Pulmonary Disorders 2
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Questions and Answers

Which intervention focuses on addressing the underlying cause of a pulmonary embolism (PE)?

  • Administering oxygen
  • Performing an embolectomy
  • Initiating heparin IV drip (correct)
  • Inserting an umbrella filter
  • Which of the following is least likely to assist in the prevention of a pulmonary embolism (PE) in a high-risk patient?

  • Applying compression hose with pneumatic compression
  • Administering low-dose heparin
  • Encouraging prolonged bedrest (correct)
  • Implementing active range of motion (AROM) exercises
  • What pathological process occurs in the alveolar air spaces during the pathogenesis of pneumonia (PNA)?

  • Thinning of the alveolar walls
  • Filling with exudative fluid (correct)
  • Drying and cracking of alveolar surfaces
  • Calcification of the alveolar septa
  • Which of the following is least likely to be considered an etiology of pneumonia (PNA)?

    <p>Chronic metabolic alkalosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with pneumonia is prescribed an antibiotic based on culture sensitivities. What additional treatment would least likely be recommended?

    <p>Codeine-containing medications (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the defining characteristic of pulmonary hypertension (HTN) concerning pulmonary artery systolic pressure?

    <p>Sustained pulmonary artery systolic pressure &gt; 25 mm Hg (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the mechanisms below can lead to secondary pulmonary hypertension?

    <p>Increased left atrial pressures (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary pathological change observed within the pulmonary arteries of patients with pulmonary hypertension?

    <p>Thickening of the walls of small pulmonary vessels (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following clinical manifestations is NOT typically associated with pulmonary hypertension?

    <p>Increased appetite (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which therapeutic intervention isn't typically used in the management of pulmonary hypertension?

    <p>Beta-blockers (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    According to Virchow's triad, which of the following is NOT a primary factor contributing to thromboemboli formation leading to pulmonary embolism (PE)?

    <p>Hypocoagulability (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT typically considered a significant risk factor for pulmonary embolism (PE)?

    <p>Regular exercise (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which clinical manifestation of pulmonary embolism is MOST directly related to the physical blockage of pulmonary vasculature?

    <p>Dyspnea (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT typically associated with an increased risk of developing tuberculosis (TB)?

    <p>Living in a rural environment with low population density (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Reactivation of tuberculosis is associated with which of the following conditions?

    <p>HIV infection (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the pathogenesis of tuberculosis after initial exposure?

    <p>The mycobacteria enter the lungs, are ingested by macrophages, multiply, and disseminate through the body. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following clinical manifestations is LEAST likely to be associated with active tuberculosis?

    <p>Sudden weight gain (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic test is considered the gold standard for confirming active tuberculosis?

    <p>Sputum culture (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The primary goal of anti-tuberculosis medication therapy is to:

    <p>Prevent transmission and achieve bacteriologic cure. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a major challenge in the treatment of mycobacterial infections like tuberculosis?

    <p>Drug toxicity and the emergence of drug-resistant mycobacteria (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about the global epidemiology of tuberculosis is most accurate?

    <p>TB disproportionately affects developing countries and is exacerbated by the AIDS epidemic. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mode of transmission for tuberculosis?

    <p>Inhalation of infected, aerosolized droplets (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient is diagnosed with multidrug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR TB). According to the information, this means the patient's infection is resistant to at least:

    <p>Both isoniazid and rifampin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following indicates a positive reaction to the tuberculin skin test (TST)?

    <p>A region of induration (hardness) around the injection site 48 to 72 hours after injection. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it essential to rule out active tuberculosis (TB) before treating latent TB?

    <p>Treating active TB with drugs prescribed for latent TB promotes the emergence of drug-resistant bacteria. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary concern associated with long-term isoniazid use for latent tuberculosis?

    <p>Potential for liver damage (hepatotoxicity). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an advantage of using isoniazid and rifapentine combination therapy for latent TB compared to isoniazid alone?

    <p>Shorter treatment duration. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common adverse effect associated with rifampin?

    <p>Discoloration of body fluids. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key mechanism by which rifampin can interact with other drugs?

    <p>It induces cytochrome P450 enzymes, leading to increased metabolism of other drugs. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient taking rifampin is also on oral contraceptives. What potential interaction should the patient be warned about?

    <p>Decreased efficacy of the oral contraceptives. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of action of isoniazid in treating tuberculosis?

    <p>Inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary rationale for using low-dose heparin or low-molecular-weight heparins in pulmonary embolism (PE) prevention?

    <p>To inhibit the formation of new blood clots in individuals at risk. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    An elderly patient is admitted with suspected aspiration pneumonia. Besides antibiotic therapy, which intervention is MOST crucial, considering the patient's age and potential comorbidities?

    <p>Careful monitoring of swallowing function and implementation of aspiration precautions. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the pathogenesis of pneumonia (PNA), what is the significance of alveolar air spaces filling with exudative fluid?

    <p>It leads to consolidation, impairing gas exchange and causing hypoxemia. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient presents with cough, purulent sputum, dyspnea, and fever. Auscultation reveals crackles. Symptoms worsen despite initial antibiotics. What is the MOST important next step?

    <p>Obtain a sputum culture and sensitivity to guide antibiotic therapy. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the underlying reason that active range of motion (AROM) exercises are recommended for pulmonary embolism (PE) prevention?

    <p>To improve venous return from the lower extremities and prevent venous stasis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In pulmonary hypertension, what is the significance of the formation of plexiform lesions within the pulmonary arteries?

    <p>They contribute to increased vascular resistance, exacerbating pulmonary hypertension by impeding blood flow. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient presents with exercise intolerance, syncope, and increasing dyspnea. Which of the following underlying mechanisms is MOST likely contributing to these symptoms in the context of pulmonary hypertension?

    <p>Impaired right ventricular function, leading to reduced cardiac output and systemic oxygen delivery. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following factors differentiates primary pulmonary hypertension from secondary pulmonary hypertension?

    <p>Absence of an identifiable underlying cause. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of pulmonary embolism (PE), what is the MOST direct consequence of a thrombus lodging in the pulmonary vasculature?

    <p>Obstruction of pulmonary blood flow, leading to ventilation-perfusion mismatch. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with a known history of Factor V Leiden is started on estrogen therapy. Which of Virchow's triad components is MOST directly affected by this combination, increasing their risk for pulmonary embolism?

    <p>Hypercoagulability. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following clinical manifestations is most indicative of a large pulmonary embolism (PE) causing significant hemodynamic compromise?

    <p>Sudden onset of chest pain, tachycardia, and hypotension. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient presenting with syncope is diagnosed with pulmonary hypertension. How might the syncope be related to this diagnosis?

    <p>Reduced cardiac output causes decreased cerebral perfusion. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which aspect of pulmonary hypertension pathogenesis is MOST directly addressed by vasodilator medications?

    <p>Increased blood pressure. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is pyridoxine (vitamin B6) often co-administered with isoniazid?

    <p>To reduce the risk of peripheral neuropathy induced by isoniazid. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does rifampin induce P450, and what is the clinical significance of this induction?

    <p>Rifampin induces P450 enzymes, leading to decreased serum concentrations of concurrently administered drugs. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the rationale for using a combination of isoniazid and rifapentine for latent TB treatment?

    <p>To shorten the duration of treatment and improve adherence. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these options describes the mechanism by which a positive tuberculin skin test (TST) reaction occurs?

    <p>A cell-mediated immune response by previously sensitized T cells to PPD. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the MOST significant implication of M. tuberculosis resistance during the treatment of active TB?

    <p>It can lead to treatment failure and the development of drug-resistant strains. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the rationale behind using multiple drugs (rather than a single drug) to treat active tuberculosis?

    <p>To combat the development of drug resistance and improve treatment efficacy. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which adverse effect is MOST closely associated with rifampin administration?

    <p>Orange discoloration of bodily fluids (e.g., urine, tears). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does isoniazid exert its bactericidal effect on M. tuberculosis?

    <p>By inhibiting the synthesis of mycolic acids, essential components of the mycobacterial cell wall. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor least affects the likelihood of progression from latent tuberculosis infection (LTBI) to active disease?

    <p>Recent immigration from a region with high TB prevalence. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient presents with a chronic cough and apical crackles. Which finding would least support a diagnosis of active tuberculosis?

    <p>Pulmonary function tests showing restrictive lung disease. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement most accurately differentiates multidrug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB) from extensively drug-resistant tuberculosis (XDR-TB)?

    <p>MDR-TB is resistant to isoniazid and rifampin, while XDR-TB is resistant to isoniazid, rifampin, all fluoroquinolones, and at least one injectable second-line drug. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most significant implication of nonadherence to anti-tuberculosis medications?

    <p>Promotion of drug-resistant mycobacteria. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these factors is least likely to contribute to the global rise in tuberculosis cases?

    <p>Improved sanitation and hygiene practices in developing countries. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with latent tuberculosis is prescribed isoniazid. What other intervention would least likely be recommended?

    <p>Prescription of a broad-spectrum antibiotic to prevent secondary infections. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Following the inhalation of aerosolized Mycobacterium tuberculosis, what is the initial cellular event in a person with a competent immune system?

    <p>Ingestion and processing of the mycobacteria by alveolar macrophages. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which population group would least benefit from targeted tuberculosis testing, assuming limited resources?

    <p>Healthy adults with no known risk factors. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why are DNA or RNA amplification techniques most useful in TB diagnosis?

    <p>To rapidly identify <em>Mycobacterium tuberculosis</em> in sputum samples. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient is suspected of tuberculosis. Which finding is most indicative of TB?

    <p>Granulomas on lung biopsy. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Flashcards

    Pulmonary Hypertension

    Sustained pulmonary artery systolic pressure > 25 mm Hg.

    Idiopathic Pulmonary Hypertension

    Primary form of pulmonary hypertension; rapid progression, poor prognosis.

    Secondary Pulmonary Hypertension

    Pulmonary hypertension due to diseases causing increased blood flow or resistance.

    Clinical Manifestations of Pulmonary HTN

    Symptoms include exercise intolerance, syncope, and increasing dyspnea.

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    Pulmonary Embolism (PE)

    Blockage in pulmonary arteries due to a thrombus.

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    Virchow’s Triad

    Three factors that increase the risk of thromboemboli: venous stasis, intimal injury, hypercoagulability.

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    Clinical Manifestations of PE

    Symptoms include restlessness, dyspnea, tachycardia, and hemoptysis based on thrombus size.

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    Treatment for Pulmonary HTN

    Management includes treating underlying causes, vasodilators, and possibly transplants.

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    PE Prevention

    Measures taken to prevent pulmonary embolism, including maintaining mobility and using medication.

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    PNA Classifications

    Types of pneumonia categorized by the setting of acquisition: community or hospital, and by causative agents: viral, bacterial, atypical.

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    PNA Risk Factors

    Conditions that increase the likelihood of developing pneumonia, including age and health status.

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    PNA Pathogenesis

    The process by which pathogens enter the lungs and trigger an inflammatory response, leading to fluid accumulation in alveoli.

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    PNA Clinical Manifestations

    Symptoms of pneumonia that vary based on disease severity and patient age, including cough and fever.

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    Tuberculin Skin Test

    A test involving injection of PPD to indicate TB exposure.

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    Positive TST Reaction

    Indicated by induration at the injection site after 48-72 hours.

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    Isoniazid Treatment Duration

    Standard treatment for latent TB, taken daily for 9 months.

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    Risks of Isoniazid

    Can cause liver damage and peripheral neuropathy.

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    Isoniazid Plus Rifapentine

    Effective combination therapy for latent TB, taken weekly for 3 months.

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    First-line Antituberculosis Drugs

    Includes Isoniazid, Rifampin, Rifapentine, and others.

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    Rifampin Adverse Effects

    Hepatotoxicity, body fluid discoloration, GI disturbances.

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    Pyrazinamide

    Bactericidal drug used in tuberculosis treatment.

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    Risk Factors for TB

    Conditions that increase the likelihood of tuberculosis infection.

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    Primary TB

    Initial tuberculosis infection that may lie dormant.

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    Reactivating TB

    Secondary infection occurring years after primary TB due to impaired immunity.

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    TB Pathogenesis

    Process by which Mycobacteria invade and multiply in lung tissue.

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    TB Diagnosis Methods

    Techniques for confirming tuberculosis infection, including sputum tests.

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    Anti-TB Medications

    Medications used to treat active tuberculosis over 9-12 months.

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    Multidrug-resistant TB

    Strain of TB resistant to isoniazid and rifampin.

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    Latent Tuberculosis (LTB)

    A state where TB bacteria are present but inactive and not contagious.

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    Duration of TB Treatment

    Minimum 6 months for drug-sensitive TB; can be up to 24 months for resistant cases.

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    PE Treatment

    Treatments for pulmonary embolism include heparin IV, thrombolytics, and embolectomy.

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    PNA Treatment

    Treatment includes cough management, antibiotics, and increasing fluid intake.

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    Pulmonary Artery Systolic Pressure

    Pressure in the pulmonary artery; > 25 mm Hg indicates pulmonary HTN.

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    Etiologies for Secondary HTN

    Conditions causing increased blood flow, resistance, or left atrial pressure leading to pulmonary HTN.

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    Plexiform Lesions

    Fibrotic formations in pulmonary artery walls that impede blood flow in pulmonary HTN.

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    Cor Pulmonale

    Right heart failure due to pulmonary HTN, leading to increased workload on the heart.

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    Symptoms of PE

    Clinical manifestations include dyspnea, tachycardia, and chest pain on inspiration.

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    PE Treatment Approaches

    Management includes anticoagulants, thrombolytics, and sometimes surgery.

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    Hypercoagulability Factors

    Conditions like genetics or cancer treatments that increase blood clotting risk.

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    QuantiFERON-TB Gold (QFT-G)

    A blood test used to detect latent tuberculosis infection.

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    Intradermal injection

    Method of administering the Tuberculin Skin Test using PPD.

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    Induration

    Area of hardness indicating a positive TB skin test response.

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    Isoniazid

    Primary drug for treating latent TB, requires long-term use.

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    Isoniazid + Rifapentine

    Combined therapy for latent TB, taken weekly for 3 months.

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    Rifampin

    Broad-spectrum antibiotic used in TB treatment.

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    Hepatotoxicity

    Risk of liver damage associated with certain TB medications.

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    Bactericidal drugs

    Medications that kill bacteria, used in TB treatment.

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    TB Clinical Manifestations

    Symptoms of TB include low-grade fever, chronic cough, night sweats, and weight loss.

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    TB Diagnosis Techniques

    Methods to confirm TB include sputum culture, chest x-ray, and TB skin test.

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    Active TB Treatment Duration

    Treatment for active TB generally lasts 9-12 months with anti-TB medications.

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    Latent Tuberculosis (LTB) Risk

    5-10% of individuals with latent TB may develop active TB without treatment.

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    Reactivating TB Causes

    Reactivation can occur years later due to an impaired immune system, including conditions like HIV.

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    TB Drug Resistance Types

    Multidrug-resistant TB is resistant to isoniazid and rifampin; extensively drug-resistant TB further resists fluoroquinolones and injectable drugs.

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    Initial TB Infection

    Primary TB is transmitted through inhalation of infected aerosolized sputum, often lying dormant.

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    Adherence Issues

    Nonadherence to TB medication regimens is a major cause of treatment failure.

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    Study Notes

    Pulmonary Disorders-2

    • Altered Pulmonary Vasculature
      • Pulmonary hypertension (HTN)
      • Pulmonary embolism (PE)

    Pulmonary Hypertension (HTN)

    • Normally, pulmonary circulation is high flow and low pressure
    • Pulmonary HTN: sustained pulmonary artery systolic pressure > 25 mm Hg

    Pulmonary Hypertension (HTN): Etiologies

    • Idiopathic:
      • Female predominance (F > M)
      • Rapidly progressive
      • Poor prognosis, treatment is ineffective
    • Secondary:
      • Increased pulmonary blood flow
      • Increased resistance to blood flow
      • Increased left atrial pressures

    Pulmonary Hypertension (HTN): Pathogenesis

    • Pulmonary artery systolic pressure >25 mm Hg
    • Pulmonary vessel wall thickening
    • Formation of plexiform structures that impede blood flow
    • Internal layer of pulmonary artery wall becomes fibrotic

    Pulmonary Hypertension (HTN): Clinical Manifestations

    • Exercise intolerance ⇒ fatigue
    • Syncope
    • Hemoptysis
    • Chest pain on exertion
    • Increasing dyspnea
    • Cor pulmonale
    • Hoarse voice

    Pulmonary Hypertension (HTN): Treatment

    • Treat underlying cause
    • Supplemental oxygen
    • Vasodilators
    • Diuretics
    • Prostacyclin
    • Advanced cases: lung or heart-lung transplant
    • Left-to-right shunts (surgery)

    Pulmonary Embolism (PE): Etiology

    • Virchow's triad:
      • Venous stasis/sluggish blood flow
      • Intimal injury
      • Hypercoagulability
    • Thromboemboli formation → PE

    Pulmonary Embolism (PE): Risk Factors

    • Immobility
    • Smoking
    • Trauma
    • Diabetes (comorbidity)
    • ↑ cholesterol (hyperlipidemia)
    • Pregnancy
    • Cancer treatments
    • Heart failure
    • Estrogen use
    • Genetic factors
    • Factor V Leiden

    Pulmonary Embolism (PE): Pathogenesis

    • Direct trauma
    • Exercise
    • Muscle action
    • Changes in blood flow
    • Dislodged thrombus
    • Stuck in pulmonary vasculature → PE

    Pulmonary Embolism (PE): Clinical Manifestations

    • Depends on size of thrombus
    • Restlessness
    • Apprehension
    • Anxiety
    • Dyspnea
    • Tachycardia
    • Tachypnea
    • Chest pain (on inspiration)
    • Hemoptysis

    Pulmonary Embolism (PE): Treatment Implications

    • Treat underlying problems
    • Heparin IV drip
    • Thrombolytics
    • Supplemental oxygen
    • Bedrest
    • Umbrella filter
    • Embolectomy
    • Prevention

    Pulmonary Embolism (PE): Prevention

    • Avoid prolonged bedrest
    • Active range of motion (AROM)
    • Low-dose heparin or low-molecular weight heparin
    • Compression hose w/pneumatic compression

    Restrictive: Infection & Inflammation

    • Pneumonia
    • Pulmonary Tuberculosis

    PNA: Classifications

    • Community vs. hospital acquired
    • Viral
    • Bacterial
    • Atypical

    PNA: Risk Factors

    • Elderly
    • Diminished gag reflex
    • ↑ risk for aspiration
    • Seriously ill
    • Hospitalized patients
    • Hypoxic patients
    • Immune-compromised patients

    PNA: Etiologies

    • Aspiration of oropharyngeal secretions (normal bacterial flora or gastric contents—25% to 35%)
    • Inhalation of pathogens
    • Contamination from the systemic circulation

    PNA: Pathogenesis

    • Pathogen enters lungs & multiplies
    • Inflammation process initiates
    • Inflammatory cells invade alveolar septa
    • Alveolar air spaces fill with exudative fluid
    • Fluid-filled air spaces consolidate

    PNA: Clinical Manifestations

    • Severity of disease and patient age cause variations in symptoms
    • Crackles (rales), and bronchial breath sounds over affected lung tissue
    • Fever/chills
    • Cough
    • Purulent sputum
    • Dyspnea, Shortness of breath (SOB)

    PNA: Treatment Implications

    • Cough management
      • Codeine-containing medications
      • Suppressants/expectorants
      • Increased fluid intake
    • Avoid smoking
    • Use a vaporizer
    • Antibiotic therapy (based on sensitivity of culture)

    Mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB)

    • Risk Factors
      • Prior infection (90%)
      • Malnourished
      • Immunosuppressed
      • Living in overcrowded conditions
      • Incarcerated
      • Immigrants
      • Elderly

    TB: Classifications

    • Primary:
      • May lie dormant for years/decades
    • Reactivating:
      • Occurs many years after primary infection
      • Impaired immune systems cause reactivation (HIV, corticosteroid use, silicosis, and diabetes mellitus have been linked to reactivation.)

    TB: Pathogenesis

    • Mycobacteria enter lung tissue
    • Ingested/processed by alveolar macrophages
    • Mycobacteria multiply
    • Disseminates through body via blood & lymph
    • Forms Ghon tubercle or complex

    TB: Clinical Manifestations

    • Low-grade fever
    • Chronic cough
    • Later productive cough with purulent sputum
    • Night sweats
    • Fatigue/malaise
    • Weight loss/anorexia/malnourished
    • Apical crackles
    • Bronchial breath sounds over consolidation

    TB: Diagnosis

    • Sputum culture (1-3 weeks for results)
      • 3 consecutive, morning specimens
    • DNA or RNA amplification techniques
    • Pulmonary function tests
    • Chest x-ray (nodules with infiltrates)
    • TB skin test (Mantoux/PPD test)
    • Current or past infection?

    TB: Treatment Implications

    • Anti-TB medications
    • 9-12 month therapy for active disease
    • Shorter therapy with no active disease
    • Add agents when regimen fails
    • Nonadherence is a major cause of treatment failure

    Antituberculosis Drugs

    • First-line drugs: Isoniazid, rifampin, rifapentine, rifabutin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol
    • Second-line drugs: Levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, kanamycin, amikacin, capreomycin, streptomycin

    Isoniazid

    • Primary treatment and prevention agents of TB
    • Bactericidal
    • Resistance
    • Used to treat active and latent TB
    • Adverse effects
      • Peripheral neuropathy (vitamin B6 deficiency)
      • Hepatotoxicity
      • Optic neuritis
      • Anemia

    Rifampin

    • Broad-spectrum antibiotic
    • Therapeutic use
      • Tuberculosis
      • Leprosy
      • Meningococcus carriers
    • Adverse effects:
      • Hepatotoxic/hepatitis
      • Discoloration of body fluid
      • GI disturbances
    • Drug interactions
      • Induces P450; can accelerate drug metabolism
      • Oral contraceptives
      • Warfarin
      • Drugs for HIV infection

    Pyrazinamide

    • Bactericidal to M. tuberculosis
    • Use in Tuberculosis
    • Adverse effects
      • Hepatotoxicity
      • Nongouty pararthralgias
      • Hyperuricemia
      • GI disturbances
      • Photosensitivity

    Ethambutol

    • Active against mycobacteria (nearly all strains of M. tuberculosis are sensitive)
    • Active against TB bacilli resistant to isoniazid and rifampin
    • Use: initial treatment of TB
    • Treatment of patients who have received therapy previously
    • Always used as part of a multidrug regimen
    • Adverse effects
      • Optic neuritis
      • Others

    Second-Line Anti-TB Drugs

    • Fluoroquinolones (Levo/Moxi) for MDR organisms
    • Aminoglycosides (Amikacin)

    Treatment of Mycobacterial Infections

    • Slow-growing microbes
    • Requires prolonged treatment
    • Drug toxicity and poor adherence promoted
    • Emergence of drug-resistant mycobacteria

    Tuberculosis (TB)

    • Global epidemic
    • Approximately 2 billion infected worldwide
    • Kills approximately 1.3 million people annually
    • New cases in the US are declining
    • Cases outside the U.S. are increasing; 95% in developing countries
    • Increase in cases due to AIDS and emerging multi-drug resistant mycobacteria
    • Primary infection
      • Transmitted person-to-person by inhaling infected, aerosolized sputum
      • Cough, sneezing
      • Initial infection of the lungs
      • Immunity develops within weeks
      • 90% with normal immune systems never develop clinical or radiological evidence of TB

    TB: Diagnosis & Treatment

    • Indications for testing
    • Definitive diagnosis
    • Chest x-ray
    • Sputum culture
    • Evaluation of drug sensitivity
    • Treatment regimens
    • Duration of treatment
    • Promotion of adherence
    • Evaluation of treatment

    Multidrug-Resistant TB (MDR TB)

    • Resistant to isoniazid and rifampin
    • Extensively drug-resistant TB (XDR TB)
    • Resistant to
      • Isoniazid (INH)
      • Rifampin
      • All fluoroquinolones
      • At least one of the injectable second-line drugs

    Treatment Regimens for Tuberculosis

    • Drug-sensitive tuberculosis
    • Isoniazid- or rifampin-resistant tuberculosis
    • MDR TB and XDR TB
    • Patients with TB and HIV infection
    • Duration of treatment
      • Drug-sensitive TB: minimum 6 months
      • MDR TB or HIV/AIDS: up to 24 months

    Latent Tuberculosis (LTB)

    • 9 million to 14 million in the U.S. have latent TB.
    • 5% to 10% will develop active TB without treatment.
    • Targeted TB Testing: who should be tested
    • Testing for latent TB
      • TB skin test (TST)
      • QuantiFERON-TB Gold (QFT-G) blood test

    Tuberculin Skin Test (TST)

    • Intradermal injection of purified protein derivative (PPD)
    • If the patient had exposure and intact immune system, a local immune response is elicited.
    • Read 48-72 hours after injection
    • Positive reaction: induration (hardness) around the injection site

    Treatment of Latent Tuberculosis

    • Isoniazid alone (daily for 9 months)
    • Isoniazid + rifapentine (weekly for 3 months)
    • Rule out active TB first; if active TB, treatment promotes emergence of drug-resistant bacilli.

    Isoniazid + Rifampine

    • Taken weekly for 3 months.
    • Effective as isoniazid alone taken once a day for 9 months (shown in the PREVENT TB trial)

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