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What is the main purpose of the Mantoux test in diagnosing latent tuberculosis?

  • To identify active bacilli in sputum
  • To evaluate lung function
  • To measure the size of a skin lesion (correct)
  • To detect the presence of tuberculosis antigens in blood
  • Why is a prolonged treatment course of 6-12 months necessary for tuberculosis?

  • There is a slow response due to intracellular bacilli (correct)
  • Most bacilli are extracellular
  • Bacilli reproduce rapidly
  • Antibiotics are ineffective over time
  • What type of environment is optimal for the growth of Mycobacterium leprae?

  • Footpads of mice and armadillos (correct)
  • High temperature environments
  • Artificial culture conditions
  • A nutrient-rich broth
  • Which of the following is a first-line drug used in the treatment of tuberculosis?

    <p>Isoniazid (INH)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary action of the Bacillus Calmette–Guérin (BCG) vaccine?

    <p>To stimulate an immune response against tuberculosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements correctly describes the Ziehl-Neelsen stain in the diagnosis of tuberculosis?

    <p>It is used for direct smear of clinical samples</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common characteristic of tuberculoid leprosy?

    <p>Damaged nerves and lack of skin sensation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What complication does the caseous material present in tuberculosis treatment?

    <p>It interferes with drug penetration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mode of transmission for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

    <p>Transmission via droplets</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is considered a significant clinical manifestation of pulmonary tuberculosis?

    <p>Productive cough with sputum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic of Mycobacterium tuberculosis allows it to survive in dried sputum?

    <p>Resistance to dehydration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment strategy is recommended prior to starting antibiotic therapy for a Bacteroides infection?

    <p>Surgical drainage of abscesses</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What diagnostic method is most effective for staining Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

    <p>Acid-fast stain (Ziehl-Neelsen)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes the primary lesion formed during the first exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

    <p>Ghon focus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor makes Mycobacterium tuberculosis a major opportunistic pathogen?

    <p>Ability to multiply intracellularly in macrophages</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What cellular immunity response does Mycobacterium tuberculosis stimulate?

    <p>Delayed hypersensitivity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which clinical manifestation is specifically associated with the first stage of Lyme disease?

    <p>Erythema migrans</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the drug of choice for treating all treponemal infections?

    <p>Penicillin G</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following treatments is suitable for Stage III Lyme disease?

    <p>Ceftriaxone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary method of diagnosing relapsing fever caused by Borrelia?

    <p>Detection of spirochetes in blood smear</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which stage of Lyme disease is most likely to include neurological disorders such as meningitis?

    <p>Stage II</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For patients allergic to penicillin, which of the following antibiotics is recommended for treating treponemal infections?

    <p>Tetracycline</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the Borrelia organism evade the host's immune response during relapsing fever?

    <p>By modifying its antigens</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test serves as the sensitive screening tool for laboratory identification of Lyme disease?

    <p>ELISA or IFA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Non-Enterobacteriaceae affecting GIT - Vibrio

    • Vibrio are Gram-negative, comma-shaped, motile bacteria with a single polar flagellum
    • They are facultative anaerobes and oxidase-positive
    • Vibrio cholerae is the causative agent of cholera
    • Vibrio cholerae is transmitted by drinking contaminated water and through food, especially sushi and sashimi in Asian countries like Japan
    • Cholera causes profuse watery diarrhea (rice-water stools), vomiting, rapid heart rate, loss of skin elasticity, and low blood pressure
    • Untreated cholera can lead to shock and death

    Non-Enteric Gram-negative Rods

    • These include:
      • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
      • Haemophilus
      • Bordetella
      • Brucella
      • Legionella
      • Bacteroides

    1- Pseudomonas aeruginosa

    • Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a free-living bacterium found in soil and water
    • It is an opportunistic pathogen, primarily present in nosocomial infections
    • It is a Gram-negative rod, motile and has simple nutritional requirements.
    • It thrives in distilled water, signifying its minimal nutritional needs
    • Pseudomonas aeruginosa is resistant to high salt concentrations, dyes, weak antiseptics, and many antibiotics
    • Produces a blue-green pigment called pyocyanin

    Virulence Factors of Pseudomonas aeruginosa

    • A) Adhesins:
      • Fimbriae attach to epithelial cells in the upper respiratory tract
      • Mucoid exopolysaccharide (alginate slime) protects bacteria from lymphocytes, phagocytes, and cilia
    • B) Siderophores:
      • Pyochelin and pyoverdine are siderophores that accumulate iron vital for bacterial growth
    • C) Type III Secretion System (TTSS):
      • Promoters of local invasion and distribution of the organism
    • D) Toxins and Extracellular Products:
      • Cytotoxin, elastase, alkaline protease, exotoxin A (similar to diphtheria toxin), hemolysins, and LPS

    Clinical Significance of Pseudomonas aeruginosa

    • Respiratory Infections:

      • Pneumonia, commonly in cancer patients undergoing chemotherapy
    • Central Nervous System Infections:

      • Meningitis and brain abscesses
    • Ear Infections:

      • Commonly known as "swimmer's ear"
    • Eye Infections:

      • Leading cause of bacterial keratitis
    • Urinary Tract Infections (UTIs):

      • Often hospital-acquired from urinary tract procedures

    2- Haemophilus influenzae

    • Pleomorphic, ranging from small coccobacilli to long
    • Fastidious; requires hemin (X factor) and nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD+) (V factor)
    • Found in the upper respiratory tract, conjunctiva, and genital tract
    • Two forms:
      • Capsular (typable): The type b (Hib) form is a significant pathogen for young children
      • Non-capsulated (non-typable): Can cause severe disease, particularly pneumonia, in older adults and individuals with chronic lung disease
    • Transmitted by respiratory droplets
    • High mortality in untreated patients, secondary to bacterial infection following an influenza virus infection

    3- Bordetella pertussis

    • The causative agent of whooping cough, an aerobic, small, encapsulated coccobacillus

    • Transmitted by respiratory droplets

    • Pertussis has three stages:

      • Catarrhal phase: Non-specific symptoms
      • Paroxysmal phase: Uncontrollable coughing fits followed by a "whoop" sound
      • Convalescent phase: Lengthy, characterized by increasing risk of secondary infections
    • Involved Pathogenesis factors:

      • Fimbriae/Filamentous hemagglutinin (FHA) for adhesion
      • Pertussis toxin causing lymphocytosis, histamine sensitization, insulin production, and hypoglycemia
      • Tracheal cytotoxin, hindering ciliary movement and regeneration
      • Adenylyl cyclase toxin causing decreased chemotaxis and phagocytosis
      • Dermonecrotic toxin causing vasoconstriction and ischemic necrosis

    4- Brucella

    • Brucella is primarily pathogenic to specific animal species (cattle, goats, sheep, swine, dogs) and is an aerobic, facultative intracellular parasite that survives within host phagocytes
    • Infection, primarily from infected animals, typically occurs through contact with contaminated tissue or ingestion of unpasteurized milk
    • The disease it causes, brucellosis * (undulant fever)*, is a zoonosis
    • Symptoms are often nonspecific and flu-like, presenting with undulant fever
    • Diagnosis often requires extensive history taking

    5- Legionella

    • Found in soil and water, with amoebas in water acting as reservoirs
    • Legionella pneumophila causes Legionnaires' disease (severe pneumonia) and a milder form called Pontiac fever
    • High mortality rate, particularly in immunocompromised individuals
    • Transmitted through contaminated water and airborne dust, specifically through inhalation, or drinking untreated milk

    6- Bacteroides

    • A pleomorphic group of non-spore-forming anaerobic Gram-negative bacilli
    • Bacteroides fragilis is a critical opportunistic pathogen causing abscess formation
    • Surgical drainage of pus and elimination of necrotic tissue is crucial prior to treatment

    A- Mycobacterium tuberculosis

    • Nonmotile, strictly aerobic, slightly curved, non-spore-forming rods
    • Grows very slowly (generation time 12-24 hrs)
    • Requires special media (Lowenstein-Jensen)
    • Acid-fast due to a mycolic acid cell wall (resistant to acid and alkali)
    • Does not produce exotoxins/endotoxins
    • Transmitted by droplets, causing pulmonary TB, or milk from infected cattle causing intestinal TB (rare)
    • Clinical presentation includes pulmonary and other organ infections, typically disseminated through macrophages

    B- Mycobacterium leprae

    • Nonmotile, aerobic, rod-shaped bacteria with a waxy coating, unique to mycobacteria
    • Affects the skin primarily, due its growth at low temperatures
    • Grows in armadillo's footpads and mouse footpads, grows poorly in culture systems
    • Causes leprosy
    • Transmitted by prolonged close contact with infected individuals, particularly via nasal secretions and skin lesions from lepromatous leprosy patients

    B- Rickettsia

    • Gram-negative, small bacilli, staining poorly with Gram stains
    • Cultivable in embryonated eggs and tissue cells but not on culture media
    • All diseases are zoonoses (transmitted from animals).
    • Example: Typhus and Rocky Mountain spotted fever

    C- Coxiella

    • Highly heat, UV, and drying-resistant
    • Aerobic and Gram-negative
    • Transmitted via airborne dust, including unpasteurized milk
    • Example: Q fever, primarily infecting the lungs

    D- Chlamydia

    • Aerobic, Gram-negative, obligate intracellular bacteria
    • Staining poorly with Gram stains
    • Cultivate in embryonated eggs and cell culture systems
    • Example: respiratory tract infections, ocular infections, and sexually transmitted infections

    1. Spirochetes

    • Long, slender, helically curved, Gram-negative bacilli with axial fibrils or filaments for movement (corkscrew)

    • Lacking LPS (lipopolysaccharide) or endotoxin

    • Important types causing:

      • Treponema pallidum: Syphilis
      • Borrelia burgdorferi: Lyme disease
      • Leptospira interrogans: Leptospirosis
    • Transmission of Treponema pallidum (syphilis): is through sexual contact and congenital syphilis can be transmitted during pregnancy.

    Atypical Bacteria (Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma)

    • Extremely small, lacking a cell wall
    • Require complex media for cultivation
    • Important species:
      • Mycoplasma pneumoniae: Respiratory infections
      • Mycoplasma hominis: Genitourinary infections
      • Ureaplasma urealyticum: Genitourinary infections

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