Physical Assessment: Eyes

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Questions and Answers

What is the primary function of the retina?

  • To detect light and convert it into electro-chemical impulses (correct)
  • To control the size of the pupil
  • To provide a protective outer coat for the eye
  • To cover the anterior sclera

Which structure is responsible for controlling the size of the pupil?

  • Lens
  • Sclera
  • Cornea
  • Iris (correct)

What condition is indicated by inflammation of the sclera?

  • No associated symptoms
  • Vision improvement
  • No pain
  • Vision loss (correct)

Which cranial nerve innervates the lateral rectus muscle, enabling lateral eye movement?

<p>Cranial Nerve VI (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the ciliary body?

<p>To produce aqueous humor (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Blockage of the aqueous outflow angle can result in which condition?

<p>Glaucoma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of tissue comprises the choroid?

<p>Vascular pigmented (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with lateral and downward deviation in the affected eye, along with ptosis. Which cranial nerve palsy is most likely?

<p>CN3 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'emmetropia' refer to?

<p>Normal vision (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of lens is used to correct myopia?

<p>Concave (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition is associated with damage to retinal blood vessels caused by diabetes?

<p>Diabetic retinopathy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which visual field finding is considered normal?

<p>Downward field vision - 50° (cheekbone) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition involves the eyelid turning inward, causing eyelashes to irritate the eye?

<p>Entropion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the likely cause of a reddened sclera?

<p>Infection (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does anisocoria refer to?

<p>Unequal pupil sizes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Light shined on the left pupil causes constriction of the right pupil. What is this called?

<p>Consensual response (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is assessed by the Cardinal Gaze test?

<p>Extraocular muscle movement and coordination (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In refraction, what percentage of the eye's focusing power is provided by the cornea?

<p>66% (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At what age is gradual hearing loss (presbycusis) most common?

<p>After age 50 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After cerumen removal, which finding would suggest serous otitis media?

<p>Yellowish, bulging membrane with bubbles (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Rinne test is used to assess what?

<p>Abnormalities in the ear canal and tympanic membrane (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the term for ear pain?

<p>Otalgia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most likely cause of a perforated septum?

<p>Cocaine use (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common site for nasal bleeding?

<p>Kiesselbach's area (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following may indicate liver disease?

<p>Fetor hepaticus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When percussing the posterior thorax, what sound should be expected?

<p>Dullness over scapula (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which muscle is the primary muscle of inspiration?

<p>Diaphragm (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized by a ratio of anteroposterior to transverse diameter of 1:1?

<p>Barrel chest (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is considered a normal finding in spinal alignment?

<p>Straight vertebral column (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a healthy adult, what is the expected ratio between the anteroposterior and transverse diameter of the chest?

<p>1:2 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the presence of 'peau d'orange' indicate in breast assessment?

<p>Cutaneous lymphatic edema (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which Breast cancer risk factor is modifiable?

<p>Elevated alcohol consumption (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should the nurse instruct the patient regarding frequency of self breast examination, if the patient has irregular menses?

<p>Same day every month (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where does the axillary tail of Spence extend?

<p>Towards the axilla (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports a recent increase in breast size, unilateral hypervascular areas, and discomfort. Which condition is most likely indicated?

<p>Increased localized blood flow (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is diagnosed with exostoses during an ear examination. What finding would the nurse expect to note?

<p>Nonmalignant nodular swellings (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client’s Weber test reveals sound lateralizing to the poorer ear. What type of hearing loss is indicated?

<p>Conductive hearing loss (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is being assessed using whispered pectoriloquy. Which of the following assessment findings would be considered abnormal?

<p>The whispered sounds are clear and distinct. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an eye examination, a nurse observes that the corneal light reflex is uneven. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this finding?

<p>Strabismus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a full and symmetric thorax expansion with thumbs separating 2cm during deep inspiration. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

<p>Notify the physician for further evaluation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Vision

The ability to interpret visible light information reaching the eyes.

Conjunctiva

A thin, vascular tissue that covers the inner lid lining and sclera.

Cornea

Transparent front refractive window of the eye.

Visual Acuity Test

Measures the sharpness or clarity of a person's vision

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Myopia

Difficulty seeing distant objects clearly.

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Presbyopia

Age-related loss of the ability to focus on nearby objects.

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Astigmatism

Irregular cornea shape causing blurred vision.

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Visual Field Test

Measures the entire area you can see when your eyes are fixed.

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Bitemporal hemianopia

Loss in the outer half of both visual fields.

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Visual Inspection

Detect visible signs of disease or abnormalities of the eyes.

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Ptosis

Drooping eyelids, often due to muscle weakness or nerve damage.

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Pupillary Reaction Test

To assess the neural pathways responsible for pupillary light reflexes

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Accommodation Test

Pupils constrict for near objects and dilate for distant objects

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Corneal Light Reflex (Hirschberg Test)

Used to assess the alignment of the eyes and detect strabismus.

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Cardinal Gaze

To test the movement and coordination of the extraocular muscles

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Auricle (Pinna)

Outer Ear

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External Auditory Canal

Bony cartilaginous tube that leads from the auricle to the eardrum

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Tympanic Membrane

A thin, cone-shaped membrane that separates the external ear from the middle ear

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Stapes

The smallest bone in the body, which connects to the oval window of the inner ear.

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Eustachian Tube

A canal that connects the middle ear to the throat, equalizing pressure.

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Cochlea

A spiral-shaped organ that converts sound vibrations into electrical signals.

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Vestibular System

Includes the semicircular canals and the vestibule, balance and spatial orientation

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Sudden Hearing Loss

Sudden hearing loss in one ear

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Drainage (Otorrhea)

May indicate infection; purulent or bloody suggests external otitis

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Otoscope

Medical instrument used to examine the ear canal and eardrum

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Salivary glands

Mouth

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Black, smooth, or fissured tongue

A deficiency in what can occur.

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Tenderness

Palpate a patient if you detect what.

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Inspiration

The diaphragm presses organs downward and forward.

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Expiration

The diaphragm rises and recoils

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Refers to

Chest Configuration

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Assessing Thorax and Lungs

The main job is to get the client's oxygenation status.

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Trachea

A flexible structure that lies anterior to the esophagus

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Sinuses

What happens if the patient has increased tenderness?

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Pleura

The thoracic cavity is lined by a thin membrane

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Being familiar

Breast Self-Awareness:

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Gynecomastia

Enlargement of the male breast gland

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Study Notes

Physical Assessment

  • Focuses on the structure and function of the eyes, ears, mouth, throat, nose, sinuses, thorax, lungs, breasts, and lymphatic vessels

Assessment of the Eye

  • Eyes are the visual system organ
  • They detect light and convert it into electrochemical impulses for vision
  • Vision is the ability to interpret light information

External Eye Structures

  • Eyelids protect the eye
    • Both contain a tarsal plate with Meibomian glands
    • Lids join at medial and lateral canthi
  • Sclera: Thick, protective outer coat underlying the conjunctiva
    • Normally white, possibly bluish, and opaque
    • Inflammation is painful, associated with vision loss
  • Episclera covers the anterior sclera lacking the bluish discoloration
    • Continuous with the cornea
    • Inflammation is not typically painful or vision-altering
  • Limbus: Corneal-scleral junction
  • Iris is a pigmented light filter
    • Its muscular aperture controls pupil size
  • Pupil: Central hole within the iris
    • Size is controlled by iris constriction (miosis) and relaxation (mydriasis)
    • Pupil size determines light exposure on the retina
  • Conjunctiva: Thin, vascular tissue
    • It covers the inner lid lining (palpebral conjunctiva) and sclera (bulbar conjunctiva)
    • It aids in focusing images at 60%
  • Cornea: Transparent front refractive window
  • Macula is the fine central vision area at the posterior pole
    • Contains the fovea: oval depression at the macula's center

Extraocular Muscles

  • Innervated by cranial nerves III, IV, and VI
  • Medial range of motion: Medial rectus (cranial nerve III)
  • Lateral range of motion: Lateral rectus (cranial nerve VI)
  • Upward range of motion: Superior rectus and inferior oblique (cranial nerve III)
  • Downward range of motion: Inferior rectus (cranial nerve III) and superior oblique (cranial nerve IV)

Internal Eye Structures

  • Anterior chamber is between the cornea and iris
    • Contains aqueous humor
  • Posterior chamber is between the iris and zonulae (very small space)
  • Ciliary body produces aqueous humor and suspends the lens via zonulae
  • Aqueous humor: Clear fluid
    • Fills anterior and posterior chambers
    • Produced by the ciliary body
    • Passes through pupil
    • Drains via trabecular meshwork at the aqueous outflow angle
      • Intersection of cornea, iris, and ciliary body
      • Blockage results in glaucoma
  • Vitreous cavity
    • Large space (4.5cc) between lens and retina
    • Contains transparent gel (vitreous humor)

Anatomy: Vascular

  • Choroid: Vascular pigmented tissue between sclera and retina
    • Vascular supply for outer retina
  • Avascular structures: Lens, anterior vitreous, corneal endothelium

Eye Muscles

  • Ciliary muscle innervated by CN III constricts to relax lens tension for accommodation
  • Sphincter pupillae innervated by CN III constricts the pupil
  • Dilator pupillae innervated by sympathetic nerves dilates the pupil

Eye Muscle Deficits

  • CN3 palsy: Lateral & downward deviation with ptosis
  • CN4 palsy: Upward deviation
  • CN6 palsy: Medial deviation

Visual Acuity Test

  • Measures sharpness or clarity to assess vision at various distances
  • Those who cannot see the top line (20/200) are tested via:
    • Light perception
    • Hand movement test
    • Counting fingers
  • Normal Findings: Denominator of 40+ on Snellen chart utilizing corrective lenses or 20/20 vision without
  • Emmetropia indicates normal vision
  • Myopia causes difficulty seeing distant objects clearly
  • Hyperopia causes difficulty seeing close objects clearly
  • Presbyopia is age-related loss of focusing on nearby objects
  • Glaucoma means increased eye pressure damages the optic nerve, causing vision loss
  • Retinal detachment means that the retina pulls away, causing vision loss
  • Astigmatism means that irregular cornea shape causes blurred vision
  • Papilledema: Swelling of optic disc due to increased intracranial pressure
  • Optic atrophy means damage to optic nerve leading to vision loss
  • Diabetic retinopathy: Damage caused by diabetes to retina blood vessels
  • AMD: Age-related macular degeneration causing central vision loss

Visual Field Test

  • Measures the overall area someone can see
  • Helps evaluate peripheral vision and detect blind spots or vision loss
  • Normal findings:
    • Peripheral field - 90° angle, temporally
    • Upward field vision - 50°, orbital ridge
    • Downward field vision - 70°, cheekbone
    • Nasal field vision - 50°, nose

Abnormal findings

  • Smaller than normal visual field, possible glaucoma
  • Loss in specific fields (e.g., left superior quadrant anopia)
  • Unilateral/bilateral blindness: Loss of vision in one or both eyes
  • Anopsia/anopia: General vision loss or blindness
  • Bitemporal hemianopia: Loss in the outer half of both visual fields.

Visual inspection

  • Detects abnormalities on the eye
  • Eyes should be aligned and symmetrical, with no squinting, tilting, or asymmetry.
  • Eyelids blink involuntarily 15-20 times per minute
  • Ptosis: Drooping eyelids, can be due to nerve damage
  • Entropion: Eyelid turns inward, lashes irritate eye
  • Ectropion: Eyelid turns outward, causes dryness
  • Trichiasis: Eyelashes grow inwards, cause discomfort

Lacrimal Gland/Sac

  • Dacryocystitis: Swelling, redness, or tenderness, may indicate blocked tear ducts

Bulbar Conjunctiva

  • Allergic conjunctivitis is caused by allergens and results in itchy, red, watery eyes
  • Viral conjunctivitis is caused by a virus and is often associated with other cold symptoms, watery discharge, red eyes
  • Bacterial conjunctivitis is caused by bacteria, resulting in yellow/green discharge, red eyes
  • Episcleritis involves inflammation of the episclera, causes localized mild discomfort
  • Jaundiced sclera indicates liver issues
  • Pale sclera indicates anemia
  • Reddened sclera indicates inflammation

Cornea and Lens

  • Arcus senilis: A gray ring around the cornea, possibly high cholesterol
  • Keratoconus: Bulging cornea causing distortion
  • Normal pupils: Black, equal size (3-7 mm), round, smooth border
  • Cloudiness is a sign of cataracts
  • Mydriasis: Dilated pupils
  • Miosis: Constricted pupils
  • Anisocoria: Unequal pupil sizes
  • Bulging iris associated with glaucoma

Pupillary Reaction Test

  • Assesses the neural pathways for pupillary light reflexes
  • Direct response: Pupil constriction when directly exposed to light
  • Consensual response: Non-illuminated pupil constricts when light shines on the other pupil.
  • Normal: Both pupils constrict to light.
  • Abnormal: Unequal or sluggish responses, no response
  • Horner syndrome: Smaller pupil, drooping eyelid, lack of sweating from nerve damage
  • Unilateral dilated pupil: Potential brain injury/increased pressure

Accommodation Test

  • Tests the ability of the eye to change focus
  • Normal: Pupils constrict for near objects, dilate for distant objects, and converge as objects move toward the nose

Corneal Light Reflex

  • Assess the alignment of the eyes and detect strabismus (misalignment of the eyes)
  • Strabismus is an asymmetry misalignment or involuntary eye movements.
  • Esotropia: One or both eyes turn inward
  • Exotropia: One or both eyes turn outward
  • Hypertropia: One eye turns upward
  • Hypotropia: One eye turns downward

Cardinal Gaze

  • Tests the movement and coordination of the extraocular muscles
  • Normal: Eyes move in unison with coordinated, parallel movements
  • Abnormal: Eyes fail to follow the finger in certain directions or one eye fails to follow
  • Strabismus indicates a cross eye
  • Nystagmus indicates rapid involuntary rhythmic eye movement suggesting neurologic impairment

Convergence

  • To assess the eye's ability to work together, when focusing on a close object, which is important for binocular vision

Refraction

  • Measured in Diopters
  • Refers to the bending of light rays by the eyes
  • Cornea is responsible for 66% of the eye's fixed focusing power
  • Crystalline lens: 33% of the eye's focusing power, changes shape to focus on objects (accommodation)
  • Refractive power of the lens is the reciprocal of focal length measured in meters
  • 1-diopter lens has 1 meter focal length, 2-diopter lens has 0.5 meters focal length

Emmetropia (Normal Vision)

  • The eye's focusing power is perfectly matched to the globe length
  • The image is focused perfectly on the retina
  • Causes are: Autosomal dominant inheritance or environmental

Myopia (Nearsightedness)

  • Mild Myopia appears between 5-8 years (-0.5 to -2.0D)
  • Moderate Myopia appears between 8-14 years (-2.0 to -5.0 D)
  • Severe occurs between 20-28 years (<-6.0 D)
  • Light rays focus in front of the cornea
  • Causes blurry distance
  • Treated with concave (divergent, minus power) lenses

Hyperopia (Farsightedness)

  • Normal in infants (+0.50 to +2.50 Diopters)
  • Light rays focus behind the cornea
  • Causes blurry near vision
  • Treated with convex (convergent, plus power) lenses

Astigmatism

  • Results from non-spherical corneal surface
  • Causes blurry vision at any distance.

The Ear

  • Outer ear includes Pinna and External auditory canal
  • Middle ear includes the Tympanic membrane(eardrum) and Ossicles(Malleus, Incus, Stapes)
  • Inner ear includes Semicircular canals, Cochlea, and Eustachian Tube

Outer (External) Ear

  • Fleshy auricle (pinna) of elastic cartilage
  • The external auditory canal guides sound waves to the eardrum, also amplifying sound.

Middle Ear

  • Thin, cone-shaped tympanic membrane separates from the outer ear
  • Ossicles are three small bones that transmit sound vibrations to the inner ear

Inner Ear

  • Cochlea has sensory cells turning vibrations into electrical signals
  • Vestibular system including semicircular canals and vestibule aids in balance/orientation
  • Eustachian tube connects the middle ear to the throat and helps equalize pressure.

Hearing

  • Sound vibrations travel through air and the malleus, incus, and stapes
  • Movement of fluid stimulates hair cells, initiating nerve impulses to the brain's acoustic nerve.

Types of Hearing Loss

  • Conductive hearing loss affects external and middle ear sound transmission
  • Involves transmission of sound through the outer ear and middle ear through air/bone conduction.
  • Percetive/Sensorineural hearing loss affects sound transmission in the inner ear.
  • The cochlea/auditory nerve processes and sends signals to the brain for interpretation.

Abnormal Findings

  • Sudden hearing loss can be because of otitis media
  • Immediate follow-up for Sudden Sensorineural Hearing Loss (SSHL)
  • Earache (otalgia) from blockage or dental
  • Tinnitus can be linked to high blood pressure or ototoxic medications
  • Vertigo is differentiated as subjective feeling (dizziness) and objective feeling (spinning).

Other considerations

  • Indicate purulent or otorrhea is an infection and or blood in the middle infection
  • Otitis Externa (Swimmer's Ear) can be avoided by avoiding moist environments.
  • After 50, gradual age hearing loss is common(Presbycusis)
  • Avoid removing ear wax unless it causes problems, Self-cleaning
  • Avoid inserting foreign objects like cotton swabs since it causes further damage

Internal Ear Structures

  • Exostoses are considered nonmalignant swellings.

Tympanic Membrane Abnormalities

  • Red, Bulging Eardrum is Suggestive of acute otitis media
  • Yellowish, Bulging Membrane with Bubbles is suggestive of serous otitis media
  • Bluish/Dark Red Color from Blood behind the eardrum due to trauma
  • White Spots happen with Scarring from past infections
  • Perforations can be due to trauma or infection

Hearing Tests

  • Weber's Test assesses sound conducted via bone
  • Sound lateralizes to the poorer ear (conductive) or the better ear (sensorineural)
  • Rinne Test tests abnormalities in the ear canal and tympanic membrane
  • African Americans, more high and low frequency sound heard.
  • Adults should be screened once every 10 years until 50 and then every 3 years after.

Mouth

  • Salivary glands: aids in digestion including Sublingual, Submandibular, and Parotid

Throat (Pharynx)

  • Contains the Nasopharynx, Oropharynxm and Laryngopharynx

Nose

  • Composed of bone and cartilage
  • A rich supply of blood vessels or is known as the, Kiesselbach's area commonly leads to nasal bleeding
  • Four pairs of paranasal sinuses: frontal, maxillary, ethmoidal, and sphenoidal.

Abnormalities

  • COLDSPA asses symptoms, sore, or lesions
  • Dysphagia increasing aspiration risk, needs consultant by thearapist
  • Olr adults can struggle to take care of teeth/dentures due to impairements
  • Malocclusion casuses swallow abnormalities

Assessment

  • Check that dentures retained, and are removed
  • Non-latex gloves, penlight and specuum should be used
  • Inspect the lips, coloration is very common depending and varies on each client
  • 32 teeth with smooth white serfaces should checked
  • Receding gums can depend on older clients due to recession

Abnormal Findings

  • Swelling of lips (edema)
  • May be caused by smoking or a high fluroide intake
  • Can affect speech
  • Can be a sign of measels

Throat Abnormalities

  • Hard nodules may indicate cancer
  • A dim or an light indicates consestion
  • Swollen nasal can mean upper resparatory function
  • Can occur from strokes

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