Steroids, alcoholism, trauma, RA, SLE, and radiation.

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Diagnosing Avascular Necrosis

MRI without contrast shows the bone issue.

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Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease (LCPD)

Avascular necrosis of the proximal femoral epiphysis in children, increasing risk of thrombophilia.

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Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease MRI

Femoral ossific nucleus flattening, fragmentation, and lateral extrusion visible on MRI.

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Osteoporosis

Loss of bone mineral density, often due to age or postmenopause, leading to pathological fractures.

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Osteoporosis Non-Modifiable Risk

History of fracture, white race, advanced age, female sex, and dementia.

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Osteoporosis Modifiable Risk

Current smoking, low body weight, estrogen deficiency, low calcium intake, alcoholism, and falls.

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Diagnosing Osteoporosis

Bone mineral density test (DEXA or DXA) measures bone calcium to diagnose.

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Osteoporosis X-ray Findings

X-ray finding showing thinning of the cortex and biconcave collapse of vertebral bodies.

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Paget's Disease of Bone

Chronic metabolic skeletal disorder with osteoclastic, mixed, and osteoblastic phases, increases risk of osteosarcoma later.

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Paget's Disease Symptoms

Bone and joint pain, hearing loss (ossicle destruction), and bowing limbs result from rapid bone turnover.

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Paget's Disease Labs

Elevated alkaline phosphatase (Alk Phos), and elevated GGT if liver involved.

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Paget's Disease X-ray findings

"Candle flame" or "blade of grass" lesion, representing a mix of lysis and sclerosis diffusely throughout the bone.

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Paget's Skeletal effects

Enlarged/deformed pelvis, femur, skull, spine. Bones bow or fracture, especially the femur.

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Later Stage Pagets X-ray progression

"Osteoporosis circumscripta" in lytic phase. Followed by radio densities then a wool appearance.

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Vertebral Paget's - X-ray

Widening of cortex progressing to body with endosteal progression. Makes a "frame picture" appearance.

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Osteochondroma

Benign bone tumor occuring as outgrowth near the growth plate in long bones; typically seen in ages 10-30.

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Giant Cell Tumor (GCT)

Benign, locally aggressive tumor, often found in the epiphysis of long bones (distal femur or proximal tibia) in young adults.

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Osteoid Osteoma

Small benign bone tumor often found in the cortex of long bones, characterized by a central nidus of osteoid tissue.

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Osteoblastoma

Rare, benign bone tumor similar to osteoid osteoma but larger (>2 cm) and typically found in the vertebrae.

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Osteoma

Usually a small, benign bone tumor most frequently found in the sinuses or facial bones.

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Enchondroma

Benign tumor found within the medullary cavity of bone, especially in small bones of the hands and feet. May show chondroid matrix.

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Simple Bone Cyst

Fluid-filled lesion commonly found in the metaphysis of long bones in children; may present with pathologic fracture.

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Osteogenic Sarcoma (Osteosarcoma)

Aggressive malignant bone tumor derived from primitive mesenchymal cells; most common primary bone malignancy in children and young adults.

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Ewing Sarcoma

Malignant small round blue cell tumor of bone and soft tissue, found primarily in children and young adults.

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Multiple Myeloma

Malignant plasma cell neoplasm that primarily involves the axial skeleton, leading to lytic lesions and bone pain in older adults.

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Metastatic Bone Cancer

Bone lesions resulting from the spread of cancer from a primary site elsewhere in the body.

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X-Ray in Bone Tumors

Initial imaging modality used for assessing bone tumors.

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CT Scan in Bone Tumors

Can be used following X-Ray to assess fracture risk, particularly if surgery or biopsy of the bone is needed.

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Bone Scan Uses in Bone Tumors

Sensitive but not specific test used to R/O tumor in normal X-Rays

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Biopsy Use in Bone Tumors

Definitive way to provide a diagnosis when assessing bone tumors.

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MRI Use in Bone Tumors

Imaging scan of choice for spinal lesions to find soft tissure involvement and to test staging for bone tumors.

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Codman's Triangle

A radiologic sign characterized by triangular shadow formed at the edge of a bone tumor due to periosteal elevation. Indicative of aggressive bone growth.

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Onion Skin Reaction

Type of periosteal reaction seen on radiographs, frequently observed in Ewing's sarcoma where layers of new bone are deposited parallel to the cortex.

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Age

The first thing to consider when diagnosing Bone tumors.

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Location of the Bone tumor

Different primary bone tumors occur at different skeletal sites.

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Bone Density

Either sclerotic or mixed, dictates the type of bone density.

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Margin Types

Factor that helps contribute to radiographic assessment.

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Cortical Expansion

Increase in size causing deformity and fracture.

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Osteomyelitis Pathophysiology

Infection of the bone via seeding, trauma, or spread from surrounding tissue. Staph aureus is the most common cause.

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Osteomyelitis Complications

Symptom of periostitis, septic arthritis, diskitis, and sepsis.

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Septic Arthritis Diagnosis

Synovial fluid analysis and culture. Ultrasound can demonstrate joint fluid, but not specific.

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Septic Arthritis

Synovial Mortise of ankle shows erosions

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Osteochondroma location

Benign tumors

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Study Notes

  • General Radiology focuses on identifying and describing both benign and malignant tumors affecting soft tissues and bones.

Malignant Tumors

  • Osteogenic Sarcoma
  • Ewing Sarcoma
  • Multiple Myeloma
  • Metastatic Bone Cancer

Benign Tumors

  • Osteochondroma
  • Giant Cell Tumor
  • Osteoid Osteoma
  • Osteoblastoma
  • Osteoma
  • Enchondroma
  • Simple Bone Cyst (Unicameral bone cyst)
  • Metastatic tumors and myeloma must be included in differential diagnosis for well-defined lesions in patients older than 40 years.
  • Benign tumors often present without symptoms but can involve pain or a mass.
  • Malignant tumors may involve similar signs and symptoms plus fever, unexplained weight loss, or night sweats.
  • X-ray is the initial imaging test of choice for bone tumors with AP, lateral, and oblique views.
  • CT is useful for follow-up imaging, and assessing fracture risk.
  • Bone scans can R/O tumors if X-rays are normal but are sensitive, not specific, to bone tumors.
  • Biopsy is the definitive diagnostic test for bone tumors.
  • MRI is the preferred imaging study for prognosis and staging, and is optimal for spinal lesions to assess soft tissue involvement, and is suitable for pediatric use.

Factors in Diagnosing Bone Tumors

  • Age of the patient
  • Which bone is affected
  • Tumor location within the bone
  • Bone tumor density (lytic, sclerotic, or mixed)
  • Margin types (greatest contributing factor for radiographic assessment)

Margin Types

  • Non-aggressive lesions have a narrow zone of transition with a sclerotic rim.
  • Indeterminate lesions have a narrow zone of transition without a sclerotic rim.
  • Aggressive lesions have an ill-defined wide zone of transition.
  • Aggressive lesions can present as ill-defined fields of bone destruction.
  • The most aggressive lesions have a permeative pattern.

Cortical Expansion Rate

  • Increased expansion can lead to deformity or pathological fracture.
  • Decreased expansion indicates the cortex is destroyed.
  • Age is the most important clinical clue in differentiating the possible bone tumors.

Osteogenic Sarcoma

  • Commonly seen in ages 10-30.
  • Often occurs at the Tibia
  • Demonstrates a mixed bone tumor density on imaging.
  • Presents with "moth-eaten" or permeative bone destruction with a wide zone of transition.
  • Cortical expansion is increased.
  • Presents with a Codman's triangle (black arrow)
  • Also presents as a Sun-burst or hair-on-end (arrowheads), and multilaminar onionskin (white arrow).

Ewing Sarcoma

  • Commonly seen in ages 5-30.
  • Occurs in the femur, tibia, and humerus, specifically in the diaphysis of long bones.
  • Displays a lytic or mixed lytic-sclerotic bone tumor density.
  • Margin types are generally types 2-3.
  • Cortical expansion is increased.
  • Characterized by lamellated (white arrows), onionskin, or spiculated periosteal with subburst (red circle) reaction.

Multiple Myeloma (Plasmacytoma)

  • Typically affects individuals aged 65-74.
  • Common locations include the spine, ribs, pelvis, and skull.
  • Characterized by punch out lesions in axial skeleton.
  • Bone tumor density shows "punched-out" lytic lesions.
  • Margin types: 2-3
  • Cortical expansion is decreased.

Metastatic Bone Cancer

  • Typically affects individuals over 50.
  • Common locations include the vertebrae, femur, pelvis, ribs, sternum, humerus, and skull.
  • May present as osteolytic, sclerotic, or mixed.
  • Bone tumor density is commonly Lytic, rarely sclerotic.
  • Margin types: 2
  • Cortical expansion: decreased

Osteochondroma

  • Typically affects individuals aged 10-30.
  • Manifests as an outgrowth of the growth plate of long bones, especially in the femur.
  • Presents as pedunculated (white arrows) or sessile.
  • Bone tumor density is similar to bone.
  • Margin types: 1A
  • Cortical expansion is increased.

Giant Cell Tumor

  • Typically found in indivduals Aged 20-40
  • Occurs in in long bones, near the joints
  • Common in the tibia/femur
  • Presents a sclerotic borders with lytic density centrally
  • Presents with Margin type 1A
  • Cortical expansion: increased; "ballooning" effect
  • Displays a "geographic" appearance, irregular, and scalloped edge leading to "Soap bubble".

Osteoid Osteoma

  • Occurs in long bones of lower extremity
  • Displays a lytic with sclerotic border
  • Has "sclerotic halo“; central zone of density within the nidus
  • Displays margin type 1
  • Displays a Cortical expansion increased
  • Diameter <2cm

Osteoblastoma

  • Typically affects individuals aged 10-30
  • Commonly found in the Vertebrae, specifically the posterior elements
  • Displays a lytic with less surrounding sclerosis, with mineralized matrix or nidus
  • Demonstrates margin type 1
  • Has cortical expansion that is increased
  • Diameter >2cm
  • Demonstrates geographic

Osteoma

  • Age: 45-65
  • Occurs in the sinuses, or facial bones
  • Bone tumor density: is scelrotic
  • Margin Type: 1
  • Displays Cortical Expansion with outgrowths

Enchondroma

  • Age: 10-20
  • Involves 50% hands and feet
  • Can involve proximal Humerus, Femur most common long bones
  • Displays a geographic lytic lesion
  • Has matrix variable
  • Displays Margin type 1A
  • Demonstrates Cortical Expansion that is increased

Simple Bone Cyst (Unicameral bone cyst)

  • Occurs from birth - 20 years old
  • Occurs in the metaphysis, centrally located within the medullary cavity, not crossing growth plate; it is common in long bones proximal humerus.
  • Bone tumor density is lucent (fluid filled)
  • Margin types: 1A
  • Cortical expansion: mildly increased
  • It can display a fallen fragment or fracture with callous formation

Objectives

  • Identify skeletal pathology associated with systemic diseases including infections and inflammation.
    • Infections: Osteomyelitis, Septic Arthritis
    • Inflammation: Osteoarthritis, Rheumatoid Arthritis

Abbreviations

  • sx = Symptom
  • cx = Culture
  • pt = Patient
  • dx = Diagnosis
  • MTP = Metatarsal Phalange
  • abs = Antibodies

Osteomyelitis (OM)

  • Pathophysiology: Infection of the bone
    • 3 pathways of infection:
      • Seeding of bone by bacteria in bloodstream
      • Traumatic or surgical infection
      • Spread of bacteria from surrounding tissue
    • Organisms:
      • Staph aureus is the most common cause
      • Salmonella associated with sickle cell disease
    • Complications: periostitis, septic arthritis, diskitis, sepsis
    • H&P: Bimodal distribution; Children <20 and Adults >50
      • Children - long bones
      • Adults - vertebrae
  • Diagnosis:
    • Initial: x-ray, positive in 10 days
    • If negative x-ray, perform a bone scan to assess for decreased uptake
    • Definitive diagnosis is achieved through bone culture
  • X-ray Findings: 3 stages
    • Acute: soft tissue swelling, 0-3 weeks
    • Subacute: lytic lesions, Brodie’s abscess (necrosis), 3-6 weeks
    • Chronic: sclerosis, sequestrum (dead bone), and involcrum (new bone), >6 weeks
  • Brodie's abscess represents a periosteal elevation and osteolysis, indicative of osteomyelitis
  • Periostitis, or bone rarefaction & destruction, can affect the 2nd and 3rd MTP heads, with thick periostitis proximally.
  • Periostitis and sequestrum, a bright spot in a lytic lesion along the ulna, can indicate osteomyelitis.

Septic Arthritis

  • Pathophysiology: purulent invasion of a joint by infection producing arthritis
    • Organisms:
      • All patients are considered for Staph aureus
      • Salmonella in patients with Sickle Cell disease
      • Campylobacter jejuni in children
      • Neisseria gonococcus in patients <30
    • Risks:
      • artificial joints
      • medical emergency
      • if untreated, can destroy the joint in days and may spread
    • H&P: severe pain in a joint, swelling, redness, warmth, and fever
  • Dx: Synovial fluid analysis and culture
    • X-ray may be normal
    • U/S can demonstrate joint fluid but is not specific
      • CT and MRI are not specific
  • X-Ray Findings:
    1. Soft tissue swelling (enlarged soft tissue) – effusion
    2. Periarticular osteopenia (dark area on each side of the joint)
    3. Joint space narrowing (thinner joint line because of cartilage destruction)

Osteoarthritis (OA)

  • Pathophysiology: Bone on bone leading to inflammatory reaction, swelling, and pain
    • Caused by wear and tear of articular cartilage of DIP, PIP, and weight-bearing joints
  • Pathologic Changes: cartilage degeneration, osteophyte formation, eburnation of subchondral bone, subarticular cysts
  • H&P: Insidious onset articular stiffness → pain with motion and increased activity, which is relieved by rest
  • Dx: x-ray
  • X-ray Findings:
    1. Asymmetric joint space narrowing
    2. Periarticular sclerosis - (whiter than normal area on each side of the bone) – lipping of marginal bones
    3. Sharpened articular margins
    4. Osteophytes
    5. Subarticular cysts - black round spots
    6. Thickening of dense subchondral bone

Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)

  • Pathophysiology: Chronic inflammatory process of synovium and joint capsule
    • Results in soft tissue swelling, articular cartilage destruction, periarticular demineralization, and bony erosion; adhesion → loss of ROM
    • Most often involves the metacarpophalangeal joints
    • Extraarticular manifestations involve Heart
    • More common in Females
    • The most common inflammatory arthritis type
  • Dx: ≥4 of 7 (First 4 must be present for at least 6 weeks)
    1. Morning stiffness for at least one hour
    2. Swelling or fluid around >3 joints simultaneously
    3. At least 1 swollen area in the wrist, hand, or finger joints
    4. Symmetric arthritis
    5. Rheumatoid nodules
    6. Increased RF or Anti-CCP (cyclic citrullinated peptide)
  • Prognosis: unfavorable if abs., extraarticular, increased # joints, <30 years old, female, systemic, insidious.

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