Podcast
Questions and Answers
What is the primary function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)?
What is the primary function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)?
- Energy production
- Protein synthesis
- Packaging of secretion products
- Detoxification of drugs and alcohol (correct)
Which organelle is primarily responsible for the packaging of cellular products?
Which organelle is primarily responsible for the packaging of cellular products?
- Golgi bodies (correct)
- Lysosomes
- Rough endoplasmic reticulum
- Mitochondria
Which of the following statements about hypertrophy and hyperplasia is correct?
Which of the following statements about hypertrophy and hyperplasia is correct?
- Hyperplasia results from increased DNA content.
- Both processes can occur simultaneously during pregnancy. (correct)
- Hyperplasia leads to an increase in the size of an organ.
- Hypertrophy refers to an increase in the number of cells.
Which structure is responsible for detoxifying alcohol at normal doses?
Which structure is responsible for detoxifying alcohol at normal doses?
What is the best test for identifying chromosomal abnormalities?
What is the best test for identifying chromosomal abnormalities?
Which species of malaria is responsible for the shortest pre-erythrocytic phase?
Which species of malaria is responsible for the shortest pre-erythrocytic phase?
Which vitamin deficiency is associated with megaloblastic anemia?
Which vitamin deficiency is associated with megaloblastic anemia?
What factor makes Plasmodium Vivax the most common non-falciparum malaria?
What factor makes Plasmodium Vivax the most common non-falciparum malaria?
Which amino acid is considered ketogenic?
Which amino acid is considered ketogenic?
What is the characteristic presentation of Pellagra?
What is the characteristic presentation of Pellagra?
What is the correct sequence of phases in the cell cycle mentioned?
What is the correct sequence of phases in the cell cycle mentioned?
Which species of malaria primarily causes quartan malaria with a 72-hour cycle?
Which species of malaria primarily causes quartan malaria with a 72-hour cycle?
Which vitamin is primarily required as a cofactor for Coenzyme A?
Which vitamin is primarily required as a cofactor for Coenzyme A?
Which of the following provides the highest energy content?
Which of the following provides the highest energy content?
During fasting, which nutrient source is primarily utilized between 48 to 72 hours?
During fasting, which nutrient source is primarily utilized between 48 to 72 hours?
Which statement about the prostate is correct?
Which statement about the prostate is correct?
Which type of hepatitis is most lethal?
Which type of hepatitis is most lethal?
Which form of hepatitis is most commonly spread sexually?
Which form of hepatitis is most commonly spread sexually?
What is the most favorable type of pelvis for delivery?
What is the most favorable type of pelvis for delivery?
In cranial nerve palsy, which symptom is associated with CN3 palsy?
In cranial nerve palsy, which symptom is associated with CN3 palsy?
Which type of anemia is characterized by a diagnostic feature of fatty marrow and pancytopenia?
Which type of anemia is characterized by a diagnostic feature of fatty marrow and pancytopenia?
What is the most common source of emboli?
What is the most common source of emboli?
In case of neural tube defects, which test is sensitive for detecting the condition?
In case of neural tube defects, which test is sensitive for detecting the condition?
Which collagen type is primarily involved in early wound healing and granulation tissue?
Which collagen type is primarily involved in early wound healing and granulation tissue?
What is the most significant consequence of vitamin A toxicity during pregnancy?
What is the most significant consequence of vitamin A toxicity during pregnancy?
Which factor is the most potent chemotactic factor?
Which factor is the most potent chemotactic factor?
What is reduced form of iron that binds to hemoglobin?
What is reduced form of iron that binds to hemoglobin?
Which drug is considered the first-line treatment for severe and resistant C. Difficile infections?
Which drug is considered the first-line treatment for severe and resistant C. Difficile infections?
What is the drug of choice for treating acute pancreatitis?
What is the drug of choice for treating acute pancreatitis?
Which medication is used for treating motion sickness?
Which medication is used for treating motion sickness?
In the case of anaphylactic shock, which drug is the first choice treatment?
In the case of anaphylactic shock, which drug is the first choice treatment?
What supplies the fibrous pericardium and parietal layer of the serous pericardium?
What supplies the fibrous pericardium and parietal layer of the serous pericardium?
Which drug is the preferred choice for patients with Pregnancy induced hypertension?
Which drug is the preferred choice for patients with Pregnancy induced hypertension?
Which muscle is primarily responsible for forced expiration?
Which muscle is primarily responsible for forced expiration?
During a hysterectomy, damage to which structure is most likely to affect the ureter?
During a hysterectomy, damage to which structure is most likely to affect the ureter?
What is the mechanism of action of Diazepam?
What is the mechanism of action of Diazepam?
What represents the most common site for ureteric stones in adults?
What represents the most common site for ureteric stones in adults?
Which drug is contraindicated in patients with liver disease?
Which drug is contraindicated in patients with liver disease?
Which nerve is responsible for the pain of pericarditis?
Which nerve is responsible for the pain of pericarditis?
What is the first-line agent for rhythm control in atrial fibrillation without ischemic heart disease?
What is the first-line agent for rhythm control in atrial fibrillation without ischemic heart disease?
Which medication is associated with causing gingival hyperplasia?
Which medication is associated with causing gingival hyperplasia?
What type of rejection is characterized by pre-formed antibodies?
What type of rejection is characterized by pre-formed antibodies?
Which drug is indicated to treat eclampsia during pregnancy?
Which drug is indicated to treat eclampsia during pregnancy?
What is the main function of lymphoid tissue in the spleen?
What is the main function of lymphoid tissue in the spleen?
What is the expected anatomical position of the right kidney as compared to other organs?
What is the expected anatomical position of the right kidney as compared to other organs?
What is the primary action of acetazolamide?
What is the primary action of acetazolamide?
Which factor is known to increase the risk of digoxin toxicity?
Which factor is known to increase the risk of digoxin toxicity?
Which rib types include ribs that do not have direct attachment to the sternum?
Which rib types include ribs that do not have direct attachment to the sternum?
What type of muscles are primarily used during quiet inspiration?
What type of muscles are primarily used during quiet inspiration?
Which medication primarily causes fetal hypoglycemia when used in pregnancy?
Which medication primarily causes fetal hypoglycemia when used in pregnancy?
In the case of a blockage above the azygous vein, where would the most significant dilation occur?
In the case of a blockage above the azygous vein, where would the most significant dilation occur?
What is the common outcome when the median arcuate ligament is affected?
What is the common outcome when the median arcuate ligament is affected?
What is the primary blood supply to the left ventricle?
What is the primary blood supply to the left ventricle?
What is the mechanism by which Warfarin exerts its anticoagulant effect?
What is the mechanism by which Warfarin exerts its anticoagulant effect?
Which coagulation disorder is most commonly associated with thrombosis?
Which coagulation disorder is most commonly associated with thrombosis?
Which factor is involved in the activation of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation?
Which factor is involved in the activation of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation?
What is the main clinical significance of elevated APTT?
What is the main clinical significance of elevated APTT?
In cases of myasthenia gravis, which antibodies are typically present?
In cases of myasthenia gravis, which antibodies are typically present?
Which anatomical structure has the fastest speed of conduction in the heart?
Which anatomical structure has the fastest speed of conduction in the heart?
During strenuous exercise, blood flow to which organ decreases the most?
During strenuous exercise, blood flow to which organ decreases the most?
Which vitamin K dependent factor has the shortest half-life?
Which vitamin K dependent factor has the shortest half-life?
Which condition is identified by a 'sawtooth appearance' on ECG?
Which condition is identified by a 'sawtooth appearance' on ECG?
The most common congenital cyanotic heart defect is?
The most common congenital cyanotic heart defect is?
Which natural anticoagulant is known to inhibit Factor Xa?
Which natural anticoagulant is known to inhibit Factor Xa?
In pregnancy, which physiological change leads to dilutional anemia?
In pregnancy, which physiological change leads to dilutional anemia?
Which factor is responsible for the contraction of the bladder during micturition?
Which factor is responsible for the contraction of the bladder during micturition?
Which electrolyte disturbance is associated with respiratory acidosis?
Which electrolyte disturbance is associated with respiratory acidosis?
Flashcards
Cadherin
Cadherin
A type of cell adhesion molecule responsible for cell-to-cell interactions, especially in epithelial tissues.
Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER)
Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER)
An organelle responsible for detoxification of harmful substances like drugs and alcohol.
Lysosome
Lysosome
An organelle found in eukaryotic cells that break down waste products and cellular debris.
Hypertrophy
Hypertrophy
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Hyperplasia
Hyperplasia
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Interphase
Interphase
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Barr Body
Barr Body
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Plasmodium Falciparum
Plasmodium Falciparum
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Plasmodium Malariae
Plasmodium Malariae
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Normocytic Normochromic Anemia
Normocytic Normochromic Anemia
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Hypnozoite
Hypnozoite
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Sporozoite
Sporozoite
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Merozoite
Merozoite
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Great Cardiac Vein
Great Cardiac Vein
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Middle Cardiac Vein
Middle Cardiac Vein
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Small Cardiac Vein
Small Cardiac Vein
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Anterior Cardiac Vein
Anterior Cardiac Vein
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Cardiac Vein
Cardiac Vein
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Angina Pain Transmission
Angina Pain Transmission
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Pericarditis Pain Transmission
Pericarditis Pain Transmission
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Fibrous & Parietal Pericardium Innervation
Fibrous & Parietal Pericardium Innervation
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Visceral Serous Pericardium
Visceral Serous Pericardium
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Right Border of the Heart
Right Border of the Heart
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Left Border of the Heart
Left Border of the Heart
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Anterior Surface of the Heart
Anterior Surface of the Heart
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Inferior Surface of the Heart
Inferior Surface of the Heart
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Epicardium Blood Supply
Epicardium Blood Supply
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Pericardium Blood Supply
Pericardium Blood Supply
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What is the drug of choice for severe and resistant C. difficile?
What is the drug of choice for severe and resistant C. difficile?
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What is the preferred treatment for traveler's diarrhea?
What is the preferred treatment for traveler's diarrhea?
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What is the first line treatment for Atrial Fibrillation?
What is the first line treatment for Atrial Fibrillation?
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What medications are used for rate Control in Atrial Fibrillation?
What medications are used for rate Control in Atrial Fibrillation?
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What is the drug of choice for rhythm control in Atrial Fibrillation without coronary artery disease?
What is the drug of choice for rhythm control in Atrial Fibrillation without coronary artery disease?
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What medication is used for rhythm control in Atrial Fibrillation with coronary artery disease?
What medication is used for rhythm control in Atrial Fibrillation with coronary artery disease?
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What is the drug of choice for cardiogenic shock?
What is the drug of choice for cardiogenic shock?
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What is the drug of choice for hypotension with unrecordable blood pressure?
What is the drug of choice for hypotension with unrecordable blood pressure?
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What is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock?
What is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock?
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What is the drug of choice for Pseudomonas infections?
What is the drug of choice for Pseudomonas infections?
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What is the drug of choice for UTIs caused by Pseudomonas?
What is the drug of choice for UTIs caused by Pseudomonas?
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Which molecule provides the highest energy for cellular processes?
Which molecule provides the highest energy for cellular processes?
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What molecule stores the highest amount of energy?
What molecule stores the highest amount of energy?
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Which food source is known to have the highest quantity of unsaturated fatty acids?
Which food source is known to have the highest quantity of unsaturated fatty acids?
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Which food source is recognized as having the highest quality of unsaturated fatty acids?
Which food source is recognized as having the highest quality of unsaturated fatty acids?
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What is the body's primary energy source during the first 48 hours of fasting?
What is the body's primary energy source during the first 48 hours of fasting?
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What is the main energy source for the body between 48 and 72 hours of fasting?
What is the main energy source for the body between 48 and 72 hours of fasting?
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What becomes the energy source after 72 hours of fasting?
What becomes the energy source after 72 hours of fasting?
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Which zone of the prostate gland is largest and most susceptible to Cancer?
Which zone of the prostate gland is largest and most susceptible to Cancer?
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How does prostate cancer typically spread to the bones and brain?
How does prostate cancer typically spread to the bones and brain?
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Which zone is associated with non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate (BPH)?
Which zone is associated with non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate (BPH)?
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Which Hepatitis viruses are transmitted through the fecal-oral route and are considered naked viruses?
Which Hepatitis viruses are transmitted through the fecal-oral route and are considered naked viruses?
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Which hepatitis virus is considered the most lethal?
Which hepatitis virus is considered the most lethal?
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Which Hepatitis virus is most commonly associated with complications during pregnancy, particularly in remote areas?
Which Hepatitis virus is most commonly associated with complications during pregnancy, particularly in remote areas?
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Which virus poses the highest risk after blood transfusions or organ transplants?
Which virus poses the highest risk after blood transfusions or organ transplants?
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At what stage of red blood cell development does hemoglobin synthesis begin?
At what stage of red blood cell development does hemoglobin synthesis begin?
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At which stage of red blood cell development does hemoglobin first appear?
At which stage of red blood cell development does hemoglobin first appear?
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Vitamin C and wound healing
Vitamin C and wound healing
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Infection delays wound healing
Infection delays wound healing
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Anemia delays wound healing
Anemia delays wound healing
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Why aging delays wound healing
Why aging delays wound healing
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Factor V Leiden Mutation
Factor V Leiden Mutation
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Factor V Deficiency
Factor V Deficiency
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Factor XII Deficiency
Factor XII Deficiency
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Antiphospholipid Syndrome
Antiphospholipid Syndrome
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Von Willebrand Disease
Von Willebrand Disease
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Heparin and coagulation
Heparin and coagulation
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Plasmin and blood clot breakdown
Plasmin and blood clot breakdown
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Extrinsic and intrinsic pathway convergence
Extrinsic and intrinsic pathway convergence
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Factor VIII production
Factor VIII production
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Factor VIII synthesis
Factor VIII synthesis
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Extrinsic pathway activation
Extrinsic pathway activation
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Intrinsic pathway activation
Intrinsic pathway activation
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Study Notes
Quick Hints (FCPS 1)
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Derivatives are derived from embryonic layers.
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Extraembryonic mesoderm comes from the epiblast.
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Extraembryonic coelom forms from the hypoblast.
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Intraembryonic coelom originates from the lateral plate mesoderm.
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Adrenal cortex derives from mesoderm.
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Adrenal medulla originates from neural crest cells.
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Dura matter is derived from mesoderm.
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Pia and arachnoid matter come from neural crest cells.
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Schwann cells derive from neural crest cells.
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Oligodendrocytes develop from the neural tube.
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Renal agenesis results from failure of ureteric bud to reach metanephric mesoderm.
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Kidney formation with two ureters and pelvis results from early division of the ureteric bud.
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Hepatocytes develop from endoderm.
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Kupffer cells form from mesoderm.
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Transitional epithelium of the bladder is derived from endoderm.
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Curling ulcers are linked to inhalation burns.
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Cushing ulcers are caused by brain injury and increased intracranial pressure.
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Marjolin ulcers form from external burns, often squamous cell carcinoma of skin.
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Mortorrell ulcers are associated with hypertension.
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Most common location of a duodenal ulcer is the first part of the duodenum.
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Perforation of the posterior wall of a duodenal ulcer can lead to bleeding from the gastroduodenal artery.
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Gastric ulcers are most frequently located near the angular incisure on the lesser curvature.
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Perforation of the lesser curvature can cause bleeding from the left gastric artery.
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Perforation of the posterior wall of the stomach can cause bleeding from the splenic artery.
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Micturition is initiated by stretch receptors in the bladder wall.
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Micturition center (stimulatory): Pons
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Micturition center (inhibitory): Midbrain
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Processing of micturition: Cerebral cortex
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Micturition reflex/integration: Sacral segments of spinal cord
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Voluntary inhibition: Activation of pudendal nerve
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Pain and filling sensations of bladder are carried by -Sympathetic(Guyton)
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Defecation is initiated by - Mass Movement
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Defecation is carried out by – Sacral Parasympathetic
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Defecation Reflex–Recto Anal
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Defecation Reflex in Baby– Gastrocolic
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Bulbar Urethra Rupture(Below Urogenital Diaphragm) urine into– Superficial Perineal Pouch
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Membranous Urethra Rupture(At Urogenital Diaphragm) urine into – Deep Perineal Pouch
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Prostatic Urethra Rupture(Above Urogenital Diaphragm) urine into –Retropubic Space
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Penile Urethra Rupture Urine into –Scrotum> Anterior Abdominal Wall
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Injury above Sacral Segment Cause –Spastic Bladder-Automatic Bladder-Urge Incontinence
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AIDS/HIV
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Initial Test- ELISA
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Confirmatory Test-Western Blot
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Children Confirmatory Test- PCR
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Hall mark of HIV- Proliferation of Virus in T Cell
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Hall mark of AIDS- Progressive Immunodeficiency(Decrease CD4 Count)
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Most common opportunistic infection in-HIV is TB
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Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS Pneumocystic Jiroveci
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Follow up is done by-CD4 Count
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Progression from asymptomatic to Symptomatic stage can be assessed by PCR
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GIT
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Pancreatic Secretion Increased by CCK(First Aid)
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HCO3 secretion Increased by Secretin
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CCK increase Calcium by IP3 mechanism
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Gastric Motility Increased by Gastrin
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Gastric Motility Decreased by Somatostatin
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Increase Salivary Flow– Cranial Nerve 7 > 9
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Increase Small intestine Motility and Decrease Gastric motility – CCK
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Fundus removed=↓Gastric compliance>>↓Receptive relaxation
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Antrum removed=↓ Gastric acid production
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Pylorus removed Solids pass easily
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Intrinsic factor released by Fundus of Stomach
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Colostomy Result in Secretory Diarrhea
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Jejunostomy Result in Osmotic Diarrhea
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illeostomy Result in Osmotic Diarrhea
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Jejunostomy+illeostomy Result in Secretory+Osmotic Diarrhea
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Iron and Calcium absorption – Duodenum
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Max water + electrolytes absorption – Jejunum
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Passive(Aldosteron independent) water absorption -Jejunum
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Absorption of LONG chain FA-Jejunum
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Vitamin B12 and Bile Salts Absorption -Terminal ileum
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For B12 Absorption Needed – Intrinsic Factor
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For B12 Transport Needed – Transcobalamin 2
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Absorption of SHORT chain FA -COLON
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Active(Aldosteron Dependent) water absorption -Colon
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Max Fluid loss -Colon
Further information on the provided documents
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Information detailing parts of the gut, tissue, and the various locations of bodily systems and organs are included. Also, the different types of glands and cells are described.
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Information regarding the various tests and methods of diagnosis and treatment are included.
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There are also elements that provide insight into the effects of various factors or conditions on the human body, including the physiological mechanisms behind various conditions.
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Information related to various diseases are also included.
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Description
Test your knowledge with these quick hints on embryonic development and its derivatives. This quiz covers various structures, origins, and conditions related to embryology, particularly for FCPS 1 candidates. See how familiar you are with these essential concepts and facts.