Pharmacology in Nursing: Key Concepts

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

What is the recommended approach regarding drug therapy during pregnancy?

Postponing drug therapy until pregnancy and lactation is best. (correct)

The decision to take medication is solely determined by healthcare providers.

Most over-the-counter medications are safe for use.

Discontinue all drugs used to treat medical conditions.

Which principle best explains why certain drugs can easily cross the placental membrane?

Drugs with larger molecular weights cross rapidly.

Highly lipid-soluble drugs cross more easily than those with low lipid solubility. (correct)

Highly protein-bound drugs cross more effectively.

Lipid content affects drug permeability inversely.

What is the primary effect of bethanechol on the bladder?

Impairs urination

Relaxes the bladder muscles

Decreases urine production

Increases the contractions of the bladder (correct)

Which category of medications increases the risk of confusion and falls in older adults?

Sedatives Signup and view all the answers

What factor is a significant risk for neonatal patients in relation to drug therapy?

Immature renal system Signup and view all the answers

Which drug is known to dry mucous membranes and decrease mucus secretions?

Atropine Signup and view all the answers

How much physostigmine should the nurse draw for a dose of 1.5 mg from a 2 mL vial at 1 mg/mL concentration?

1.5 mL Signup and view all the answers

The statement 'I will only take medications approved by the shaman' reflects which aspect of the client?

Cultural belief Signup and view all the answers

To avoid medication errors, what key practice should a nurse follow when receiving a telephone order?

Repeat the order back to the prescriber. Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following are possible adverse effects of Donepezil?

Dizziness, drowsiness, and GI upset Signup and view all the answers

What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for in a client receiving hydralazine?

Orthostatic hypotension Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements correctly describes a consideration about older adults and medication use?

Diuretics commonly lead to dehydration. Signup and view all the answers

What is a common adverse effect expected when administering sublingual nitroglycerin?

Decreased blood pressure Signup and view all the answers

How does lipid solubility influence drug permeability across the placental barrier?

High lipid solubility allows for easy penetration. Signup and view all the answers

Angina occurs when there is a deficiency in what aspect of heart function?

Oxygen and nutrients supply insufficiency Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with heart failure following an acute MI, enalapril is primarily prescribed for what reason?

To decrease blood pressure Signup and view all the answers

What is the most appropriate action if a client experiences muscle pain after starting a medication?

Notify the healthcare provider immediately Signup and view all the answers

What adverse effect should a nurse monitor for in a client prescribed metoprolol?

Bradycardia Signup and view all the answers

What priority assessment should the nurse perform before administering naloxone to a client?

Monitoring respiratory rate Signup and view all the answers

Which laboratory value should a nurse monitor most closely in a client prescribed valproic acid?

Liver function tests Signup and view all the answers

What should a client expect when taking clozapine for schizophrenia?

Decreased white blood cell count Signup and view all the answers

What adverse effect should a nurse monitor for in a client receiving isoniazid?

Hepatotoxicity Signup and view all the answers

When is the best time for a client to take proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) for maximum efficacy?

Half an hour before a meal Signup and view all the answers

A client receiving gentamicin reports dizziness and hearing loss. What should the nurse do first?

Discontinue the medication and notify the provider Signup and view all the answers

Which adverse effect is most concerning for a client taking amiodarone?

Cough and shortness of breath Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a side effect of metoprolol that should be closely monitored?

Bradycardia Signup and view all the answers

What key teaching point should be included for a client taking rifampin for tuberculosis?

Expect urine and other body fluids to turn orange-red Signup and view all the answers

What should be the primary assessment focus during a naloxone administration in an opioid overdose?

Monitoring respiratory rate Signup and view all the answers

What potential adverse effect should a nurse watch for in a client prescribed etanercept?

Infection Signup and view all the answers

What is the likely reason a client prescribed propranolol feels dizzy when standing?

Orthostatic hypotension caused by the medication Signup and view all the answers

What should the nurse's first action be for a client on atorvastatin who reports muscle pain and weakness?

Notify the healthcare provider immediately Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about taking medication on an empty stomach is accurate?

It can enhance the medication's absorption and effectiveness Signup and view all the answers

What clinical improvement does the drug used in early heart failure provide?

It decreases peripheral vascular resistance, increasing cardiac output. Signup and view all the answers

Why should propranolol be used with caution in clients with heart failure?

It is a negative inotropic drug and will decrease myocardial contractility and cardiac output. Signup and view all the answers

What is a critical consideration for a patient on warfarin who takes aspirin or ibuprofen?

They will increase the risk of bleeding. Signup and view all the answers

For which condition should the nurse question the order of gemfibrozil for a client?

Gallbladder disease. Signup and view all the answers

How much mannitol will the patient receive if they weigh 165 lbs and the order is for 0.05 g/kg?

3.7 g. Signup and view all the answers

In administering mannitol, how many milliliters will you prepare for infusion from a 100 mL vial of 20% solution to achieve 3.7 grams?

18.8 mL. Signup and view all the answers

Which insulin combination is utilized for managing type 1 diabetes?

NPH and regular insulin. Signup and view all the answers

What side effect is most important to monitor when a patient is on propranolol due to its action?

Decreased cardiac output. Signup and view all the answers

Which adverse effects should a nurse monitor for in a client taking atropine?

Dry mouth Signup and view all the answers

What adverse effects should the nurse monitor for in a client prescribed fluoxetine?

Sexual dysfunction Signup and view all the answers

Which dietary instruction is most important for a client on lithium?

Maintain consistent sodium intake Signup and view all the answers

When a nurse administers phenytoin, which adverse effects should be monitored?

Gingival hyperplasia Signup and view all the answers

What finding should a nurse immediately report in a client receiving spironolactone?

Serum potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L Signup and view all the answers

What is the best response by a nurse when a client on prednisone asks about stopping the medication?

You need to gradually taper off the medication as directed. Signup and view all the answers

In a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease prescribed ibuprofen, what potential risk should be considered?

Gastrointestinal bleeding Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common side effect that should be monitored when a patient starts on an SSRI like fluoxetine?

Weight gain Signup and view all the answers

Signup and view all the answers

Study Notes

Pharm Final Exam Study Notes

Question 6: When possible, postpone drug therapy until pregnancy and lactation. Most over-the-counter medications are safe during pregnancy. The mother is ultimately responsible for medication decisions.

Question 7: Highly lipid-soluble drugs cross the placental membrane more easily than drugs with low lipid solubility. Larger molecular weight drugs do not pass rapidly. Highly protein-bound drugs do not pass rapidly.

Question 8: Older adult patients are more susceptible to confusion, forgetfulness, and falls when taking diuretics and laxatives.

Question 9: Immature renal system is a risk factor for neonatal drug therapy. Other factors include hyperperistalsis of the GI tract, smaller circulatory capacity, and regular temperature regulation.

Question 10: A statement reflecting a client's cultural belief is "I will only take medications that are approved by the shaman."

Question 11: Repeat the order back verbally to ensure accuracy when receiving a telephone order from a prescriber. Never accept a telephone prescription without repeating it back.

Question 12: Oral medications with gastric peristalsis decrease absorption of other oral medications.

Question 13: Hepatitis and resulting hepatic impairment will increase the duration of action of most medications.

Question 14: The phases of pharmacogenetics are as follows (in order):
A drug binds to plasma proteins, albumin, and circulates through the body.
Enzymes in the liver transform the drug into an inactive metabolite.
Drug metabolites are secreted through passive glomerular filtration into the renal tubules.

Question 15: Evidence to determine if a medication dose is effective includes laboratory values and physical examinations.

Question 16: Divide the total dose (8 mg) by the concentration (1 mg/mL) to find the volume needed per dose (4 mL).

Question 17: Orthostatic hypotension is a potential adverse effect that is monitored in clients receiving hydralazine for elevated blood pressure.

Question 18: Increasing dietary fiber and fluids and assessing the need for a stool softener are essential in a post-op client receiving opioids as opioids can cause severe constipation.

Question 19: Possible signs of malignant hyperthermia include muscle rigidity, tachycardia, and tachypnea.

Question 20: Benzodiazepines should not be used as a first-choice for sleeplessness or taken with other benzodiazepines. Patients need to be evaluated for drowsiness the next day and should be taken 1–2 hours before bedtime.

Question 21: Bethanechol increases bladder contractions to aid in urination, not increasing urethral opening or blood flow to the kidneys.

Question 22: Atropine is an anticholinergic drug that decreases mucus secretions.

Question 23: Calculate the volume (amount) needed by dividing 1.5 mg by 1mg/ml which equals 1.5 mL.

Question 24: Possible adverse effects of Donepezil include dizziness, drowsiness, and GI upset.

Question 25: Monitoring orthostatic hypotension is important when a client is receiving hydralazine.

Question 26: Monitoring for decreased blood pressure is critical when administering sublingual nitroglycerin.

Question 27: Angina arises when the supply of oxygen and nutrients in the blood is insufficient to meet the demands of the heart.

Question 28: Enalapril improves cardiac output by decreasing peripheral vascular resistance and thereby increasing cardiac output.

Question 29: Propranolol is used cautiously in clients with heart failure due to its negative inotropic effect, which decreases myocardial contractility and cardiac output.

Question 30: Taking aspirin and ibuprofen with anticoagulants increases the risk of bleeding.

Question 31: Important considerations for the client receiving gemfibrozil include diabetes and hypertension.

Question 32: Convert the patient's weight into kilograms (165 lb / 2.2 lb/kg = 75 kg). Calculate the dose in grams (0.05 g/kg x 75 kg = 3.75 g). Use the concentration of the mannitol solution (20%) to calculate the milliliter volume: (3.75 g / 0.2 g/ml = 18.75 ml)

Question 33: The risk of hypoglycemia is greatest during the peak periods of insulin.

Question 34: The patient experiencing symptoms of hyperthyroidism needs the levothyroxine dosage decreased.

Question 35: Decreased blood cholesterol levels, pulse rate between 60 and 100 bpm, and decreased reports of fatigue are expected therapeutic effects from levothyroxine.

Question 36: Salbutamol (albuterol) is used during asthma attacks for bronchospasm relief.

Question 37: Common adverse effects of a salbutamol nebulizer treatment includes an increased heart rate with palpitations.

Question 38: Reviewing the patient's past medical history is important prior to administering ondansetron to determine if the patient has cardiac issues or allergies to eggs or soy.

Question 39: Proton pump inhibitors are best administered half an hour before a meal.

Question 40: GERD is not caused by infection and does not require antibiotics, so antibiotics are not the correct treatment.

Question 41: Antibiotics can decrease the effectiveness of hormonal oral contraceptives, so this is something that should be considered.

Question 42: Superinfections can cause abnormal symptoms, especially after taking antibiotics which suppresses the body's immune system.

Question 43: A previous allergic reaction to penicillin suggests potential cross-reactivity with cephalosporins.

Question 44: Blood and sputum cultures must always be performed before administering antibiotics.

Question 45: A peak serum gentamicin level of 7mcg/ml is considered a possible toxicity.

Question 46: Antiviral drugs can delay the progression of viral infections but do not eliminate them.

Question 47: Hepatic function studies need to be performed prior to initiating therapy with ketoconazole.

Question 48: Factors to consider relating to receiving immunizations in a child include the mother's preconceptions and reservations about vaccines.

Question 49: Taking acetaminophen (Tylenol) for any pain following the injection can be done, so that is an appropriate statement to ensure the client understands the procedure.

Question 50: The roles and responsibilities of RPNs involved in medication administration include monitoring for adverse effects, monitoring laboratory findings, patient education, and assuring the "eight rights" and three checks.

Question 51: A client with hypothyroidism reporting cold intolerance, fatigue, and dry skin may need their levothyroxine dose increased.

Question 52: Albuterol (salbutamol) facilitates airflow by relaxing bronchial smooth muscle.

Question 53: A client taking corticosteroids can experience adverse effects such as weight gain, increased susceptibility to infection, osteoporosis, and drowsiness.

Question 54: The nurse should advise the patient to not discontinue the medication without the healthcare provider's recommendation.

Question 55: Rotate the application area of nitroglycerin patches to prevent skin irritation.

Question 56: Clients receiving warfarin should limit the intake of leafy green vegetables.

Question 57: Beta-blocker medication can mask symptoms of hypoglycemia such as tachycardia.

Question 58: If a client experiencing heparin therapy reports blood in their urine, stop the infusion immediately and contact the healthcare provider.

Question 59: Monitor potassium levels and sodium levels with clients taking furosemide (Lasix).

Question 60: Teach clients that taking methotrexate with alcohol is dangerous as methotrexate is hepatotoxic.

Question 61: Vancomycin is administered over a prolonged period to lower the risk of red man syndrome.

Question 62: Clients who take aspirin for pain should be monitored for adverse effects that can include gastrointestinal bleeding, tinnitus, and prolonged bleeding time

Question 63: Clients taking metformin for diabetes should be monitored for lactic acidosis.

Question 64: Clients receiving erythromycin should be monitored for hearing loss or ringing in their ears as this is a sign of ototoxicity.

Question 65: The client should not stop taking the medication without the recommendation of the provider. Continuing the medication is crucial for managing symptoms and preventing adverse effects.

Question 66: Adverse effects for atropine include dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary retention.

Question 67: Adverse effects from fluoxetine include weight gain, sexual dysfunction, and insomnia.

Question 68: A client taking lithium should have a consistent intake of sodium and avoid foods high in potassium.

Question 69: Common adverse effects associated with phenytoin include gingival hyperplasia, ataxia, rash (or skin irritation), and hyperglycemia.

Question 70: Serum potassium levels should be monitored in clients receiving spironolactone due to its potassium-sparing effects to avoid hyperkalemia.

Question 71: A client taking prednisone should be informed of appropriate discontinuation or tapering of the medication to avoid adrenal insufficiency.

Question 72: For clients with peptic ulcer disease and taking ibuprofen to treat pain, it is critical to instruct them to take the medication with food to avoid gastric irritation.

Question 73: Clients taking warfarin may experience increased risk of bleeding if an antibiotic is taken concurrently, so the healthcare provider should be notified immediately.

Question 74: Loratadine is used for allergic rhinitis, not related to other pain syndromes or hypertension.

Question 75: A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L is considered dangerously low and requires immediate intervention as this can indicate hypokalemia

Question 76: A client prescribed zolpidem for insomnia should avoid engaging in activities that require alertness to prevent adverse effects of drowsiness and impaired coordination.

Question 77: Sedation is a potential adverse effect associated with methyldopa.

Question 78: Clients receiving ferrous sulfate should be instructed to expect dark, tarry stools as this is a normal side effect.

Question 79: A client receiving clozapine needs to be monitored for decreased white blood cell counts due to the chance of agranulocytosis.

Question 80: Monitor clients for hepatotoxicity when receiving isoniazid.

Question 81: Cough and shortness of breath, an adverse effect associated with amiodarone, presents a life-threatening situation that requires immediate action.

Question 82: Rifampin is known to cause urine and body fluids to turn orange-red due to its metabolism and excretion.

Question 83: A client receiving etanercept should be monitored for an increased risk of infection.

Question 84: Orthostatic hypotension is a possible adverse effect of propranolol.

Question 85: Notify the healthcare provider immediately if a client receiving atorvastatin develops muscle pain and weakness.

Question 86: Beta blockers, like metoprolol, can cause bradycardia.

Question 87: Monitor the respiratory rate of a client receiving naloxone for opioid overdose.

Question 88: Monitor liver function tests (liver enzymes) of clients with bipolar disorder receiving valproic acid.

Question 89: Discontinue the gentamicin medication and notify the provider if the client reports hearing loss and dizziness to avoid ototoxicity.

Studying That Suits You

Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

Description

This quiz covers essential concepts in pharmacology relevant to nursing practice. It addresses drug therapy during pregnancy, effects of medications on different patient populations, and safe practices for administering medication. Test your knowledge of important pharmacological principles and their application in nursing care.