Quick Hints in Embryology (FCPS 1)
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Questions and Answers

What is the primary function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)?

  • Energy production
  • Protein synthesis
  • Packaging of secretion products
  • Detoxification of drugs and alcohol (correct)

Which organelle is primarily responsible for the packaging of cellular products?

  • Golgi bodies (correct)
  • Lysosomes
  • Rough endoplasmic reticulum
  • Mitochondria

Which of the following statements about hypertrophy and hyperplasia is correct?

  • Hyperplasia results from increased DNA content.
  • Both processes can occur simultaneously during pregnancy. (correct)
  • Hyperplasia leads to an increase in the size of an organ.
  • Hypertrophy refers to an increase in the number of cells.

Which structure is responsible for detoxifying alcohol at normal doses?

<p>Peroxisomes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the best test for identifying chromosomal abnormalities?

<p>Karyotyping (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which species of malaria is responsible for the shortest pre-erythrocytic phase?

<p>Plasmodium Falciparum (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which vitamin deficiency is associated with megaloblastic anemia?

<p>Vitamin B12 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factor makes Plasmodium Vivax the most common non-falciparum malaria?

<p>It is the most widespread species. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which amino acid is considered ketogenic?

<p>Leucine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic presentation of Pellagra?

<p>Diarrhea, dementia, dermatitis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct sequence of phases in the cell cycle mentioned?

<p>Interphase, DNA replication, Cell division (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which species of malaria primarily causes quartan malaria with a 72-hour cycle?

<p>Plasmodium Malariae (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which vitamin is primarily required as a cofactor for Coenzyme A?

<p>Vitamin B5 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following provides the highest energy content?

<p>Starch (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During fasting, which nutrient source is primarily utilized between 48 to 72 hours?

<p>Fatty acids (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about the prostate is correct?

<p>The peripheral zone is the largest zone. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of hepatitis is most lethal?

<p>Hep D (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which form of hepatitis is most commonly spread sexually?

<p>Hep B (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most favorable type of pelvis for delivery?

<p>Gynecoid pelvis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In cranial nerve palsy, which symptom is associated with CN3 palsy?

<p>Pupil dilation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of anemia is characterized by a diagnostic feature of fatty marrow and pancytopenia?

<p>Aplastic anemia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common source of emboli?

<p>Femoral vein (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In case of neural tube defects, which test is sensitive for detecting the condition?

<p>AFP Assay (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which collagen type is primarily involved in early wound healing and granulation tissue?

<p>Type 3 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most significant consequence of vitamin A toxicity during pregnancy?

<p>Neural tube defects (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is the most potent chemotactic factor?

<p>LTB4 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is reduced form of iron that binds to hemoglobin?

<p>Fe2+ (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug is considered the first-line treatment for severe and resistant C. Difficile infections?

<p>Vancomycin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the drug of choice for treating acute pancreatitis?

<p>Pethidine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is used for treating motion sickness?

<p>Meclizine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the case of anaphylactic shock, which drug is the first choice treatment?

<p>Adrenaline (Epinephrine) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What supplies the fibrous pericardium and parietal layer of the serous pericardium?

<p>Phrenic nerve (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug is the preferred choice for patients with Pregnancy induced hypertension?

<p>Labetalol (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which muscle is primarily responsible for forced expiration?

<p>Internal intercostal (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a hysterectomy, damage to which structure is most likely to affect the ureter?

<p>Cardinal ligament (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of action of Diazepam?

<p>Acting through interneurons (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What represents the most common site for ureteric stones in adults?

<p>Vesico ureteric junction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug is contraindicated in patients with liver disease?

<p>Pentazocine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nerve is responsible for the pain of pericarditis?

<p>Phrenic nerve (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first-line agent for rhythm control in atrial fibrillation without ischemic heart disease?

<p>Flecainide (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is associated with causing gingival hyperplasia?

<p>Phenytoin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of rejection is characterized by pre-formed antibodies?

<p>Hyper acute rejection (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug is indicated to treat eclampsia during pregnancy?

<p>Magnesium Sulfate (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of lymphoid tissue in the spleen?

<p>Immune response (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the expected anatomical position of the right kidney as compared to other organs?

<p>Anteriorly related to liver (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary action of acetazolamide?

<p>Manage mountain sickness (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is known to increase the risk of digoxin toxicity?

<p>Hypokalemia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which rib types include ribs that do not have direct attachment to the sternum?

<p>False ribs (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of muscles are primarily used during quiet inspiration?

<p>Diaphragm and external intercostals (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication primarily causes fetal hypoglycemia when used in pregnancy?

<p>Terbutaline (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the case of a blockage above the azygous vein, where would the most significant dilation occur?

<p>Left gastric vein (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the common outcome when the median arcuate ligament is affected?

<p>Compression of the celiac trunk (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary blood supply to the left ventricle?

<p>Left anterior descending artery (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism by which Warfarin exerts its anticoagulant effect?

<p>Inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which coagulation disorder is most commonly associated with thrombosis?

<p>Anti-phospholipid syndrome (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is involved in the activation of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation?

<p>Thromboplastin (Tissue Factor) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main clinical significance of elevated APTT?

<p>Suggests a problem in the intrinsic pathway (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In cases of myasthenia gravis, which antibodies are typically present?

<p>Antibodies against acetylcholine receptors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which anatomical structure has the fastest speed of conduction in the heart?

<p>Purkinje fibers (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During strenuous exercise, blood flow to which organ decreases the most?

<p>Skin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which vitamin K dependent factor has the shortest half-life?

<p>Factor 7 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is identified by a 'sawtooth appearance' on ECG?

<p>Atrial flutter (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The most common congenital cyanotic heart defect is?

<p>Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which natural anticoagulant is known to inhibit Factor Xa?

<p>Heparin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In pregnancy, which physiological change leads to dilutional anemia?

<p>Increased plasma volume (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is responsible for the contraction of the bladder during micturition?

<p>Parasympathetic Nervous System (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which electrolyte disturbance is associated with respiratory acidosis?

<p>Hyperkalemia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Cadherin

A type of cell adhesion molecule responsible for cell-to-cell interactions, especially in epithelial tissues.

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER)

An organelle responsible for detoxification of harmful substances like drugs and alcohol.

Lysosome

An organelle found in eukaryotic cells that break down waste products and cellular debris.

Hypertrophy

An increase in the size of a cell or organ, often due to an increase in the number of cellular components.

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Hyperplasia

An increase in the number of cells in a tissue or organ.

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Interphase

The stage in the cell cycle where the cell grows and copies its DNA before dividing.

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Barr Body

A dense, inactive X chromosome found in the nuclei of female mammals.

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Plasmodium Falciparum

The shortest pre-erythrocytic phase in the Plasmodium life cycle, characterized by a rapid development of the parasite within the liver.

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Plasmodium Malariae

The longest pre-erythrocytic phase in the Plasmodium life cycle, highlighting a slower development within the liver.

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Normocytic Normochromic Anemia

The type of anemia associated with malarial infection, characterized by normal red blood cell size and color.

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Hypnozoite

The dormant stage of the Plasmodium parasite, present in the liver, which can cause relapses of malaria infection even after treatment.

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Sporozoite

The form of the Plasmodium parasite that enters the human body through the bite of an infected mosquito.

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Merozoite

The stage of the Plasmodium parasite that multiplies in the liver after the sporozoite enters the body.

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Great Cardiac Vein

The main vein that accompanies the Left Anterior Descending Artery.

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Middle Cardiac Vein

The middle cardiac vein runs alongside the Posterior Interventricular Artery.

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Small Cardiac Vein

The small cardiac vein travels alongside the Marginal Artery.

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Anterior Cardiac Vein

The Anterior Cardiac Vein directly drains into the Right Atrium.

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Cardiac Vein

This is a primary vein that drains the heart.

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Angina Pain Transmission

Pain originating from the heart itself is transmitted via the sympathetic nerves.

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Pericarditis Pain Transmission

Pain associated with inflammation of the pericardium is carried by the Phrenic nerve.

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Fibrous & Parietal Pericardium Innervation

The fibrous pericardium and the parietal layer of the serous pericardium are both innervated by the Phrenic nerve.

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Visceral Serous Pericardium

The Visceral layer of the serous pericardium is known as the Epicardium.

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Right Border of the Heart

The Right Atrium forms the right border of the heart.

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Left Border of the Heart

The Left Ventricle and its Apex Beat form the left border of the heart.

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Anterior Surface of the Heart

The Right Ventricle forms the anterior surface of the heart.

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Inferior Surface of the Heart

The Left Ventricle primarily forms the inferior surface of the heart.

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Epicardium Blood Supply

The coronary arteries supply the Epicardium.

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Pericardium Blood Supply

The Pericardiophrenic artery supplies the Pericardium.

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What is the drug of choice for severe and resistant C. difficile?

A drug used for the treatment of severe and resistant Clostridium difficile infections.

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What is the preferred treatment for traveler's diarrhea?

The drug of choice for traveler's diarrhea, providing a more effective treatment option compared to Metronidazole.

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What is the first line treatment for Atrial Fibrillation?

Beta Blockers are the first-line treatment for Atrial Fibrillation, helping control the heart rhythm.

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What medications are used for rate Control in Atrial Fibrillation?

Beta Blockers and Digoxin are used for rate control in Atrial Fibrillation, regulating the heart's rhythm.

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What is the drug of choice for rhythm control in Atrial Fibrillation without coronary artery disease?

Flecainide is used for rhythm control in Atrial Fibrillation for patients without coronary artery disease.

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What medication is used for rhythm control in Atrial Fibrillation with coronary artery disease?

Amiodarone is considered the preferred drug for rhythm control in Atrial Fibrillation patients with coronary artery disease.

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What is the drug of choice for cardiogenic shock?

Dopamine and Dobutamine are the primary drugs used to treat cardiogenic shock by supporting the heart's function.

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What is the drug of choice for hypotension with unrecordable blood pressure?

Dopamine is the preferred medication for hypotension with unrecordable blood pressure, effectively raising blood pressure and increasing blood flow.

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What is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock?

Adrenaline (epinephrine) is the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock, quickly reversing the severe allergic reaction.

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What is the drug of choice for Pseudomonas infections?

Ceftazidime is the primary treatment for Pseudomonas infections, effectively tackling this challenging bacterial infection.

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What is the drug of choice for UTIs caused by Pseudomonas?

Ciprofloxacin is the preferred medication for UTIs caused by Pseudomonas, effectively treating this common urinary tract infection.

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Which molecule provides the highest energy for cellular processes?

ATP is the energy currency of the cell, providing immediate energy for various cellular processes. It is composed of Adenosine, a sugar molecule Ribose, and three phosphate groups.

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What molecule stores the highest amount of energy?

Starch is a complex carbohydrate composed of long chains of glucose molecules. It is a major source of energy for plants and animals.

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Which food source is known to have the highest quantity of unsaturated fatty acids?

Sunflower seeds contain a high percentage of unsaturated fatty acids, particularly linoleic acid (omega-6 fatty acids), which are beneficial for heart health.

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Which food source is recognized as having the highest quality of unsaturated fatty acids?

Soybean oil is rich in both polyunsaturated and monounsaturated fatty acids, including linoleic acid (omega-6) and oleic acid (omega-9), which are essential for overall health.

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What is the body's primary energy source during the first 48 hours of fasting?

During the initial stages of fasting (up to 48 hours), the body primarily utilizes stored glucose for energy. This stored glucose is primarily derived from glycogen, which is stored in the liver and muscles.

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What is the main energy source for the body between 48 and 72 hours of fasting?

After the initial 48 hours of fasting, the body starts breaking down stored fat (triglycerides) into fatty acids to use as an energy source. This process is called lipolysis and is crucial for prolonged fasting.

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What becomes the energy source after 72 hours of fasting?

If fasting continues beyond 72 hours, the body begins breaking down muscle protein into amino acids. This provides a source of energy but comes with a significant net loss of muscle mass. This is why extended fasting requires careful monitoring.

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Which zone of the prostate gland is largest and most susceptible to Cancer?

The peripheral zone is the largest region of the prostate gland. It is most likely to be affected by prostate cancer (CA) and holds the highest risk of malignant changes.

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How does prostate cancer typically spread to the bones and brain?

Prostate cancer often metastasizes (spreads) to the vertebrae and brain, primarily through the anterior intervertebral venous plexus, a network of veins located in the front of the spinal column.

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Which zone is associated with non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate (BPH)?

The median lobe of the prostate gland is mainly involved in Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH), a condition where the prostate enlarges non-cancerously, leading to urinary issues.

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Which Hepatitis viruses are transmitted through the fecal-oral route and are considered naked viruses?

Hepatitis A and E are transmitted through the fecal-oral route, mainly through contaminated food or water. They are considered naked viruses, meaning they lack a protective outer envelope.

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Which hepatitis virus is considered the most lethal?

Hepatitis D, commonly known as the delta virus, is the most lethal form of hepatitis. It requires the presence of Hepatitis B to replicate and can cause severe liver damage leading to cirrhosis and liver failure.

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Which Hepatitis virus is most commonly associated with complications during pregnancy, particularly in remote areas?

Hepatitis E is most commonly seen in pregnant women, especially in remote areas, and can have serious consequences, including liver failure and death.

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Which virus poses the highest risk after blood transfusions or organ transplants?

Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is a common virus that can cause serious infections in people with weakened immune systems. It is the most lethal after blood transfusions or organ transplants.

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At what stage of red blood cell development does hemoglobin synthesis begin?

Hemoglobin synthesis starts in the earliest stage of red blood cell development, called the proerythroblast or early normoblast. At this stage, the cell is actively producing the components for hemoglobin.

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At which stage of red blood cell development does hemoglobin first appear?

The hemoglobin molecule first appears in the intermediate normoblast stage of red blood cell development. This stage marks the start of hemoglobin accumulation within the red blood cell.

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Vitamin C and wound healing

Vitamin C is required for the hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues, which are essential for the formation of collagen, a key component of strong connective tissue. Collagen provides structural support for wounds and promotes healing.

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Infection delays wound healing

Infection is a local factor that can significantly delay wound healing. Bacteria present in the wound consume nutrients and oxygen needed for healing, produce toxins, and trigger inflammation, all of which hinder tissue repair.

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Anemia delays wound healing

Anemia, a deficiency in red blood cells, can slow down wound healing because it reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. This limits the oxygen available for tissue repair, hindering the process.

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Why aging delays wound healing

Old age is associated with age-related changes in hormone levels and the function of the endocrine system. These changes can affect collagen production, immune function, and the body's overall ability to repair tissues, making wound healing slower.

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Factor V Leiden Mutation

Factor V Leiden mutation is a common inherited disorder that causes hypercoagulability, increasing the risk of blood clots (thrombosis). The mutation creates a Factor V protein that is resistant to inactivation, leading to excessive clotting.

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Factor V Deficiency

Factor V deficiency is a rare inherited bleeding disorder that makes the blood less able to clot properly, leading to increased bleeding. It occurs due to a reduced amount of Factor V, which is an essential component of the clotting cascade.

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Factor XII Deficiency

Factor XII deficiency, a rare inherited bleeding disorder, results in a prolonged clotting time. However, it's not associated with increased bleeding because it's involved in the intrinsic clotting pathway, which is activated later in the process.

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Antiphospholipid Syndrome

Antiphospholipid syndrome is the most common acquired thrombotic disorder. It's an autoimmune condition where the body produces antibodies against phospholipids, which are involved in clotting. These antibodies cause excessive clotting in the blood.

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Von Willebrand Disease

Von Willebrand disease (VWD) is the most common inherited bleeding disorder. VWD affects the von Willebrand factor, a protein that helps platelets stick together and forms a plug to stop bleeding.

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Heparin and coagulation

Heparin is a natural anticoagulant and antithrombotic agent. It works by enhancing the activity of antithrombin III, a protein that inhibits several clotting factors, primarily factor Xa. This prevents the formation of blood clots.

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Plasmin and blood clot breakdown

Plasmin is a natural thrombolytic enzyme responsible for dissolving blood clots. It's activated from a precursor called plasminogen. Plasmin breaks down fibrin, the protein that forms the meshwork of blood clots.

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Extrinsic and intrinsic pathway convergence

The extrinsic and intrinsic pathways of coagulation converge on Stuart factor (Factor X). Factor X is activated by both pathways and plays a crucial role in the final steps leading to fibrin formation, creating the meshwork of a blood clot.

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Factor VIII production

Factor VIII is mostly synthesized in endothelial cells, though a small portion is also made in the liver.

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Factor VIII synthesis

Factor VIII, a clotting factor crucial for the intrinsic pathway, is not completely synthesized in the liver. While the liver produces some Factor VIII, its primary source is endothelial cells.

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Extrinsic pathway activation

The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by the release of tissue factor (also known as thromboplastin) from damaged tissue cells.

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Intrinsic pathway activation

The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by contact with negatively charged surfaces, such as collagen exposed in damaged blood vessels. This activation involves Factor XII, which triggers a cascade of reactions leading to thrombin production.

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Study Notes

Quick Hints (FCPS 1)

  • Derivatives are derived from embryonic layers.

  • Extraembryonic mesoderm comes from the epiblast.

  • Extraembryonic coelom forms from the hypoblast.

  • Intraembryonic coelom originates from the lateral plate mesoderm.

  • Adrenal cortex derives from mesoderm.

  • Adrenal medulla originates from neural crest cells.

  • Dura matter is derived from mesoderm.

  • Pia and arachnoid matter come from neural crest cells.

  • Schwann cells derive from neural crest cells.

  • Oligodendrocytes develop from the neural tube.

  • Renal agenesis results from failure of ureteric bud to reach metanephric mesoderm.

  • Kidney formation with two ureters and pelvis results from early division of the ureteric bud.

  • Hepatocytes develop from endoderm.

  • Kupffer cells form from mesoderm.

  • Transitional epithelium of the bladder is derived from endoderm.

  • Curling ulcers are linked to inhalation burns.

  • Cushing ulcers are caused by brain injury and increased intracranial pressure.

  • Marjolin ulcers form from external burns, often squamous cell carcinoma of skin.

  • Mortorrell ulcers are associated with hypertension.

  • Most common location of a duodenal ulcer is the first part of the duodenum.

  • Perforation of the posterior wall of a duodenal ulcer can lead to bleeding from the gastroduodenal artery.

  • Gastric ulcers are most frequently located near the angular incisure on the lesser curvature.

  • Perforation of the lesser curvature can cause bleeding from the left gastric artery.

  • Perforation of the posterior wall of the stomach can cause bleeding from the splenic artery.

  • Micturition is initiated by stretch receptors in the bladder wall.

  • Micturition center (stimulatory): Pons

  • Micturition center (inhibitory): Midbrain

  • Processing of micturition: Cerebral cortex

  • Micturition reflex/integration: Sacral segments of spinal cord

  • Voluntary inhibition: Activation of pudendal nerve

  • Pain and filling sensations of bladder are carried by -Sympathetic(Guyton)

  • Defecation is initiated by - Mass Movement

  • Defecation is carried out by – Sacral Parasympathetic

  • Defecation Reflex–Recto Anal

  • Defecation Reflex in Baby– Gastrocolic

  • Bulbar Urethra Rupture(Below Urogenital Diaphragm) urine into– Superficial Perineal Pouch

  • Membranous Urethra Rupture(At Urogenital Diaphragm) urine into – Deep Perineal Pouch

  • Prostatic Urethra Rupture(Above Urogenital Diaphragm) urine into –Retropubic Space

  • Penile Urethra Rupture Urine into –Scrotum> Anterior Abdominal Wall

  • Injury above Sacral Segment Cause –Spastic Bladder-Automatic Bladder-Urge Incontinence

  • AIDS/HIV

  • Initial Test- ELISA

  • Confirmatory Test-Western Blot

  • Children Confirmatory Test- PCR

  • Hall mark of HIV- Proliferation of Virus in T Cell

  • Hall mark of AIDS- Progressive Immunodeficiency(Decrease CD4 Count)

  • Most common opportunistic infection in-HIV is TB

  • Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS Pneumocystic Jiroveci

  • Follow up is done by-CD4 Count

  • Progression from asymptomatic to Symptomatic stage can be assessed by PCR

  • GIT

  • Pancreatic Secretion Increased by CCK(First Aid)

  • HCO3 secretion Increased by Secretin

  • CCK increase Calcium by IP3 mechanism

  • Gastric Motility Increased by Gastrin

  • Gastric Motility Decreased by Somatostatin

  • Increase Salivary Flow– Cranial Nerve 7 > 9

  • Increase Small intestine Motility and Decrease Gastric motility – CCK

  • Fundus removed=↓Gastric compliance>>↓Receptive relaxation

  • Antrum removed=↓ Gastric acid production

  • Pylorus removed Solids pass easily

  • Intrinsic factor released by Fundus of Stomach

  • Colostomy Result in Secretory Diarrhea

  • Jejunostomy Result in Osmotic Diarrhea

  • illeostomy Result in Osmotic Diarrhea

  • Jejunostomy+illeostomy Result in Secretory+Osmotic Diarrhea

  • Iron and Calcium absorption – Duodenum

  • Max water + electrolytes absorption – Jejunum

  • Passive(Aldosteron independent) water absorption -Jejunum

  • Absorption of LONG chain FA-Jejunum

  • Vitamin B12 and Bile Salts Absorption -Terminal ileum

  • For B12 Absorption Needed – Intrinsic Factor

  • For B12 Transport Needed – Transcobalamin 2

  • Absorption of SHORT chain FA -COLON

  • Active(Aldosteron Dependent) water absorption -Colon

  • Max Fluid loss -Colon

Further information on the provided documents

  • Information detailing parts of the gut, tissue, and the various locations of bodily systems and organs are included. Also, the different types of glands and cells are described.

  • Information regarding the various tests and methods of diagnosis and treatment are included.

  • There are also elements that provide insight into the effects of various factors or conditions on the human body, including the physiological mechanisms behind various conditions.

  • Information related to various diseases are also included.

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