أسئلة الثامنة جراحة ثالثة الدلتا

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Questions and Answers

What is the primary aim of preoperative care?

  • To ensure the patient is comfortable before surgery.
  • To minimize hospital stay post-surgery.
  • To optimize the patient's condition to improve surgical outcomes. (correct)
  • To expedite the surgical procedure.

Which of the following is a crucial step in the preoperative preparation?

  • Reviewing previous radiology and lab results. (correct)
  • Skipping the allergy assessment to save time.
  • Administering a general anesthetic.
  • Limiting patient's fluid intake.

Why is multidisciplinary collaboration important in preoperative care?

  • It streamlines the billing process.
  • It reduces the surgeon's workload.
  • It ensures all aspects of the patient's health are considered by different specialists. (correct)
  • It makes the patient feel more important.

According to the American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) classification, a patient with controlled hypertension but no systemic effects would be classified as:

<p>ASA 2 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are smokers typically advised to stop smoking at least four weeks before surgery?

<p>To reduce the risk of respiratory complications and improve healing. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended fasting period for solid food before surgery?

<p>8 hours (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what situation is informed consent NOT mandatory before a surgical procedure?

<p>When a life-saving operation is necessary for a hemodynamically unstable patient who is unconscious and has no relatives. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient is taking Warfarin prior to surgery, what is the typical course of action regarding this medication?

<p>Shift Warfarin to Heparin injection. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary focus during the 'Time Out' phase of the WHO safety checklist?

<p>Confirming the patient's identity, procedure, and site with the surgical team. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the 'Sign Out' phase primarily ensure before a patient leaves the operating room?

<p>The procedure was accurately recorded, specimens are labeled, and equipment issues are addressed. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the immediate postoperative phase (first 24 hours), what is a key focus of patient assessment?

<p>Monitoring vital signs and general condition. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical fluid balance range that is aimed for in a postoperative patient per day?

<p>2000-2500 ml/day (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an example of a medication commonly administered during the postoperative period?

<p>Analgesic (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is basal atelectasis, a common immediate postoperative complication?

<p>Minor lung collapse (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does oliguria or anuria typically indicate in the immediate postoperative period?

<p>Inadequate fluid replacement or urinary retention (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common cause of acute confusion in the early postoperative phase?

<p>Dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, or sepsis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When does secondary hemorrhage typically occur in the postoperative period, and what is a common cause?

<p>1-30 days postoperatively, often due to infection (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the Clavien classification, which grade includes complications requiring surgical intervention?

<p>Grade 3 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Approximately what percentage of patients will have a fever following major surgery?

<p>40% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient develops a fever on the 1st postoperative day (POD), what is a likely cause?

<p>Atelectasis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the term for a surgical wound that breaks down, exposing underlying structures?

<p>Dehiscence (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a predisposing factor for wound dehiscence?

<p>Malnutrition (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first step in managing a burst abdomen (evisceration)?

<p>Covering with soaked saline dressing and emergency operation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Within what timeframe does reactionary postoperative bleeding typically occur?

<p>Within 24 hours (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first sign of hemorrhagic shock?

<p>Tachycardia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the best indicator of shock?

<p>Low UOP (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the usual source of organisms causing a surgical wound infection (SSI)?

<p>Patient's own flora (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the initial antibiotic choice for managing a surgical wound infection?

<p>Broad spectrum antibiotics against the likely source (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An anastomotic leak is defined as:

<p>Failure of anastomosis between two hollow organs. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes a fistula?

<p>An abnormal connection between two epithelial surfaces. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most critical consideration when surgeons assess the balance between the natural history of a disease and the risk of operation?

<p>A comprehensive understanding of the patient's physiological reserve and the potential for irreversible harm from both the disease and the surgical intervention. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is detailed attention to a patient's medication list, including over-the-counter drugs and herbal supplements, crucial during preoperative assessment?

<p>To identify potential interactions with anesthetic agents, assess bleeding risks, and optimize drug therapy to minimize adverse events during and after surgery. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary rationale for stopping Clopidogrel before a surgical procedure?

<p>To minimize the risk of intraoperative and postoperative bleeding complications due to its antiplatelet effects. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most critical element of informed consent in a life-saving operation for a hemodynamically unstable patient with no relatives?

<p>The principle of implied consent, where the urgency of the situation overrides the need for explicit consent to prevent immediate and irreversible harm or death. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the 'Time Out' phase of the WHO surgical safety checklist, what is the primary reason for confirming the patient's allergies?

<p>To prevent potential allergic reactions to medications, latex, or other substances used during the surgical procedure, thereby minimizing the risk of anaphylaxis or related complications. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the immediate postoperative period, continuous monitoring in the ICU is deemed most necessary for which patient population?

<p>Patients at high risk for cardiopulmonary instability, those requiring mechanical ventilation, or those with complex medical conditions that necessitate intensive monitoring and support. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of monitoring specific gravity of urine in the immediate postoperative phase?

<p>To evaluate the patient's hydration status and kidney function, helping to differentiate between prerenal, renal, and postrenal causes of oliguria or anuria. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What critical steps should be taken in the management of a patient with acute postoperative delirium?

<p>Addressing underlying causes such as pain or medication side effects, ensuring adequate oxygenation and hydration, and providing a safe and familiar environment to reduce agitation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the underlying pathophysiology of secondary hemorrhage in the postoperative period?

<p>Erosion of blood vessels due to infection or enzymatic degradation at the surgical site, typically occurring days after the initial surgery. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of postoperative complications, which of the following best characterizes a Clavien-Dindo Grade III complication?

<p>Complications requiring surgical, endoscopic, or radiological intervention. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most important factor in the differential diagnosis of a fever presenting on postoperative day 5?

<p>Surgical site infection, anastomotic leak, or other procedure-specific complications. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the definitive management for a patient presenting with a burst abdomen (evisceration) after surgery?

<p>Immediate placement of a sterile, saline-soaked dressing over the protruding abdominal contents, followed by urgent surgical re-exploration. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most critical immediate intervention for a patient exhibiting signs of reactionary postoperative bleeding?

<p>Immediate surgical exploration to identify and control the source of bleeding, particularly if conservative measures fail or the patient's hemodynamic status is compromised. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most reliable early indicator of hemorrhagic shock in a postoperative patient?

<p>Tachycardia, often preceding a drop in blood pressure, is a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the fundamental principle guiding initial antibiotic selection for surgical site infections?

<p>Selecting a broad-spectrum antibiotic regimen that covers the likely pathogens based on the surgical site and potential sources of contamination, which is then tailored based on culture and sensitivity results. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most crucial factor determining the management strategy for an anastomotic leak following bowel surgery?

<p>The degree of peritonitis, the patient's overall clinical condition, and the size and location of the leak, which will dictate whether conservative management or surgical intervention is required. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary differentiating factor between a low-output and a high-output fistula, and how does this influence management?

<p>The volume of fluid draining from the fistula, with high-output fistulas (&gt;500 ml/day) often requiring more aggressive fluid and electrolyte management, nutritional support, and potentially surgical intervention compared to low-output fistulas (&lt;200 ml/day). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST important step in managing a surgical wound infection?

<p>Draining the pus by removing some stitches at the edge of the wound if superficial, US guided aspiration, or re-exploration. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST likely cause of postoperative fever on POD 3-5?

<p>Urinary Tract Infection (UTI) or catheter related phlebitis. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) classification system, a patient with poorly controlled heart failure and risk of death is classified as?

<p>ASA 4. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not a life changing outcome that requires informed consent before any operation?

<p>Blood transfusion. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the BEST description of Tachycardia?

<p>First sign of hemorrhagic shock. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a major component of the 'Sign In' phase of the WHO Surgical Safety Checklist?

<p>Confirming VTE prophylaxis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the 'Sign Out' phase of the WHO Surgical Safety Checklist, what is the primary objective regarding surgical specimens?

<p>Verifying that all specimens are correctly labeled with the patient's information and sent to pathology. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the Clavien-Dindo classification, which grade of postoperative complication includes those requiring intervention under general anesthesia?

<p>Grade III. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the BEST first step in management of burst abdomen (evisceration)?

<p>Cover with soaked saline dressing and emergency exploration. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is anti-shock measures implemented?

<p>When a patient has a surgical wound infection (SSI). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is 'Friends' acronym used for?

<p>Fistula. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT one of the 5 W's of postoperative fever?

<p>Work (surgical site infection). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Preoperative Care

Approach to the surgical patient from surgeon's review to operation.

Aim of Preoperative Care

Optimize patient condition to ensure successful surgical outcomes.

Multidisciplinary Collaboration

Collaboration among surgeons, anesthesiologists, radiologists, and internal medicine teams.

Surgeons Responsibility

Balancing risks of disease versus surgery.

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History & Examination Focus

Allergies, medications, smoking, alcohol, medical history, and prior surgeries.

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Document Review - Previous

Radiology or laboratory results.

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Labs - Common Tests

CBC, coagulation profile, LFTs, RFTs

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Radiology Investigations

ECG, Chest x-ray, Abdominal x-ray, CT or ultrasound

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Cardiac Consultation

Optimization of heart failure by a cardiologist

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ASA Classification

System to classify patient's preoperative health status

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Optimization Involves

Delaying elective cases until conditions like glucose and blood pressure are controlled.

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Clopidogrel

Clopidogrel is stopped for 5 days.

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Warfarin Alternative

Warfarin shifted to heparin injection

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Smoking Cessation

Stop smoking four weeks before surgery.

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Fasting Times

2 hours (fluids) and 8 hours (solid food).

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Consent

Informed consent before any procedure

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Consent Details

Type of operation, risks, complications, and life-changing outcomes.

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Safety Checklist

Checklist before anesthesia, skin incision and leaving OR

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Postoperative Assessment

vital signs, general condition, pain, fluid balance, medications and surgery specific state

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Immediate Postoperative Phase

First 24 hours after operation.

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Early Postoperative Phase

Inpatient or within 30 days of the surgical procedure.

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Late Postoperative Phase

After 30 days following the procedure

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Basal atelectasis

Minor lung collapse

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Oliguria or Anuria

Inadequate fluid replacement or urinary retention.

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Acute confusion

Dehydration, electrolyte imbalance & sepsis

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Nausea and vomiting

Paralytic ileus or adhesions

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Secondary hemorrhage

Often caused by infection

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Wound Dehiscence

Surgical wound breaks down exposing underlying structure, can involve partial or full thickness.

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Predisposing Factors for wound dehiscence

Malnutrition, Infection, Smoking, Immunosuppression or steroid, Malignancy, Technical factors.

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Wound Dehiscence

Surgical wound breaks down exposing underlying structure

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Surgical Wound Infection (SSI)

Occurs After Any Surgery in the operated site.

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Preoperative Definition

Systemic approach to patient care before operation.

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Postoperative Fever

A fever that develops after a surgical procedure.

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WHO Surgical Safety Checklist

Checklist used before, during, and after surgery.

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Body Response

After surgery that is caused by a reaction to the surgery.

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Postoperative Pneumonia

A fever that is caused by the lungs after surgery.

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Postoperative UTI

A fever that is caused by an UTI after surgery.

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Anastomotic Leak/Wound Infection

A fever caused by anastomotic leakage or wound infection.

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Drug or Transfusion Reaction

Can happen anytime post operation, caused by drugs or blood.

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Anastomotic Leak

A potentially dangerous connection between two hollow organs fails.

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Immediate phase length.

Time frame for immediate phase after operation.

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Early stage of operation recovery.

Stage for inpatient or phase after operation.

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Clavien Classification: Grade 1

Deviation from normal postop course.

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Clavien Classification: Grade 2

Pharm treatment beyond Grade I meds.

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Clavien Classification: Grade 3

Requires surgical/radiological intervention.

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Clavien Classification: Grade 4

Life-threatening requiring ICU level care.

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Reactionary Bleeding

Postoperative bleeding within 24H of operation.

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Secondary bleeding

Postoperative bleeding that is late to 10-14 days post op...

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Study Notes

  • Lecture covers preoperative and postoperative care in surgery
  • Focuses on optimizing patient condition and managing potential complications

Preoperative Care

  • Involves a surgeon's review until the operation
  • Aims to optimize patient condition for surgical outcomes
  • Requires multidisciplinary collaboration among surgeons, anesthesiologists, radiologists, internal medicine, nurses, etc.
  • Surgeons balance disease risks with the risks of the operation itself

Preparation

  • Includes history and examination, document review, investigations, and consultations

History & Examination

  • This is the most crucial step
  • Special attention is given to allergies, medications, habits (smoking, alcohol), medical diseases, and previous surgeries

Document Review

  • Review previous radiology or laboratory results
  • Review previous operative details and pathological reports

Investigations

  • These are tailored for each patient
  • Labs include CBC, coagulation profile, LFTs, RFTs, blood group, cross matching, glycemic control, urine analysis and virology
  • Pregnancy tests are performed for women of child-bearing age
  • Radiology includes ECG, chest X-ray, abdominal X-ray, CT or ultrasound

Consultations

  • A multidisciplinary approach is beneficial
  • Cardiologist optimizes cases of heart failure

ASA Classification System

  • ASA 1 - Normal healthy patient
  • ASA 2 - Patients with mild systemic disease (controlled hypertension/diabetes, smoker without COPD, mild obesity, pregnancy)
  • ASA 3 - Patients with severe systemic disease, some functional limitation (controlled CHF, stable angina, former heart attack, morbid obesity, chronic renal failure)
  • ASA 4 - Patients with severe systemic disease, constant threat to life (unstable angina, symptomatic COPD, symptomatic CHF, hepatorenal failure)
  • ASA 5 - Moribund patients not expected to survive without surgery (imminent risk of death, multiorgan failure)
  • ASA 6 - Declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donation

Optimization

  • Elective cases are sometimes delayed for management of glycemic, hypertensive, or cardiac control
  • Some drugs are stopped or altered (Clopidogrel 5 days prior, Warfarin shifted to heparin)
  • Ensure good nutritional status
  • Smokers should stop 4 weeks before surgery
  • Antibiotics given 1-hour pre-incision
  • Fasting for 2 hours (fluids) and 8 hours (solid food)
  • Emergency cases are more complex
  • Informed consent is required before the operation
  • Including type of operation, risks and complications, life-changing outcomes
  • Consent is not always mandatory in lifesaving operations, especially for hemodynamically unstable/unconscious patients with no relatives

WHO Safety Checklist

  • Includes sign-in, time out, and sign-out procedures
Sign In
  • Before anesthesia ensuring confirmation of patient identity, procedure, site marked and allergies
  • Confirm Anesthetic safety, airway plan, availability of antibiotics and blood
Time Out
  • Before skin incision to confirm patient’s name, procedure, site/side, imaging and allergies
  • Determines if there significant blood loss
  • Make sure diathermy on antibiotics given, specimen plan, warming on, VTE prophylaxis on
Sign Out
  • Before leaving OR by the whole theatre team
  • Determines the procedure was recorded correctly, counts correct, specimens labeled, packs removed / labeled, lines flushed, equipment problems and Post op plan, VTE and antibiotic plan or Daycase?

Postoperative Care

  • Assessment includes vital signs, general condition, pain, fluid balance (2000-2500 ml/d), medications (analgesic, PPI, anticoag.), Drain amount and color

Postoperative Period

  • Immediate phase: First 24 hours post-op
  • Early phase: Inpatient or within 30 days of procedure
  • Late phase: After 30 days following procedure

Frequency of Assessment

  • Every 4-6 hours in stable patients
  • Continuous monitoring in ICU patients

Postoperative Complications

Immediate Complications (0-24 Hours)

  • Basal atelectasis: minor lung collapse
  • Oliguria or Anuria: inadequate fluid replacement/urinary retention

Early Complications (1-30 Days)

  • Acute confusion: dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, sepsis
  • Nausea and vomiting: paralytic ileus or adhesions
  • Postoperative fever
  • Secondary hemorrhage: often infection-related
  • Pneumonia
  • Wound or anastomosis dehiscence
  • DVT
  • Urinary tract infection (UTI)
  • Postoperative wound infection

Late Complications (>30 Days)

  • Bowel obstruction due to adhesions
  • Incisional hernia - Fistula or sinus
  • Recurrence of reason for surgery (malignancy)
  • Keloid formation

Clavien Classification of Postoperative Complications

  • Grade 0: No complication
  • Grade 1: Deviation from normal course, allowed physical therapy/medications
  • Grade 2: Requires pharmacological treatment beyond Grade 1
  • Grade 3: Requires surgical, endoscopic or radiological intervention
  • Grade 4: Life-threatening, requires intermediate/intensive care
  • Grade 5: Death

(1) Postoperative Fever

  • Incidence: 40% of patients post major surgery
  • Clinical features: Rigors, sweats
  • 5 W's of Postoperative Fever; wind, water, walk, wound and wonder about drugs
  • Causes based on operative day:
    • Day 0: Body response to surgery
    • Day 1-2: Atelectasis, Pneumonia
    • Day 3-5: UTI, Catheter-related phlebitis
    • Day 5-7: DVT , anastomatic leakage, Wound Infection
    • Anytime: Drug reaction, Transfusion reaction
  • Diagnosis: History, examination, investigations (C/P cough, dyspnea, chest pain) and chest X-ray
  • Treatment: Antibiotics, Chest measures

(2) Wound Dehiscence

  • Surgical wound breaks down exposing underlying structure in Full thickness (Burst or Evisceration or Partial thickness
  • Predisposing factors: Malnutrition, Infection, Smoking, Immunosuppression/steroids, Malignancy, Technical factors
  • Management:
    • Burst: Cover with saline dressing and emergency operation
    • Partial thickness: Conservative (incisional hernia later)

(3) Postoperative Bleeding

  • Primary: During operation
  • Reactionary: Within 24 hours (slipped ligature, increased blood pressure)
  • Secondary: Late (10-14 days), infection-related erosion into blood vessel
  • Clinical picture (Same as hemorrhagic shock):
    • Tachycardia (first sign)
    • Tachypnea
    • Hypotension
    • Low UOP (best indicator of shock)
    • Altered mental status Anxious then lethargy then coma Increased capillary refill time > 2 seconds
    • Pulse pressure decrease
  • Management:
    • Anti-shock measures: IV fluids (1-2 liters), blood transfusion, oxygen, tranexamic acid
    • Investigations: CBC, cross matching, radiology (source detection)
    • Stop bleeding: Surgical exploration or Angioembolization by gelfoam

(4) Surgical Wound Infection (SSI)

  • Infection after surgery in the wound
  • Organism: Usually from patient's own flora
    • Staph aureus from skin
    • E.coli from bowel
  • Clinical features: Pain, fever, discharge, tenderness, redness, heat
  • Investigations: CBC, CRP, wound swab (culture/sensitivity), blood cultures (if sepsis)
  • Management:
    • Anti-shock measures for sepsis fluids, oxygen and antibiotics
    • Broad spectrum against likely source then guided by results of cultures taken.
    • Drainage of pus by: Removing some stitches at edge of the wound,US guided aspiration then Re-exploration.

(5) Anastomotic Leak

  • Failure of anastomosis between hollow organs (intraluminal contents escape)
  • Same as wound dehiscence
  • Diagnosis: Peritonitis, Fistula or Abscess formation
  • Time: 5-7 days postoperative
  • Fate: May stop spontaneously by conservative measures
  • Surgical or stoma diversion

(6) Fistula

  • Abnormal connection between epithelial surfaces (viscus to viscus, viscus to surface)
  • Types (according to output):
    • Low output: <200 ml/day
    • Medium output: 200-500 ml/day
    • High output: >500 ml/day
  • Examples:
    • GIT and skin (enterocutaneous)
    • GIT and Resp (tracheo-oesophageal)
    • GIT and Urinary system (colovesical)
    • artery and vein (arteriovenous)
  • Fate: Most close spontaneously except (Friends)
    • Foreign body
    • Radiation
    • IBD (Crohn's disaease = fistulizing disease)
    • Epithelialization
    • Neoplasm
    • Distal obstruction
    • Specific pathology or steroids
  • Management: Specific to each type (conservative or surgical approach)

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