Pharmacology of Anticonvulsants

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Questions and Answers

What kind of effect does Xcorpi® have on the GABA-A chloride channel?

  • Acts as an inhibitor of the chloride channel
  • Acts as a negative allosteric modulator
  • Has no significant effect on the chloride channel
  • Acts as a positive allosteric modulator (correct)

What is a common adverse drug reaction (ADR) associated with Xcorpi®?

  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Chest pain
  • Severe allergic reaction
  • Dose-related somnolence (correct)

Which statement best describes the medication's categorization regarding substance control?

  • Schedule II controlled substance
  • Schedule V controlled substance (correct)
  • Schedule IV controlled substance
  • Not a controlled substance

Which role does Xcorpi® play concerning CYP450 enzymes?

<p>Inducer of CYP2B6 and moderate inhibitor of CYP2C19 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What was the role of phenobarbital in treating seizures compared to its current status?

<p>Once a drug of choice for neonatal seizures, now a 3rd line agent (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of action of Stiripentol?

<p>It is an allosteric modulator of GABA-A receptors (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the indications for the use of Stiripentol?

<p>Adjunct therapy for seizures associated with Dravet syndrome (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which enzyme's inhibition is associated with reduced neuron excitability due to Stiripentol?

<p>Lactate dehydrogenase (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is Stiripentol primarily metabolized in the body?

<p>By CYP2C19 and CYP3A4 isoenzymes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of Stiripentol is eliminated via urine?

<p>22% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of adults treated with vigabatrin experience visual field impairment?

<p>52% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which side effect is NOT classified as a common adverse drug reaction (ADR) of tiagabine?

<p>Respiratory depression (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does tiagabine primarily reduce seizures?

<p>By inhibiting GABA reuptake (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant metabolic pathway for levetiracetam?

<p>Hydrolysis to a carboxylic acid derivative (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What unique mechanism of action does levetiracetam exhibit?

<p>It inhibits the SV2A protein on synaptic vesicles (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which serious adverse reaction is associated with vigabatrin?

<p>Coma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In children under 3 years old, what percentage may experience intramyelinic edema?

<p>20% (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which physiological effect does tiagabine NOT induce?

<p>Increased concentration (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of channels does brivaracetam block to exert its effects?

<p>T-Type Ca2+ channels (C), Voltage gated Na+ channels (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which serious side effect is associated with Zonisamide that affects the body's ability to regulate temperature?

<p>Oligohidrosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an indication for the use of brivaracetam?

<p>Focal onset seizures in adults (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is associated with cognitive and psychiatric side effects such as depression and psychosis?

<p>Zonisamide (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common side effect associated with both Zonisamide and other carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?

<p>Nephrolithiasis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What warning must all anti-seizure medications include in their prescribing information?

<p>Warning about increased risk of suicidal thoughts and behaviors (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications is FDA approved in combination with clobazam for treating Dravet syndrome?

<p>Cannabidiol oral solution (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which enzyme does carbamazepine induce?

<p>CYP3A4 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications does NOT have any CYP inhibition or induction effect?

<p>Clobazam (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What primary route of elimination does pregabalin primarily utilize?

<p>Renal excretion (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antiepileptic drug is known for its oxidations and renal excretion mechanisms?

<p>Phenytoin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications is indicated for increased risk of suicidal thoughts according to its prescribing information?

<p>Clobazam (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which CYP pathway is inhibited by felbamate?

<p>CYP3A4 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of metabolic pathway does ethosuximide primarily follow?

<p>Oxidation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main route of degradation for stiripentol?

<p>Carboxyl esterase metabolism (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

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Study Notes

Xcorpi®

  • Positive allosteric modulator of the GABA-A chloride channel
  • Oral treatment for focal onset seizures
  • Common ADRs: somnolence, dizziness, headache, fatigue, diplopia.
  • Psychiatric ADRs: increased risk of suicidal thoughts or behavior
  • Can cause euphoria and feelings of drunkenness
  • Physical dependence may develop
  • Schedule V controlled substance
  • Inducer of CYP2B6, 2C8, and 3A4
  • Moderate inhibitor of CYP2C19

Phenobarbital

  • Schedule III controlled substance
  • Metabolized by CYP3A4 followed by glucuronidation
  • Elimination 48% feces; 22% urine
  • Adjunct therapy for seizures associated with Dravet syndrome in patients two years of age and older who are taking clobazam

Stiripentol

  • Allosteric modulator of the GABA-A receptor with direct activating effects
  • Increases duration of the opening of the chloride channel
  • Inhibits the reuptake of GABA
  • Inhibits GABA metabolism
  • Inhibits lactate dehydrogenase
  • Moderate inhibitor of both CYP1A2 and CYP2C19
  • ADRs: somnolence, decreased appetite, agitation, ataxia, weight loss, hypotonia, nausea, tremor, dysarthria, and insomnia
  • Metabolism: CYP2C19 & CYP3A4 (major) ; CYPA12 (minor)

Vigabatrin

  • Patients must undergo visual field testing
  • Visual field impairment occurs in 52% of adults and 34% of children
  • Intramyelinic edema in 20% of children < 3 years old
  • Can lower serum concentrations of phenytoin
  • REMS requirement for dispensing

Tiagabine

  • Inhibits neuronal and glial reuptake of GABA
  • ADRs: dizziness, somnolence, and tremor
  • Adjunct for focal onset seizures

Levetiracetam

  • 1st line treatment of focal and tonic-clonic seizures
  • Effective as add-on therapy for refractory myoclonic seizures
  • May be useful in children with Lennox-Gastaut
  • Major metabolic pathway is hydrolysis
  • Binds specifically to the SV2A protein on synaptic vesicles
  • Inhibits rectifying K+ channels

Zonisamide

  • Blocks voltage gated Na+ channels and T-Type Ca2+ channels
  • FDA- approved as adjunct for focal onset seizures in adults
  • ADRs: dizziness, somnolence, ataxia, anorexia, confusion, abnormal thinking, nervousness, fatigue, cognitive and psychiatric side effects, nephrolithiasis, weight loss, fatigue, somnolence, oligohidrosis, hyperthermia/heat stroke
  • Contraindicated in patients with sulfonamide hypersensitivity

AED CYP Induction Table

  • Many anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) are metabolized via the cytochrome P450 (CYP) system
  • Table shows: Main route of elimination, CYP degradation, CYP inhibition, UGT degradation, UGT, induction, and UGT inhibition
  • AEDs presented include: carbamazepine, clobazam, clonazepam, eslicarbazepine acetate, ethosuximide, felbamate, phenobarbital, phenytoin, pregabalin, rufinamide, stiripentol

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