Prolonged Pregnancy Management Quiz

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Questions and Answers

What is the range of weeks considered 'full term'?

  • 39.0 to 46 weeks (correct)
  • 39.0 to 40.6 weeks
  • 39.0 to 41.6 weeks
  • 37.0 to 38.6 weeks

What is the most prevalent cause of prolonged pregnancy, as stated in the content?

  • Higher BMI
  • Incorrect dating (correct)
  • Placental sulfatase deficiency
  • Genetic predisposition

Which of these factors is NOT listed as increasing the likelihood of a post-term pregnancy?

  • Age under 35 (correct)
  • First pregnancy
  • Previous post-term pregnancy
  • BMI greater than 30

What is the significance of using the term "post-dates" when discussing pregnancy management, according to the content?

<p>It is considered irrelevant and should be avoided. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of births occur after 42 weeks?

<p>0.25% (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for a decrease in the incidence of post-term births in recent years?

<p>More frequent and earlier ultrasounds (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the range of weeks considered "late term"?

<p>41.0 to 41.6 weeks (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following non-prescribed methods was reported by over 50% of respondents to help induce labor?

<p>Walking (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary concern regarding the use of castor oil for inducing labor?

<p>It has been shown to cause fetal hypoxia. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which method has a 60% success rate in initiating contractions but is not reliable for inducing labor?

<p>Nipple stimulation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Evening Primrose Oil is primarily used for which purpose in labor induction?

<p>Cervical ripening (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common misconception about spicy food when inducing labor?

<p>It has no scientific evidence supporting its efficacy. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be considered critical when determining the timing of labor induction?

<p>Bishop score (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following methods is believed to help stimulate the secretion of oxytocin?

<p>Acupressure (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common adverse effect associated with the use of castor oil?

<p>Nausea (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a recommended method for nipple stimulation to promote contractions?

<p>Pumping for 30 minutes on one side, then 30 on the other (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Bishop score help predict?

<p>Likelihood of successful induction of labor (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the potential effect of using herbal preparations for labor induction?

<p>Serious adverse effects such as fetal hypoxia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of postpartum patients reported using intercourse as a method to induce labor?

<p>22.9% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is shared decision-making important when discussing labor induction?

<p>It incorporates patient desires and concerns. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What method is theorized to have a positive effect on labor induction but requires more evidence?

<p>Acupuncture (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a clinical feature of post-maturity syndrome?

<p>Increased subcutaneous fat (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of fetal surveillance in pregnancies beyond 41 weeks?

<p>To minimize the risk of intrauterine fetal death (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which fetal surveillance method is recommended to include an evaluation of amniotic fluid?

<p>Both B and C (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is membrane sweeping or stripping typically performed?

<p>After 38 weeks gestation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a theoretical risk associated with membrane sweeping?

<p>Premature rupture of membranes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is TRUE about membrane sweeping for GBS positive patients?

<p>It is safe for GBS positive patients and their babies. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a possible outcome of membrane sweeping?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a potential placental issue that can decrease oxygen exchange?

<p>Increased Wharton's jelly (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How often is fetal surveillance typically performed at 41 weeks?

<p>Twice a week (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the content, what is the recommended approach to managing prolonged pregnancy at 41-42 weeks?

<p>There is no clear consensus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the term used to describe a baby born at 39 or 40 weeks with clinical signs of placental dysfunction?

<p>Postmature (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are some of the clinical features of post-maturity syndrome?

<p>Short, thin umbilical cord (B), Decreased body weight (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended approach to managing prolonged pregnancy at 42 weeks?

<p>Induce labor (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a potential complication of prolonged pregnancy?

<p>Gestational diabetes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical range of weeks for a pregnancy considered prolonged?

<p>41-43 weeks (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following scenarios would you recommend for an induction of labor?

<p>A G3p 1011 patient at 41 weeks with a non-reactive NST, a cervix of 370 minus two mid position, and soft. (A), A G4p3 patient at 41 weeks with a history of precipitous labor, who lives 45 minutes away from the hospital, and with a cervix of 490 minus one anterior and soft. (B), A patient with a bishop score of 66 and a partner going to Iraq who may never see this child again. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary outcome assessed in the ARRIVE trial?

<p>The effectiveness of elective induction of labor in reducing the risk of cesarean birth. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a valid indication for cervical ripening with prostaglandins?

<p>A bishop score less than five, intact membranes, and no regular contractions. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is NOT a valid indication for labor induction with Pitocin?

<p>A bishop score less than five. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a method commonly used for cervical ripening in an outpatient setting?

<p>Misoprostol (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the ARRIVE trial suggest elective induction of labor at 39 weeks impact the need for cesarean birth?

<p>It reduces the need for cesarean birth by approximately 18.6%. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What aspect of the ARRIVE trial results requires caution when interpreting the findings?

<p>All of the Above. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term "unfavorable cervix" refer to?

<p>A cervix that is thick, firm, and closed, with a low bishop score. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary concern associated with an induction of labor at 42 weeks?

<p>All of the above. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main concern about using synthetic osmotic dilators for cervical ripening?

<p>They are not as readily available as laminaria. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between cervical ripening and labor induction?

<p>Cervical ripening prepares the cervix for labor, while labor induction initiates labor. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a bishop score?

<p>A scale used to evaluate the readiness of the cervix for labor. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason why some individuals may decline induction of labor?

<p>All of the above. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of a midwife in managing a patient who declines an induction of labor at 42 weeks?

<p>To respect the patient autonomous decision and counsel them on the risks of continuing the pregnancy. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the statement "the uterus and cervix are one contiguous structure, however, the cervical composition is different than that of the uterus"?

<p>It explains why cervical ripening is necessary before induction of labor. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason to avoid elective induction of labor at 39 weeks?

<p>It is not supported by current evidence-based practices. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which the HPA axis influences labor?

<p>The HPA axis releases hormones that trigger the production of prostaglandins and estrogens. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the relationship between placental sulfatase deficiency and pregnancy duration?

<p>Placental sulfatase deficiency leads to prolonged pregnancies due to low estriol levels. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential consequence of placental aging in prolonged pregnancies?

<p>Oligohydramnios (low amniotic fluid). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main reason for recommending delivery by 42 weeks gestation?

<p>To decrease the statistically significant increase in stillbirth rates observed after 41 weeks. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT considered a potential risk associated with post-term pregnancies?

<p>Increased risk of preterm birth. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for the increased risk of meconium aspiration in post-term pregnancies?

<p>Increased fetal distress leading to meconium passage. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of progesterone in regulating labor?

<p>Progesterone inhibits uterine contractions, delaying labor onset. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common physical finding observed in placentas from post-term pregnancies?

<p>Calcium deposits. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the lack of a pituitary gland in anencephalic fetuses affect labor?

<p>It can result in prolonged pregnancies due to disruption of the HPA axis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a potential risk associated with macrosomia?

<p>Increased risk of oligohydramnios. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Based on the available data, what is the recommended approach to managing pregnancies beyond 41 weeks?

<p>Increased fetal monitoring is recommended at 41 weeks, with delivery recommended by 42 weeks. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary factor influencing the timing of labor in pregnancies with placental sulfatase deficiency?

<p>Reduced estriol levels. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential consequence of prolonged pregnancies that is NOT directly related to placental aging?

<p>Fetal macrosomia. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main reason for the increased risk of stillbirth in post-term pregnancies?

<p>Decreased fetal oxygenation due to placental insufficiency. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately describes the relationship between the study of post-term pregnancies and the timing of labor?

<p>While risks associated with post-term pregnancies exist, the optimal timing of labor before 41 weeks is still debated. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the incidence of prolonged pregnancy higher among?

<p>Obesity (A), History prior post term (B), Nulliparous (C), Genetic predisposition (D), AMA (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the risks of prolonged pregnancy most associated with?

<p>Fetal macrosomia (A), Placental insufficiency (B), Induction without ripened cervix (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are maternal risks of prolonged pregnancy?

<p>Postpartum hemorrhage (A), Infection (B), Perineal trauma (C), Operative vaginal or Cesarean birth (higher risk) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can result from exposure to malnutrition and decreased body fat in an infant, identified after birth via clinical features?

<p>Fetal postmaturity syndrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are clinical features of fetal postmaturity syndrome?

<p>Long nails (A), Placental dysfunction (B), Thin body (C), Calcified/desquamination/peeling of skin (D), Absence of vernix or lanugo (E), Meconium stained nails or skin (F), Alert look (G)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is there an increased incidence of with newborns with fetal postmaturity syndrome?

<p>Hypoglycemia (A), Abnormal FHR patterns (B), Oligohydramnios (C), Meconium aspiration (D), Umbilical cord compression (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the etiology (in order) of post-term labor onset?

<p>Decreased production and storage of prostaglandin precursors (A), Decreased stimulation to form oxytocin receptors in myometrium (B), Placental estrogen deficiency or decreased prostaglandin release (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

As the placenta ages and dysfunction occurs, what does intervillous hemorrhagic infarcts, thickening and degradation of the basal membrane vessels lead to?

<p>Decreased diffusion of oxygen</p> Signup and view all the answers

What theorized factor may contribute to prolonged pregnancy, an enzyme defect where there is decreased estrogen in the male fetus (X-linked)?

<p>Placental sulfatase deficiency</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the absence of complications, when should antenatal fetal surveillance begin? How often should antenatal fetal surveillance occur? What antenatal fetal surveillance may be used?

<p>NST, BPP, modified BPP (B), 2x/week (C), Amniotic fluid index (D), 41 weeks (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an ideal component to antenatal fetal surveillance due to the risk of oligohydramnios?

<p>Amniotic fluid index</p> Signup and view all the answers

When should a Bishop's score be considered? At 42 weeks, what percent of pregnant individuals will have an unfavorable cervix?

<p>80% (A), 41 weeks (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When should an induction of labor be considered? When should an induction of labor be recommended?

<p>Consider: 41 weeks (A), Recommend: 42 weeks (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the cervix made up of?

<p>10-15% smooth muscle, the remainder connective tissue</p> Signup and view all the answers

What Bishop's score is correlated with successful induction? What Bishop's score is correlated with induction success similar to spontaneous labor and delivery?

<p>8 (A), 6 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If nipple stimulation is used in prolonged pregnancy, how should a patient perform?

<p>Max 2 rounds or 2 hours (A), 30 minutes on 1 side (repeat on other side) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does nipple stimulation assist with?

<p>Produce contractions</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the evidence for blue/black cohash in prolonged labor?

<p>Not recommended</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is evening primrose oil?

<p>Prostaglandin precursor</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does evening primrose oil promote?

<p>Cervical ripening</p> Signup and view all the answers

What do some studies show evidence of evening primrose oil resulting in?

<p>ROM and PROM (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At what EGA can membrane sweep/stripping be performed? How dilated must a patient be? What is the recommended amount of membrane sweeps/stripping?

<p>No recommended number (A), 1 cm (B), &gt; 38 weeks (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are potential concerns with membrane sweeps/stripping?

<p>Spotting (A), Accidental ROM (B), GBS positive (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are cervical ripening agents?

<p>Dinoprostone (Cervidil) (A), Misoprostol (Cytotec) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are indications for cervical ripening with prostaglandins (dinoprostone, misoprostol)?

<p>Membranes intact (A), Bishop's score &lt; 5 (B), No regular contractions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What medication is used for labor induction/stimulate contractions?

<p>Oxytocin (Pitocin)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are indications for labor induction with Pitocin (oxytocin)?

<p>ROM (A), Bishop's score &gt; 5 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the ARRIVE trial, when should induction be offered to patients?

<blockquote> <p>39 weeks (A)</p> </blockquote> Signup and view all the answers

What is the early effect of fetal oxygenation decreasing, and how long can it persist?

<p>Hypoxemia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect of fetal oxygenation decreasing leads to risk to critical organs, risk for head sparing growth restriction and results in the release of stress hormones (norepinephrine and cortisol)?

<p>Hypoxia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the result of fetal oxygenation decreasing which results in central organ failure?

<p>Asphyxia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are biophysical characteristics which show signs of fetal well-being?

<p>Neurologic state (A), Hematologic state (B), Movement (C), Heart rate/cardiac activity (D), Pulmonary development (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are measures of placental function?

<p>Umbilical cord vessel function (size and shape) (A), Placental tissue aging/grading (B), Amniotic fluid volume (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is based on the healthy and well oxygenated fetus exhibiting characteristic movement throughout the day?

<p>Fetal movement/kick counts</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is fetal movement/kick counting an indicator of?

<p>CNS activity and muscle tone</p> Signup and view all the answers

When can regular fetal movement be expected?

<blockquote> <p>24 weeks (A)</p> </blockquote> Signup and view all the answers

What is routine fetal kick counting not recommended in?

<p>Without risk factors (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What circumstances indicate for a patient to alert their provider regarding fetal movement/kick counts?

<p>No movement in 12 hours on a single day (A), Uncharacteristic decrease in movement (B), &lt; 10 movements in 12 hours on 2 consecutive days (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should a fetus be evaluated with in the case that a mother reports decreased fetal movement?

<p>Cardiotocographic or ultrasound assessment (NST, CST)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What fetal monitoring technique is based off a healthy and well oxygenated fetus showing heart rate patterns associated with their own movement?

<p>Fetal non-stress test (NST)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is a patient positioned for an NST, and how long will the NST be performed?

<p>20 minutes (A), Semi-recumbent side-lying position (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does heart rate variability indicate maturity of?

<p>SNS and PSNS response</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the best predictor of fetal oxygenation based on an NST?

<p>Moderate variability (5-25 bpm)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are size and duration of reactive heart rate decelerations based on?

<p>CNS maturity</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the specificity and sensitivity of an NST?

<p>Low false negative (A), High false positive (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is an NST most predictive?

<p>Reactive</p> Signup and view all the answers

What fetal monitoring technique is based on a healthy and well oxygenated fetus being able to maintain a heart rate that is stable despite contractions?

<p>Contraction stress test (CST)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the contraction criteria during a CST?

<p>3 contractions in 10 minutes at least 40-60 seconds in duration (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What position will the patient be in during a CST?

<p>Semi-recumbent side-lying position</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should occur to a FHR during a CST?

<p>Remain moderate and not drop during/after a contraction</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a CST, what indicates a loss of fetal reserves and resiliency?

<p>Loss of variability, decelerations beyond the end of contraction (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the sensitivity and specificity of a CST?

<p>High false positive rate (A), Low false negative rate (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What result is wanted for a CST?

<p>Negative</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a negative CST provide?

<p>Higher reassurance than an NST</p> Signup and view all the answers

What fetal monitoring technique is more often used during labors where intermittent auscultation is being used to detail audible FHR accels?

<p>Auscultated acceleration test</p> Signup and view all the answers

What fetal monitoring technique is based on a healthy and well oxygenated fetus behaving in characteristic ways and showing evidence of normal CNS activity?

<p>Biophysical profile (BPP)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the components of a biophysical profile?

<p>Fetal breathing movement (A), Amniotic fluid volume (B), Body and limb movement (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What BPP score is reassuring of good oxygenation?

<p>8/8 or 10/10 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is better for identifying decreased oxygenation than an NST or CST?

<p>BPP</p> Signup and view all the answers

For a BPP, what positive predictor values will indicate stillbirth risk?

<p>Higher score: Lower risk, Lower score: higher risk (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What ultrasound technique for fetal monitoring will use normative data to compare expected fluid amounts based on gestational age?

<p>Amniotic fluid volume assessment</p> Signup and view all the answers

Based on pregnancy physiology, when is there a reduction in AFV?

<p>3rd trimester (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What assessment of amniotic fluid volume uses the largest cord-free pocket of fluid in each of 4 maternal quadrants, totaled for a calculated volume?

<p>Amniotic fluid index (4 pocket measure) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What assessment of amniotic fluid volume uses the greatest dimension of the largest pocket of cord-free fluid, regardless of the fluid location?

<p>Maximum/deepest ventricular pocket (single pocket measure) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does lower AFV increase the risk for?

<p>Increases risk of stillbirth due to cord impingement</p> Signup and view all the answers

What fetal monitoring technique is used to detect the speed and direction of blood flow velocity in utero placental and intracranial vessels?

<p>Doppler velocimetry</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is Doppler velocimetry done?

<p>Transabdominal or transvaginal ultrasound (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the EGA needed to perform Doppler velocimetry?

<blockquote> <p>24 weeks (A)</p> </blockquote> Signup and view all the answers

What are maternal conditions that Doppler velocimetry may be warranted in?

<p>Hypertensive disorders (A), Heart disease (B), Diabetes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the 2 most common vessels examined with Doppler velocimetry?

<p>Umbilical artery (A), Fetal arterial circulation (MCA) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What do arterial Doppler indices indicate, and what is the ideal value?

<p>&lt; 3.0 (A), S:D ratio (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a higher S:D ratio for Doppler velocimetry associated with?

<p>Abnormal fetal growth (A), Poor placental perfusion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can occur with a rising S:D ratio?

<p>Absent diastolic flow</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is used for fetal surveillance which samples cord blood via venopuncture on the umbilical cord for fetal blood?

<p>Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is percutaneous umbilical blood sampling used for?

<p>Genetic studies (A), Fetal therapy (blood transfusion = fetal anemia) (B), Tests for anemia, bleeding disorders, hemoglobinopathies, infection (C), Fetal blood gases (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What fetal monitoring technique withdraws a sample of amniotic fluid and tests for biomarkers indicative of fetal lung maturity?

<p>Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity</p> Signup and view all the answers

What biomarkers from an amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity indicate fetal lung maturity?

<p>Phosphatidylglycerol (present) (A), Lecithin and sphingomyelin ratio (L:S ratio &gt; 2.0) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to ACOG, what are NST and BPP considered for predicting the value of stillbirth?

<p>Equivalent</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are indicators of acute asphyxia on a BPP?

<p>Fetal tone (A), Fetal breathing movements (B), Fetal movements (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an indicator of chronic asphyxia on BPP?

<p>Amniotic fluid volume</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Early Term

Refers to pregnancies from 37.0 to 38.6 weeks.

Full Term

Defined as the duration from 39.0 to 40.6 weeks of pregnancy.

Late Term

Refers to pregnancies completing from 41.0 to 41.6 weeks.

Post Term

Describes pregnancies that go beyond 42 weeks (294 days).

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Prolonged Pregnancy

Often used to denote pregnancies lasting 41-42 weeks.

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Incorrect Dating

The most common cause of prolonged pregnancy, often due to poor recall or irregular cycles.

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Post Dates

A term meaning just past the due date, not useful for management.

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Genetic Influences

Genetic predispositions can contribute to the likelihood of post term pregnancies.

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X Linked Recessive Disorder

A disorder linked to the X chromosome, affecting males more commonly due to their single X chromosome.

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Anencephaly

A condition where a fetus lacks a major part of the brain and skull, often leading to stillbirth or death shortly after birth.

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HPA Axis

The hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis; a crucial system in regulating stress response and labor onset.

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Corticotropin Release

Hormone released from the hypothalamus that stimulates the pituitary to release ACTH.

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Prostaglandins

Hormones that initiate labor by stimulating uterine contractions.

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Macrosomia

Excessively large fetal size, often complicating delivery.

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Oligohydramnios

Low amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus, which can lead to complications.

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Placental Senescence

Aging of the placenta, which can lead to decreased function.

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Stillbirth Risk

Increased likelihood of fetal death in later stages of pregnancy.

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Fetal Cardiac Function

The ability of the fetus's heart to function properly, which can be assessed by Doppler studies.

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Induction of Labor

The process of stimulating labor using medical methods rather than allowing it to commence naturally.

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Meconium Aspiration

A condition where the newborn inhales a mixture of meconium and amniotic fluid into the lungs.

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Uterine Myometrium

The smooth muscle layer of the uterus that contracts during labor.

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Doppler Studies

Ultrasound tests that assess the blood flow in the fetal circulatory system.

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Elder Studies

Previous studies focusing on pregnancy outcomes without modern methods might be less reliable.

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Intervillous Infarcts

Areas of tissue death in the placenta that impact oxygen exchange.

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Fetal Hemorrhage

Bleeding in the placental area can reduce oxygen supply to the fetus.

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True Knot

A loop in the umbilical cord that can cause complications for the fetus.

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Wharton's Jelly

A gelatinous substance that cushions the umbilical cord.

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Postmaturity Syndrome

A condition in newborns born after 42 weeks, showing signs of placental dysfunction.

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Clinical Features of Postmaturity

Signs such as wrinkled skin and meconium staining in newborns after prolonged pregnancy.

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Risk of Oligohydramnios

Condition of low amniotic fluid, commonly occurring late in pregnancy.

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Fetal Surveillance

Monitoring fetus health during late pregnancy to prevent adverse outcomes.

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Membrane Sweeping

A technique to induce labor by separating membranes from the uterus.

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Consent in Membrane Sweeping

Discussion regarding potential risks before performing the sweeping technique.

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Biophysical Profile (BPP)

A test assessing fetal health by measuring heart rate, movement, and fluid.

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Cervical Ripening Techniques

Methods used to prepare the cervix for labor, including membrane sweeping.

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Maternal Risks Beyond 42 Weeks

Increased risks for both mother and fetus when pregnancy extends beyond 42 weeks.

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Accidental Rupture of Membranes

Potential risk during membrane sweeping; rare but possible.

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Bishop Score

A scoring system to assess cervical favorability for induction of labor.

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Prosthetic Method

Using prostaglandins for cervical ripening before labor induction.

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Mechanical Dilation

Methods like Foley catheters to open the cervix without drugs.

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Foley Balloon Catheter

A device placed in the cervix to facilitate dilation before labor.

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Laminaria

Seaweed rods used to swell and dilate the cervix mechanically.

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Synthetic Osmotic Dilators

Artificial devices to help in cervical dilation similar to laminaria.

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Arrive Trial

A study examining elective induction effects on cesarean rates.

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Cesarean Delivery Rate

Percentage of births that occur via surgical delivery.

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Perinatal Mortality

Death of a fetus or neonate close to the time of birth.

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Low Risk Pregnancy

A pregnancy with no major complications affecting health.

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Induction Counsel

Discussing induction options and decisions with patients.

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Non-Reactive NST

A fetal heart rate test showing no significant accelerations.

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Patient Autonomy

Patients’ right to make their own healthcare decisions.

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Eleven (G3P1011)

Gravida 3, Para 1-0-1-1: pregnancy history shorthand.

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Non-prescribed methods of labor induction

Methods used to induce labor without medical prescriptions, often discussed among patients.

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Walking to induce labor

Walking is reported by 43.3% of respondents and helps during labor progression.

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Intercourse for labor induction

Intercourse can help induce labor due to prostaglandins in semen and oxytocin release during orgasm.

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Spicy food and labor

10.9% of respondents reported using spicy food, but there's no evidence to support its effectiveness.

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Nipple stimulation's effect on labor

Nipple stimulation can help release oxytocin, prompting contractions but not reliably inducing labor.

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Castor oil's role

Castor oil is used to encourage labor by stimulating bowel movements, potentially leading to uterine contractions.

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Evening Primrose Oil

Used as a prostaglandin precursor for cervical ripening; can pose risks like early membrane rupture.

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Acupuncture for labor

Theoretically stimulates oxytocin secretion; more evidence is needed for its effectiveness.

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Risks of exceeding 42 weeks

Continuing pregnancy past 42 weeks can increase stillbirth and maternal complications; induction is recommended.

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Prostaglandins in semen

Prostaglandins help ripen the cervix and can initiate contractions, aiding labor induction.

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Herbal preparations for labor

Some herbs are used to induce labor but can have adverse effects; safety is not established.

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Laxatives' role in labor

Laxatives stimulate the bowel, which can provoke uterine irritation, but their use is controversial.

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Risks associated with black and blue cohash

These herbs may lead to severe complications, including fetal health issues, and should be avoided.

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Nulliparous

A term describing a woman who has never given birth.

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Fetal macrosomnia

A condition where a fetus is significantly larger than average, often associated with prolonged pregnancy.

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Maternal risks of prolonged pregnancy

Risks for mothers include perineal trauma, postpartum hemorrhage, and infection.

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Fetal risks of prolonged pregnancy

Includes labor dystocia, meconium-stained fluid, and stillbirth.

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Fetal postmaturity syndrome

A condition resulting from prolonged gestation with clinical features detected after birth.

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Clinical features of fetal postmaturity syndrome

Signs include long nails and meconium-stained skin at birth.

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Induction of labor considerations

Induction should be considered at 41 weeks, recommended at 42 weeks.

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Cervical ripening agents

Agents like misoprostol and dinoprostone used to prepare the cervix for labor.

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Fetal heart monitoring techniques

NST tracks heart rate and movement; CST assesses heart rate during contractions.

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Doppler velocimetry

A technique to assess blood flow in fetal circulation and placenta.

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Positive CST results

Aim for a negative result; indicates adequate fetal oxygenation during contractions.

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Amniotic fluid index

Assessment of amniotic fluid volume in each quadrant of the uterus.

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Components of BPP

Includes fetal movement, tone, breathing, and amniotic fluid volume.

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Meconium aspiration syndrome

Condition where a newborn inhales a mixture of meconium and amniotic fluid.

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Fetal oxygenation decrease

Leads to hypoxemia, hypoxia, or asphyxia; affects fetal health progressively.

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Kick counts

Method for assessing fetal well-being based on regular movements.

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Clinical features of meconium aspiration

Signs in newborns include respiratory distress and abnormal breathing patterns.

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Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling

Technique for sampling fetal blood from the umbilical cord for various tests.

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Amniocentesis for lung maturity

Withdraws amniotic fluid to assess lung maturity via L:S ratio.

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Indications for fetal monitoring

Conditions like diabetes, hypertension, or growth restrictions warrant closer monitoring.

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Maternal factors influencing pregnancy

Obesity and advancing age can increase risks of delayed pregnancy outcomes.

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Fetal surveillance goals

Monitor health to prevent adverse outcomes in prolonged pregnancy.

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Fetal heart rate response to movement

Reactive NST indicates a healthy fetus that responds to movement with heart variability.

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Nipple stimulation for contractions

A method to encourage contractions, assisting with labor onset.

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Labor induction types

Includes medical interventions like prostaglandins or mechanical methods for cervical ripening.

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Study Notes

Prolonged Pregnancy Management

  • Term: 37 weeks and beyond. Early term (37.0-38.6 weeks), Full term (39.0-40.6 weeks), Late term (41.0-41.6 weeks), Post term (294 days/42 weeks). "Post dates" is irrelevant; it just means past the due date.
  • Increased Risk Factors: Nulliparous pregnancies, women over 35, history of prior post-term pregnancies, genetic predisposition, obesity. Incidence of post-term birth has decreased.
  • Maternal Risks: perineal trauma, postpartum hemorrhage (pp hemorrage), operative vaginal or cesarean birth (higher risk), infections.

Causes of Prolonged Pregnancy

  • Inaccurate Dating: Irregular cycles, poor recall of dates, long cycles, PCOS, late entry to care. Early ultrasounds are vital for accurate dating.
  • Other Factors: Placental sulfatase deficiency (rare X-linked recessive disorder, low estrogen in male fetuses), fetal adrenal insufficiency, anencephaly. (Anencephaly lack of pituitary stops HPA axis function, preventing spontaneous labor.) Decreased production and storage of prostaglandin precursors, and/or decreased stimulation to form oxytocin receptors in myometrium, contribute.

Mechanisms of Normal Labor

  • HPA Axis: Corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) from fetal brain stimulates adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the pituitary, then cortisol from adrenal gland. This increases prostaglandins & estrogens, decreasing progesterone and triggering uterine contractions.
  • Post-Term Labor Onset Etiology: Placental estrogen deficiency OR decreased prostaglandin release, decreased production and storage of prostaglandin precursors, and/or decreased stimulation to form oxytocin receptors in myometrium.

Fetal Risks: Late/Post-Term Pregnancies

  • No Significant Increase in Mortality: Studies don't generally show increased intrauterine fetal death or neonatal death at 41 weeks compared to 39-40 weeks, but increased morbidity has been noted.
  • More Uterine Deaths: Many more fetal deaths occur in utero in the 37-42 week range and before, compared to post-term. Not all studies show this
  • Placental Aging: Placental dysfunction is a concern, with risks of macrosomia, placental insufficiency, and inducing labor when uterus isn't ready—resulting in operative vaginal delivery/ cesarean delivery.
  • Meconium Staining: Risk of meconium stained amniotic fluid (30% vs 19% full term risk) with higher risk of meconium aspiration.
  • Oligohydramnios: low amniotic fluid, pathogenesis uncertain but linked to fetal hypoxemia, blood flow redistribution (to brain) and renal hypoperfusion impacting urine production (which makes amniotic fluid), and placental senescence (aging).
  • Doppler studies: no deterioration in cardiac output in post-term fetuses
  • Stillbirths: Stillbirth rates increase from 0.11/1,000 at 37 weeks to 1.78/1,000 at 41 weeks, and 3.13/1,000 at 42 weeks, signifying starting fetal monitoring at 41 weeks and inducing at 42 weeks, Increased risk of stillbirth due to cord impingement.
  • Fetal Risks (additional): Fetal macrosomnia, placental insufficiency, labor induction w/o ripened cervix, labor dystocia (shoulder), increased perinatal morbidity in 41st week , meconium stained amniotic fluid, oligohydraminos (lower apgars, NICU, fetal distress, decreased LV CO), placental dysfunction, stillbirth.

Post Maturity Syndrome

  • Clinical Syndrome: Wasting of subcutaneous tissue, meconium staining of skin and nails, wrinkles, long nails, calcified skull, delayed fetal growth.
  • Diagnosis: Postnatal diagnosis, commonly impacting 10-20% of post-term fetuses (or 10-30% of prolonged pregnancies) affected by issues like fetal malnutrition.
  • Increased Risk: Higher risk of the complications mentioned in earlier sections, including meconium aspiration, oligohydramnios, umbilical cord compression, abnormal FHR patterns, hypoglycemia.

Prolonged Pregnancy Management: 41-42 Weeks

  • Expectant Management: Goal is minimizing IUFD. ACOG recommends initiating fetal surveillance at 41 weeks but doesn't specify methods or frequency.
  • Monitoring: General practice is twice weekly monitoring at 41 weeks with NST, BPP, modified BPP. Include amniotic fluid evaluation (AFV) /amniotic fluid index (AF), due to the risk of oligohydramnios.
  • Membrane Sweeping: Mechanical technique to stimulate cervical ripening, can be done after 38 weeks; and only if the cervix is dilated at least 1 cm, should avoid rupturing membranes and consider risks with GBS+ patients.
  • Induction of Labor: Should be considered after 41 weeks or if a patient's cervix is not ready, or if the fetus shows deterioration signals. Considerations for this decision include the patient's preferences, birth plan, Bishop score, and social support structures like a partner.

Induction of Labor

  • Bishop Score: Pre-labor scoring system to predict induction success. Scores higher than 6 are likely to result in a successful induction; >8 suggests a favorable cervix. Most patients past 42 weeks are unlikely to have a favorable cervix, as 80% of 42-week pregnancies will have an unfavorable cervix.
  • Cervical Ripening Methods (prior to Pitocin): Cook catheters, Foley balloon catheters, Laminaria, Synthetic osmotic dilators.
  • Pitocin Induction: Suggested for bishop score >5 or rupture of membranes.

The ARIVED Trial

  • Elective Induction at 39 Weeks: The trial suggests that elective induction of low-risk pregnancies at 39 weeks may significantly reduce the need for Cesarean delivery compared to expectant management (18.6% versus 22.2% reduced Cesarean deliveries) and reduced perinatal mortality and morbidity.

Patient Scenarios

  • Induction Considerations: Patient factors (e.g., strong social needs, high bishop score, and/or non-reactive NST) need to be considered.
  • Management Approaches: Consideration to expectant management, fetal surveillance, membrane sweeping, or induction will vary according to the patient.
  • Documentation: Crucial to document all discussions and decisions made with patients.

Fetal Monitoring Techniques

  • Fetal Movement/Kick Counts: Based on healthy and well-oxygenated fetuses exhibiting characteristic movement throughout the day; indicators of CNS activity and muscle tone. (should be >24 weeks, and not recommended w/ risk factors). Unusual decrease, <10 movements in 12 hours for 2 consecutive days or no movement in 12 hours on a single day, needs provider consultation. Evaluation with cardiotocographic or ultrasound assessment (NST, CST).
  • Non-Stress Test (NST): Based on a well-oxygenated fetus showing heart rate patterns associated with its own movement. Patient positioned semi-recumbent side-lying; 20 minutes (extendible). Moderate variability (5-25 bpm) is the best predictor of fetal oxygenation. Low false negative, high false positive (non-reactive NST = not specific for poor fetal oxygenation).
  • Contraction Stress Test (CST): Based on a healthy fetus maintaining a stable heart rate despite contractions. Patient positioned semi-recumbent side-lying. 3 contractions in 10 minutes at least 40-60 seconds in duration are required. FHR should remain moderate and not drop during/after contractions. Loss of variability, decelerations beyond end of contraction indicate fetal distress. Low false negative rate, high false positive rate. Negative result is preferred; higher reassurance than a NST.
  • Auscultated Acceleration Test: Used during labors where intermittent auscultation details audible FHR accelerations.
  • Biophysical Profile (BPP): Based on a healthy and well-oxygenated fetus. Components include body and limb movement, fetal breathing movement, amniotic fluid volume. Score of 8/8 or 10/10 is reassuring; higher score = lower risk. Low score = higher risk.
  • Amniotic Fluid Volume Assessment: Ultrasound technique to compare expected fluid amounts based on gestational age. Reduction in AFV occurs in the third trimester.
  • Amniotic Fluid Index (AF/AFV): Uses 4 pocket measures (largest fluid pocket in each maternal quadrant),
  • Maximum/Deepest Ventricular Pocket (AFV): Uses the greatest dimension of the largest pocket, regardless of location. Lower AFV increases risk of stillbirth due to cord impingement.
  • Doppler Velocimetry: Used to detect blood flow velocity in utero, placental and intracranial vessels. Transabdominal or transvaginal ultrasound. Can be warranted in mothers with hypertensive disorders, diabetes, heart disease; and fetuses with growth restriction, cardiac anomalies or if placental conditions cause concern. The umbilical artery and fetal arterial circulation (MCA: middle cerebral artery) are frequently examined, and the S:D ratio is measured (<3.0). A higher S:D ratio indicates poor placental perfusion and abnormal fetal growth. Absent diastolic flow signifies increasing issues.
  • Percutaneous Umbilical Blood Sampling: Samples cord blood for fetal blood gases, anemia, bleeding disorders, hemoglobinopathies, infection, genetic studies, or for fetal therapy (blood transfusion).
  • Amniocentesis: Withdraws amniotic fluid to test for biomarkers of fetal lung maturity (lecithin and sphingomyelin ratio: L:S ratio > 2.0 and phosphatidyglycerol: present)
  • Nipple Stimulation: A patient can perform 30 minutes on one side (repeat on the other side) for a maximum of 2 rounds (2hrs total).

Additional Information

  • Nipple stimulation can produce contractions (60%).
  • Evidence for blue/black cohash in prolonged labor is not recommended.
  • Evening primrose oil is a prostaglandin precursor. Promotes cervical ripening, and some studies show a possibility for ROM/PROM as a result.
  • Membrane sweep/stripping can be performed at > 38 weeks, with cervix dilated at least 1 cm; and there is no recommended number of sweeps. (Potential concerns include accidental ROM, GBS + patients, and spotting discussion.)
  • Cervical ripening agents include misoprostol (Cytotec) and dinoprostone (Cervidil). Indication is for bishops score <5, membranes intact, and no regular contractions.
  • Oxytocin (Pitocin) is used for labor induction/stimulation; indications are for bishops score >5 or ROM. Elective induction of low risk pregnancies should be considered for > 39 weeks (per ARIVED trial).
  • As placental function declines, intervillous hemorrhagic infarcts, and thickening/degeneration of the basal membrane vessels lead to decreased diffusion of oxygen.
  • Hypoxemia (weeks to days), Hypoxia (days to hours), and Asphyxia (hours to minutes) are progressively adverse effects of decreased fetal oxygenation.
  • Biophysical characteristics indicating fetal well-being include heart rate/activity, fetal movement, neurologic state, pulmonary development, and hematologic state.
  • Measures of placental function include amniotic fluid volume, placental tissue aging/grading, and umbilical cord vessel function.
  • According to ACOG, NST and BPP are considered equivalent predictors for stillbirth risk.
  • Indicators of acute asphyxia in a BPP include fetal breathing movements, fetal movements, and fetal tone; chronic asphyxia is indicated by amniotic fluid volume.

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