Quick Hints in Embryology (FCPS 1)
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Questions and Answers

What is the primary function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)?

  • Energy production
  • Protein synthesis
  • Packaging of secretion products
  • Detoxification of drugs and alcohol (correct)
  • Which organelle is primarily responsible for the packaging of cellular products?

  • Golgi bodies (correct)
  • Lysosomes
  • Rough endoplasmic reticulum
  • Mitochondria
  • Which of the following statements about hypertrophy and hyperplasia is correct?

  • Hyperplasia results from increased DNA content.
  • Both processes can occur simultaneously during pregnancy. (correct)
  • Hyperplasia leads to an increase in the size of an organ.
  • Hypertrophy refers to an increase in the number of cells.
  • Which structure is responsible for detoxifying alcohol at normal doses?

    <p>Peroxisomes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the best test for identifying chromosomal abnormalities?

    <p>Karyotyping</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which species of malaria is responsible for the shortest pre-erythrocytic phase?

    <p>Plasmodium Falciparum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vitamin deficiency is associated with megaloblastic anemia?

    <p>Vitamin B12</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What factor makes Plasmodium Vivax the most common non-falciparum malaria?

    <p>It is the most widespread species.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which amino acid is considered ketogenic?

    <p>Leucine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic presentation of Pellagra?

    <p>Diarrhea, dementia, dermatitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the correct sequence of phases in the cell cycle mentioned?

    <p>Interphase, DNA replication, Cell division</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which species of malaria primarily causes quartan malaria with a 72-hour cycle?

    <p>Plasmodium Malariae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vitamin is primarily required as a cofactor for Coenzyme A?

    <p>Vitamin B5</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following provides the highest energy content?

    <p>Starch</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During fasting, which nutrient source is primarily utilized between 48 to 72 hours?

    <p>Fatty acids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about the prostate is correct?

    <p>The peripheral zone is the largest zone.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of hepatitis is most lethal?

    <p>Hep D</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which form of hepatitis is most commonly spread sexually?

    <p>Hep B</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most favorable type of pelvis for delivery?

    <p>Gynecoid pelvis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In cranial nerve palsy, which symptom is associated with CN3 palsy?

    <p>Pupil dilation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of anemia is characterized by a diagnostic feature of fatty marrow and pancytopenia?

    <p>Aplastic anemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common source of emboli?

    <p>Femoral vein</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In case of neural tube defects, which test is sensitive for detecting the condition?

    <p>AFP Assay</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which collagen type is primarily involved in early wound healing and granulation tissue?

    <p>Type 3</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most significant consequence of vitamin A toxicity during pregnancy?

    <p>Neural tube defects</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is the most potent chemotactic factor?

    <p>LTB4</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is reduced form of iron that binds to hemoglobin?

    <p>Fe2+</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug is considered the first-line treatment for severe and resistant C. Difficile infections?

    <p>Vancomycin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the drug of choice for treating acute pancreatitis?

    <p>Pethidine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is used for treating motion sickness?

    <p>Meclizine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the case of anaphylactic shock, which drug is the first choice treatment?

    <p>Adrenaline (Epinephrine)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What supplies the fibrous pericardium and parietal layer of the serous pericardium?

    <p>Phrenic nerve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug is the preferred choice for patients with Pregnancy induced hypertension?

    <p>Labetalol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which muscle is primarily responsible for forced expiration?

    <p>Internal intercostal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During a hysterectomy, damage to which structure is most likely to affect the ureter?

    <p>Cardinal ligament</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism of action of Diazepam?

    <p>Acting through interneurons</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What represents the most common site for ureteric stones in adults?

    <p>Vesico ureteric junction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug is contraindicated in patients with liver disease?

    <p>Pentazocine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which nerve is responsible for the pain of pericarditis?

    <p>Phrenic nerve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first-line agent for rhythm control in atrial fibrillation without ischemic heart disease?

    <p>Flecainide</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is associated with causing gingival hyperplasia?

    <p>Phenytoin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of rejection is characterized by pre-formed antibodies?

    <p>Hyper acute rejection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug is indicated to treat eclampsia during pregnancy?

    <p>Magnesium Sulfate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main function of lymphoid tissue in the spleen?

    <p>Immune response</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the expected anatomical position of the right kidney as compared to other organs?

    <p>Anteriorly related to liver</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary action of acetazolamide?

    <p>Manage mountain sickness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is known to increase the risk of digoxin toxicity?

    <p>Hypokalemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which rib types include ribs that do not have direct attachment to the sternum?

    <p>False ribs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of muscles are primarily used during quiet inspiration?

    <p>Diaphragm and external intercostals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication primarily causes fetal hypoglycemia when used in pregnancy?

    <p>Terbutaline</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the case of a blockage above the azygous vein, where would the most significant dilation occur?

    <p>Left gastric vein</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the common outcome when the median arcuate ligament is affected?

    <p>Compression of the celiac trunk</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary blood supply to the left ventricle?

    <p>Left anterior descending artery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism by which Warfarin exerts its anticoagulant effect?

    <p>Inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which coagulation disorder is most commonly associated with thrombosis?

    <p>Anti-phospholipid syndrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is involved in the activation of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation?

    <p>Thromboplastin (Tissue Factor)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main clinical significance of elevated APTT?

    <p>Suggests a problem in the intrinsic pathway</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In cases of myasthenia gravis, which antibodies are typically present?

    <p>Antibodies against acetylcholine receptors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which anatomical structure has the fastest speed of conduction in the heart?

    <p>Purkinje fibers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During strenuous exercise, blood flow to which organ decreases the most?

    <p>Skin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vitamin K dependent factor has the shortest half-life?

    <p>Factor 7</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is identified by a 'sawtooth appearance' on ECG?

    <p>Atrial flutter</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The most common congenital cyanotic heart defect is?

    <p>Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which natural anticoagulant is known to inhibit Factor Xa?

    <p>Heparin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In pregnancy, which physiological change leads to dilutional anemia?

    <p>Increased plasma volume</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is responsible for the contraction of the bladder during micturition?

    <p>Parasympathetic Nervous System</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which electrolyte disturbance is associated with respiratory acidosis?

    <p>Hyperkalemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Quick Hints (FCPS 1)

    • Derivatives are derived from embryonic layers.

    • Extraembryonic mesoderm comes from the epiblast.

    • Extraembryonic coelom forms from the hypoblast.

    • Intraembryonic coelom originates from the lateral plate mesoderm.

    • Adrenal cortex derives from mesoderm.

    • Adrenal medulla originates from neural crest cells.

    • Dura matter is derived from mesoderm.

    • Pia and arachnoid matter come from neural crest cells.

    • Schwann cells derive from neural crest cells.

    • Oligodendrocytes develop from the neural tube.

    • Renal agenesis results from failure of ureteric bud to reach metanephric mesoderm.

    • Kidney formation with two ureters and pelvis results from early division of the ureteric bud.

    • Hepatocytes develop from endoderm.

    • Kupffer cells form from mesoderm.

    • Transitional epithelium of the bladder is derived from endoderm.

    • Curling ulcers are linked to inhalation burns.

    • Cushing ulcers are caused by brain injury and increased intracranial pressure.

    • Marjolin ulcers form from external burns, often squamous cell carcinoma of skin.

    • Mortorrell ulcers are associated with hypertension.

    • Most common location of a duodenal ulcer is the first part of the duodenum.

    • Perforation of the posterior wall of a duodenal ulcer can lead to bleeding from the gastroduodenal artery.

    • Gastric ulcers are most frequently located near the angular incisure on the lesser curvature.

    • Perforation of the lesser curvature can cause bleeding from the left gastric artery.

    • Perforation of the posterior wall of the stomach can cause bleeding from the splenic artery.

    • Micturition is initiated by stretch receptors in the bladder wall.

    • Micturition center (stimulatory): Pons

    • Micturition center (inhibitory): Midbrain

    • Processing of micturition: Cerebral cortex

    • Micturition reflex/integration: Sacral segments of spinal cord

    • Voluntary inhibition: Activation of pudendal nerve

    • Pain and filling sensations of bladder are carried by -Sympathetic(Guyton)

    • Defecation is initiated by - Mass Movement

    • Defecation is carried out by – Sacral Parasympathetic

    • Defecation Reflex–Recto Anal

    • Defecation Reflex in Baby– Gastrocolic

    • Bulbar Urethra Rupture(Below Urogenital Diaphragm) urine into– Superficial Perineal Pouch

    • Membranous Urethra Rupture(At Urogenital Diaphragm) urine into – Deep Perineal Pouch

    • Prostatic Urethra Rupture(Above Urogenital Diaphragm) urine into –Retropubic Space

    • Penile Urethra Rupture Urine into –Scrotum> Anterior Abdominal Wall

    • Injury above Sacral Segment Cause –Spastic Bladder-Automatic Bladder-Urge Incontinence

    • AIDS/HIV

    • Initial Test- ELISA

    • Confirmatory Test-Western Blot

    • Children Confirmatory Test- PCR

    • Hall mark of HIV- Proliferation of Virus in T Cell

    • Hall mark of AIDS- Progressive Immunodeficiency(Decrease CD4 Count)

    • Most common opportunistic infection in-HIV is TB

    • Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS Pneumocystic Jiroveci

    • Follow up is done by-CD4 Count

    • Progression from asymptomatic to Symptomatic stage can be assessed by PCR

    • GIT

    • Pancreatic Secretion Increased by CCK(First Aid)

    • HCO3 secretion Increased by Secretin

    • CCK increase Calcium by IP3 mechanism

    • Gastric Motility Increased by Gastrin

    • Gastric Motility Decreased by Somatostatin

    • Increase Salivary Flow– Cranial Nerve 7 > 9

    • Increase Small intestine Motility and Decrease Gastric motility – CCK

    • Fundus removed=↓Gastric compliance>>↓Receptive relaxation

    • Antrum removed=↓ Gastric acid production

    • Pylorus removed Solids pass easily

    • Intrinsic factor released by Fundus of Stomach

    • Colostomy Result in Secretory Diarrhea

    • Jejunostomy Result in Osmotic Diarrhea

    • illeostomy Result in Osmotic Diarrhea

    • Jejunostomy+illeostomy Result in Secretory+Osmotic Diarrhea

    • Iron and Calcium absorption – Duodenum

    • Max water + electrolytes absorption – Jejunum

    • Passive(Aldosteron independent) water absorption -Jejunum

    • Absorption of LONG chain FA-Jejunum

    • Vitamin B12 and Bile Salts Absorption -Terminal ileum

    • For B12 Absorption Needed – Intrinsic Factor

    • For B12 Transport Needed – Transcobalamin 2

    • Absorption of SHORT chain FA -COLON

    • Active(Aldosteron Dependent) water absorption -Colon

    • Max Fluid loss -Colon

    Further information on the provided documents

    • Information detailing parts of the gut, tissue, and the various locations of bodily systems and organs are included. Also, the different types of glands and cells are described.

    • Information regarding the various tests and methods of diagnosis and treatment are included.

    • There are also elements that provide insight into the effects of various factors or conditions on the human body, including the physiological mechanisms behind various conditions.

    • Information related to various diseases are also included.

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