Podcast
Questions and Answers
Which intervention focuses on addressing the underlying cause of a pulmonary embolism (PE)?
Which intervention focuses on addressing the underlying cause of a pulmonary embolism (PE)?
Which of the following is least likely to assist in the prevention of a pulmonary embolism (PE) in a high-risk patient?
Which of the following is least likely to assist in the prevention of a pulmonary embolism (PE) in a high-risk patient?
What pathological process occurs in the alveolar air spaces during the pathogenesis of pneumonia (PNA)?
What pathological process occurs in the alveolar air spaces during the pathogenesis of pneumonia (PNA)?
Which of the following is least likely to be considered an etiology of pneumonia (PNA)?
Which of the following is least likely to be considered an etiology of pneumonia (PNA)?
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A patient with pneumonia is prescribed an antibiotic based on culture sensitivities. What additional treatment would least likely be recommended?
A patient with pneumonia is prescribed an antibiotic based on culture sensitivities. What additional treatment would least likely be recommended?
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What is the defining characteristic of pulmonary hypertension (HTN) concerning pulmonary artery systolic pressure?
What is the defining characteristic of pulmonary hypertension (HTN) concerning pulmonary artery systolic pressure?
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Which of the mechanisms below can lead to secondary pulmonary hypertension?
Which of the mechanisms below can lead to secondary pulmonary hypertension?
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What is the primary pathological change observed within the pulmonary arteries of patients with pulmonary hypertension?
What is the primary pathological change observed within the pulmonary arteries of patients with pulmonary hypertension?
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Which of the following clinical manifestations is NOT typically associated with pulmonary hypertension?
Which of the following clinical manifestations is NOT typically associated with pulmonary hypertension?
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Which therapeutic intervention isn't typically used in the management of pulmonary hypertension?
Which therapeutic intervention isn't typically used in the management of pulmonary hypertension?
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According to Virchow's triad, which of the following is NOT a primary factor contributing to thromboemboli formation leading to pulmonary embolism (PE)?
According to Virchow's triad, which of the following is NOT a primary factor contributing to thromboemboli formation leading to pulmonary embolism (PE)?
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Which of the following is NOT typically considered a significant risk factor for pulmonary embolism (PE)?
Which of the following is NOT typically considered a significant risk factor for pulmonary embolism (PE)?
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Which clinical manifestation of pulmonary embolism is MOST directly related to the physical blockage of pulmonary vasculature?
Which clinical manifestation of pulmonary embolism is MOST directly related to the physical blockage of pulmonary vasculature?
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Which of the following is NOT typically associated with an increased risk of developing tuberculosis (TB)?
Which of the following is NOT typically associated with an increased risk of developing tuberculosis (TB)?
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Reactivation of tuberculosis is associated with which of the following conditions?
Reactivation of tuberculosis is associated with which of the following conditions?
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Which of the following best describes the pathogenesis of tuberculosis after initial exposure?
Which of the following best describes the pathogenesis of tuberculosis after initial exposure?
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Which of the following clinical manifestations is LEAST likely to be associated with active tuberculosis?
Which of the following clinical manifestations is LEAST likely to be associated with active tuberculosis?
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Which diagnostic test is considered the gold standard for confirming active tuberculosis?
Which diagnostic test is considered the gold standard for confirming active tuberculosis?
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The primary goal of anti-tuberculosis medication therapy is to:
The primary goal of anti-tuberculosis medication therapy is to:
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What is a major challenge in the treatment of mycobacterial infections like tuberculosis?
What is a major challenge in the treatment of mycobacterial infections like tuberculosis?
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Which of the following statements about the global epidemiology of tuberculosis is most accurate?
Which of the following statements about the global epidemiology of tuberculosis is most accurate?
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What is the primary mode of transmission for tuberculosis?
What is the primary mode of transmission for tuberculosis?
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A patient is diagnosed with multidrug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR TB). According to the information, this means the patient's infection is resistant to at least:
A patient is diagnosed with multidrug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR TB). According to the information, this means the patient's infection is resistant to at least:
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Which of the following indicates a positive reaction to the tuberculin skin test (TST)?
Which of the following indicates a positive reaction to the tuberculin skin test (TST)?
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Why is it essential to rule out active tuberculosis (TB) before treating latent TB?
Why is it essential to rule out active tuberculosis (TB) before treating latent TB?
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What is a primary concern associated with long-term isoniazid use for latent tuberculosis?
What is a primary concern associated with long-term isoniazid use for latent tuberculosis?
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Which of the following is an advantage of using isoniazid and rifapentine combination therapy for latent TB compared to isoniazid alone?
Which of the following is an advantage of using isoniazid and rifapentine combination therapy for latent TB compared to isoniazid alone?
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Which of the following is a common adverse effect associated with rifampin?
Which of the following is a common adverse effect associated with rifampin?
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What is a key mechanism by which rifampin can interact with other drugs?
What is a key mechanism by which rifampin can interact with other drugs?
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A patient taking rifampin is also on oral contraceptives. What potential interaction should the patient be warned about?
A patient taking rifampin is also on oral contraceptives. What potential interaction should the patient be warned about?
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What is the primary mechanism of action of isoniazid in treating tuberculosis?
What is the primary mechanism of action of isoniazid in treating tuberculosis?
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What is the primary rationale for using low-dose heparin or low-molecular-weight heparins in pulmonary embolism (PE) prevention?
What is the primary rationale for using low-dose heparin or low-molecular-weight heparins in pulmonary embolism (PE) prevention?
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An elderly patient is admitted with suspected aspiration pneumonia. Besides antibiotic therapy, which intervention is MOST crucial, considering the patient's age and potential comorbidities?
An elderly patient is admitted with suspected aspiration pneumonia. Besides antibiotic therapy, which intervention is MOST crucial, considering the patient's age and potential comorbidities?
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In the pathogenesis of pneumonia (PNA), what is the significance of alveolar air spaces filling with exudative fluid?
In the pathogenesis of pneumonia (PNA), what is the significance of alveolar air spaces filling with exudative fluid?
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A patient presents with cough, purulent sputum, dyspnea, and fever. Auscultation reveals crackles. Symptoms worsen despite initial antibiotics. What is the MOST important next step?
A patient presents with cough, purulent sputum, dyspnea, and fever. Auscultation reveals crackles. Symptoms worsen despite initial antibiotics. What is the MOST important next step?
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What is the underlying reason that active range of motion (AROM) exercises are recommended for pulmonary embolism (PE) prevention?
What is the underlying reason that active range of motion (AROM) exercises are recommended for pulmonary embolism (PE) prevention?
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In pulmonary hypertension, what is the significance of the formation of plexiform lesions within the pulmonary arteries?
In pulmonary hypertension, what is the significance of the formation of plexiform lesions within the pulmonary arteries?
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A patient presents with exercise intolerance, syncope, and increasing dyspnea. Which of the following underlying mechanisms is MOST likely contributing to these symptoms in the context of pulmonary hypertension?
A patient presents with exercise intolerance, syncope, and increasing dyspnea. Which of the following underlying mechanisms is MOST likely contributing to these symptoms in the context of pulmonary hypertension?
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Which of the following factors differentiates primary pulmonary hypertension from secondary pulmonary hypertension?
Which of the following factors differentiates primary pulmonary hypertension from secondary pulmonary hypertension?
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In the context of pulmonary embolism (PE), what is the MOST direct consequence of a thrombus lodging in the pulmonary vasculature?
In the context of pulmonary embolism (PE), what is the MOST direct consequence of a thrombus lodging in the pulmonary vasculature?
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A patient with a known history of Factor V Leiden is started on estrogen therapy. Which of Virchow's triad components is MOST directly affected by this combination, increasing their risk for pulmonary embolism?
A patient with a known history of Factor V Leiden is started on estrogen therapy. Which of Virchow's triad components is MOST directly affected by this combination, increasing their risk for pulmonary embolism?
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Which of the following clinical manifestations is most indicative of a large pulmonary embolism (PE) causing significant hemodynamic compromise?
Which of the following clinical manifestations is most indicative of a large pulmonary embolism (PE) causing significant hemodynamic compromise?
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A patient presenting with syncope is diagnosed with pulmonary hypertension. How might the syncope be related to this diagnosis?
A patient presenting with syncope is diagnosed with pulmonary hypertension. How might the syncope be related to this diagnosis?
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Which aspect of pulmonary hypertension pathogenesis is MOST directly addressed by vasodilator medications?
Which aspect of pulmonary hypertension pathogenesis is MOST directly addressed by vasodilator medications?
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Why is pyridoxine (vitamin B6) often co-administered with isoniazid?
Why is pyridoxine (vitamin B6) often co-administered with isoniazid?
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How does rifampin induce P450, and what is the clinical significance of this induction?
How does rifampin induce P450, and what is the clinical significance of this induction?
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What is the rationale for using a combination of isoniazid and rifapentine for latent TB treatment?
What is the rationale for using a combination of isoniazid and rifapentine for latent TB treatment?
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Which of these options describes the mechanism by which a positive tuberculin skin test (TST) reaction occurs?
Which of these options describes the mechanism by which a positive tuberculin skin test (TST) reaction occurs?
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What is the MOST significant implication of M. tuberculosis resistance during the treatment of active TB?
What is the MOST significant implication of M. tuberculosis resistance during the treatment of active TB?
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What is the rationale behind using multiple drugs (rather than a single drug) to treat active tuberculosis?
What is the rationale behind using multiple drugs (rather than a single drug) to treat active tuberculosis?
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Which adverse effect is MOST closely associated with rifampin administration?
Which adverse effect is MOST closely associated with rifampin administration?
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How does isoniazid exert its bactericidal effect on M. tuberculosis?
How does isoniazid exert its bactericidal effect on M. tuberculosis?
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Which factor least affects the likelihood of progression from latent tuberculosis infection (LTBI) to active disease?
Which factor least affects the likelihood of progression from latent tuberculosis infection (LTBI) to active disease?
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A patient presents with a chronic cough and apical crackles. Which finding would least support a diagnosis of active tuberculosis?
A patient presents with a chronic cough and apical crackles. Which finding would least support a diagnosis of active tuberculosis?
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Which statement most accurately differentiates multidrug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB) from extensively drug-resistant tuberculosis (XDR-TB)?
Which statement most accurately differentiates multidrug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB) from extensively drug-resistant tuberculosis (XDR-TB)?
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What is the most significant implication of nonadherence to anti-tuberculosis medications?
What is the most significant implication of nonadherence to anti-tuberculosis medications?
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Which of these factors is least likely to contribute to the global rise in tuberculosis cases?
Which of these factors is least likely to contribute to the global rise in tuberculosis cases?
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A patient with latent tuberculosis is prescribed isoniazid. What other intervention would least likely be recommended?
A patient with latent tuberculosis is prescribed isoniazid. What other intervention would least likely be recommended?
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Following the inhalation of aerosolized Mycobacterium tuberculosis, what is the initial cellular event in a person with a competent immune system?
Following the inhalation of aerosolized Mycobacterium tuberculosis, what is the initial cellular event in a person with a competent immune system?
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Which population group would least benefit from targeted tuberculosis testing, assuming limited resources?
Which population group would least benefit from targeted tuberculosis testing, assuming limited resources?
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Why are DNA or RNA amplification techniques most useful in TB diagnosis?
Why are DNA or RNA amplification techniques most useful in TB diagnosis?
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A patient is suspected of tuberculosis. Which finding is most indicative of TB?
A patient is suspected of tuberculosis. Which finding is most indicative of TB?
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Flashcards
Pulmonary Hypertension
Pulmonary Hypertension
Sustained pulmonary artery systolic pressure > 25 mm Hg.
Idiopathic Pulmonary Hypertension
Idiopathic Pulmonary Hypertension
Primary form of pulmonary hypertension; rapid progression, poor prognosis.
Secondary Pulmonary Hypertension
Secondary Pulmonary Hypertension
Pulmonary hypertension due to diseases causing increased blood flow or resistance.
Clinical Manifestations of Pulmonary HTN
Clinical Manifestations of Pulmonary HTN
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Pulmonary Embolism (PE)
Pulmonary Embolism (PE)
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Virchow’s Triad
Virchow’s Triad
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Clinical Manifestations of PE
Clinical Manifestations of PE
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Treatment for Pulmonary HTN
Treatment for Pulmonary HTN
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PE Prevention
PE Prevention
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PNA Classifications
PNA Classifications
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PNA Risk Factors
PNA Risk Factors
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PNA Pathogenesis
PNA Pathogenesis
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PNA Clinical Manifestations
PNA Clinical Manifestations
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Tuberculin Skin Test
Tuberculin Skin Test
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Positive TST Reaction
Positive TST Reaction
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Isoniazid Treatment Duration
Isoniazid Treatment Duration
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Risks of Isoniazid
Risks of Isoniazid
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Isoniazid Plus Rifapentine
Isoniazid Plus Rifapentine
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First-line Antituberculosis Drugs
First-line Antituberculosis Drugs
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Rifampin Adverse Effects
Rifampin Adverse Effects
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Pyrazinamide
Pyrazinamide
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Risk Factors for TB
Risk Factors for TB
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Primary TB
Primary TB
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Reactivating TB
Reactivating TB
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TB Pathogenesis
TB Pathogenesis
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TB Diagnosis Methods
TB Diagnosis Methods
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Anti-TB Medications
Anti-TB Medications
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Multidrug-resistant TB
Multidrug-resistant TB
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Latent Tuberculosis (LTB)
Latent Tuberculosis (LTB)
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Duration of TB Treatment
Duration of TB Treatment
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PE Treatment
PE Treatment
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PNA Treatment
PNA Treatment
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Pulmonary Artery Systolic Pressure
Pulmonary Artery Systolic Pressure
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Etiologies for Secondary HTN
Etiologies for Secondary HTN
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Plexiform Lesions
Plexiform Lesions
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Cor Pulmonale
Cor Pulmonale
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Symptoms of PE
Symptoms of PE
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PE Treatment Approaches
PE Treatment Approaches
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Hypercoagulability Factors
Hypercoagulability Factors
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QuantiFERON-TB Gold (QFT-G)
QuantiFERON-TB Gold (QFT-G)
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Intradermal injection
Intradermal injection
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Induration
Induration
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Isoniazid
Isoniazid
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Isoniazid + Rifapentine
Isoniazid + Rifapentine
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Rifampin
Rifampin
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Hepatotoxicity
Hepatotoxicity
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Bactericidal drugs
Bactericidal drugs
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TB Clinical Manifestations
TB Clinical Manifestations
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TB Diagnosis Techniques
TB Diagnosis Techniques
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Active TB Treatment Duration
Active TB Treatment Duration
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Latent Tuberculosis (LTB) Risk
Latent Tuberculosis (LTB) Risk
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Reactivating TB Causes
Reactivating TB Causes
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TB Drug Resistance Types
TB Drug Resistance Types
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Initial TB Infection
Initial TB Infection
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Adherence Issues
Adherence Issues
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Study Notes
Pulmonary Disorders-2
- Altered Pulmonary Vasculature
- Pulmonary hypertension (HTN)
- Pulmonary embolism (PE)
Pulmonary Hypertension (HTN)
- Normally, pulmonary circulation is high flow and low pressure
- Pulmonary HTN: sustained pulmonary artery systolic pressure > 25 mm Hg
Pulmonary Hypertension (HTN): Etiologies
- Idiopathic:
- Female predominance (F > M)
- Rapidly progressive
- Poor prognosis, treatment is ineffective
- Secondary:
- Increased pulmonary blood flow
- Increased resistance to blood flow
- Increased left atrial pressures
Pulmonary Hypertension (HTN): Pathogenesis
- Pulmonary artery systolic pressure >25 mm Hg
- Pulmonary vessel wall thickening
- Formation of plexiform structures that impede blood flow
- Internal layer of pulmonary artery wall becomes fibrotic
Pulmonary Hypertension (HTN): Clinical Manifestations
- Exercise intolerance ⇒ fatigue
- Syncope
- Hemoptysis
- Chest pain on exertion
- Increasing dyspnea
- Cor pulmonale
- Hoarse voice
Pulmonary Hypertension (HTN): Treatment
- Treat underlying cause
- Supplemental oxygen
- Vasodilators
- Diuretics
- Prostacyclin
- Advanced cases: lung or heart-lung transplant
- Left-to-right shunts (surgery)
Pulmonary Embolism (PE): Etiology
- Virchow's triad:
- Venous stasis/sluggish blood flow
- Intimal injury
- Hypercoagulability
- Thromboemboli formation → PE
Pulmonary Embolism (PE): Risk Factors
- Immobility
- Smoking
- Trauma
- Diabetes (comorbidity)
- ↑ cholesterol (hyperlipidemia)
- Pregnancy
- Cancer treatments
- Heart failure
- Estrogen use
- Genetic factors
- Factor V Leiden
Pulmonary Embolism (PE): Pathogenesis
- Direct trauma
- Exercise
- Muscle action
- Changes in blood flow
- Dislodged thrombus
- Stuck in pulmonary vasculature → PE
Pulmonary Embolism (PE): Clinical Manifestations
- Depends on size of thrombus
- Restlessness
- Apprehension
- Anxiety
- Dyspnea
- Tachycardia
- Tachypnea
- Chest pain (on inspiration)
- Hemoptysis
Pulmonary Embolism (PE): Treatment Implications
- Treat underlying problems
- Heparin IV drip
- Thrombolytics
- Supplemental oxygen
- Bedrest
- Umbrella filter
- Embolectomy
- Prevention
Pulmonary Embolism (PE): Prevention
- Avoid prolonged bedrest
- Active range of motion (AROM)
- Low-dose heparin or low-molecular weight heparin
- Compression hose w/pneumatic compression
Restrictive: Infection & Inflammation
- Pneumonia
- Pulmonary Tuberculosis
PNA: Classifications
- Community vs. hospital acquired
- Viral
- Bacterial
- Atypical
PNA: Risk Factors
- Elderly
- Diminished gag reflex
- ↑ risk for aspiration
- Seriously ill
- Hospitalized patients
- Hypoxic patients
- Immune-compromised patients
PNA: Etiologies
- Aspiration of oropharyngeal secretions (normal bacterial flora or gastric contents—25% to 35%)
- Inhalation of pathogens
- Contamination from the systemic circulation
PNA: Pathogenesis
- Pathogen enters lungs & multiplies
- Inflammation process initiates
- Inflammatory cells invade alveolar septa
- Alveolar air spaces fill with exudative fluid
- Fluid-filled air spaces consolidate
PNA: Clinical Manifestations
- Severity of disease and patient age cause variations in symptoms
- Crackles (rales), and bronchial breath sounds over affected lung tissue
- Fever/chills
- Cough
- Purulent sputum
- Dyspnea, Shortness of breath (SOB)
PNA: Treatment Implications
- Cough management
- Codeine-containing medications
- Suppressants/expectorants
- Increased fluid intake
- Avoid smoking
- Use a vaporizer
- Antibiotic therapy (based on sensitivity of culture)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB)
- Risk Factors
- Prior infection (90%)
- Malnourished
- Immunosuppressed
- Living in overcrowded conditions
- Incarcerated
- Immigrants
- Elderly
TB: Classifications
- Primary:
- May lie dormant for years/decades
- Reactivating:
- Occurs many years after primary infection
- Impaired immune systems cause reactivation (HIV, corticosteroid use, silicosis, and diabetes mellitus have been linked to reactivation.)
TB: Pathogenesis
- Mycobacteria enter lung tissue
- Ingested/processed by alveolar macrophages
- Mycobacteria multiply
- Disseminates through body via blood & lymph
- Forms Ghon tubercle or complex
TB: Clinical Manifestations
- Low-grade fever
- Chronic cough
- Later productive cough with purulent sputum
- Night sweats
- Fatigue/malaise
- Weight loss/anorexia/malnourished
- Apical crackles
- Bronchial breath sounds over consolidation
TB: Diagnosis
- Sputum culture (1-3 weeks for results)
- 3 consecutive, morning specimens
- DNA or RNA amplification techniques
- Pulmonary function tests
- Chest x-ray (nodules with infiltrates)
- TB skin test (Mantoux/PPD test)
- Current or past infection?
TB: Treatment Implications
- Anti-TB medications
- 9-12 month therapy for active disease
- Shorter therapy with no active disease
- Add agents when regimen fails
- Nonadherence is a major cause of treatment failure
Antituberculosis Drugs
- First-line drugs: Isoniazid, rifampin, rifapentine, rifabutin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol
- Second-line drugs: Levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, kanamycin, amikacin, capreomycin, streptomycin
Isoniazid
- Primary treatment and prevention agents of TB
- Bactericidal
- Resistance
- Used to treat active and latent TB
- Adverse effects
- Peripheral neuropathy (vitamin B6 deficiency)
- Hepatotoxicity
- Optic neuritis
- Anemia
Rifampin
- Broad-spectrum antibiotic
- Therapeutic use
- Tuberculosis
- Leprosy
- Meningococcus carriers
- Adverse effects:
- Hepatotoxic/hepatitis
- Discoloration of body fluid
- GI disturbances
- Drug interactions
- Induces P450; can accelerate drug metabolism
- Oral contraceptives
- Warfarin
- Drugs for HIV infection
Pyrazinamide
- Bactericidal to M. tuberculosis
- Use in Tuberculosis
- Adverse effects
- Hepatotoxicity
- Nongouty pararthralgias
- Hyperuricemia
- GI disturbances
- Photosensitivity
Ethambutol
- Active against mycobacteria (nearly all strains of M. tuberculosis are sensitive)
- Active against TB bacilli resistant to isoniazid and rifampin
- Use: initial treatment of TB
- Treatment of patients who have received therapy previously
- Always used as part of a multidrug regimen
- Adverse effects
- Optic neuritis
- Others
Second-Line Anti-TB Drugs
- Fluoroquinolones (Levo/Moxi) for MDR organisms
- Aminoglycosides (Amikacin)
Treatment of Mycobacterial Infections
- Slow-growing microbes
- Requires prolonged treatment
- Drug toxicity and poor adherence promoted
- Emergence of drug-resistant mycobacteria
Tuberculosis (TB)
- Global epidemic
- Approximately 2 billion infected worldwide
- Kills approximately 1.3 million people annually
- New cases in the US are declining
- Cases outside the U.S. are increasing; 95% in developing countries
- Increase in cases due to AIDS and emerging multi-drug resistant mycobacteria
- Primary infection
- Transmitted person-to-person by inhaling infected, aerosolized sputum
- Cough, sneezing
- Initial infection of the lungs
- Immunity develops within weeks
- 90% with normal immune systems never develop clinical or radiological evidence of TB
TB: Diagnosis & Treatment
- Indications for testing
- Definitive diagnosis
- Chest x-ray
- Sputum culture
- Evaluation of drug sensitivity
- Treatment regimens
- Duration of treatment
- Promotion of adherence
- Evaluation of treatment
Multidrug-Resistant TB (MDR TB)
- Resistant to isoniazid and rifampin
- Extensively drug-resistant TB (XDR TB)
- Resistant to
- Isoniazid (INH)
- Rifampin
- All fluoroquinolones
- At least one of the injectable second-line drugs
Treatment Regimens for Tuberculosis
- Drug-sensitive tuberculosis
- Isoniazid- or rifampin-resistant tuberculosis
- MDR TB and XDR TB
- Patients with TB and HIV infection
- Duration of treatment
- Drug-sensitive TB: minimum 6 months
- MDR TB or HIV/AIDS: up to 24 months
Latent Tuberculosis (LTB)
- 9 million to 14 million in the U.S. have latent TB.
- 5% to 10% will develop active TB without treatment.
- Targeted TB Testing: who should be tested
- Testing for latent TB
- TB skin test (TST)
- QuantiFERON-TB Gold (QFT-G) blood test
Tuberculin Skin Test (TST)
- Intradermal injection of purified protein derivative (PPD)
- If the patient had exposure and intact immune system, a local immune response is elicited.
- Read 48-72 hours after injection
- Positive reaction: induration (hardness) around the injection site
Treatment of Latent Tuberculosis
- Isoniazid alone (daily for 9 months)
- Isoniazid + rifapentine (weekly for 3 months)
- Rule out active TB first; if active TB, treatment promotes emergence of drug-resistant bacilli.
Isoniazid + Rifampine
- Taken weekly for 3 months.
- Effective as isoniazid alone taken once a day for 9 months (shown in the PREVENT TB trial)
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